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17th July 2014, 01:29 PM
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Join Date: Apr 2013
Re: Infosys Placement paper

As you are looking for the Infosys Placement paper, here I am sharing the same:

Infosys model questions contributed by Deepak Banglore

Placement pattern for Infosys consists of two rounds:

1 Infosys Written test

2Infosys Final HR. Clearing the written test implies that the chance of being selected to Infosys is almost done.

The written Test consists of two test patterns:
Aptitude Reasoning Test
No of Questions: 30
Duration: 40 minutes
Verbal ability
No of Questions: 40
Duration: 35 minutes

The Aptitude reasoning test pattern is distributed into 6 different topics with 5 questions each as:

1Picture Reasoning (5 questions)
In this section, a series of pictures are given which may consist of picture series, picture analogy or picture classification.

2 STATEMENT REASONING(5 Questions)
In this section, sequence questions like seating arrangement or money distribution or height arrangement are given.
A set of five questions are based directly on the statements given.

3. DATA SUFFICIENCY (5 questions)
Here a set of two statements are given followed by 5 options which satisfy the answer for the statements. You have to decide which option best suits the answer.

4. DATA INTERPRETATION (5 questions)
This section consists of a direct sequence of 5 questions based on the data which is provided in the form of table charts, bar charts, pie charts or line charts.

5 RELATION PROBLEM (5 questions)
This section consists of questions which are similar to the sets and relations like students with biology, maths, physics and chemistry, maths and biology, only physics, etc., and questions related as such.

6.SYLLOGISM (5 questions)
This section consists of statement followed by two conclusions. We need to pick out from 5 options which suits the best answer

The Verbal Ability test pattern is distributed into 5 different topics as:
1. SENTENCE CORRECTION (8 questions)
Among 4 sentences the correct one should be detected

2.UNDERLINED A PART OF SENTENCE AND ASKED TO INSERT CORRECT PHRASE IN IT FROM THE GIVEN 4 OPTIONS (8questions)

3. FILL IN THE BLANKS (8questions)

4. THEME DETECTION (6 questions)

5. TWO READING COMPREHENSIONS (10 questions)

Below are the sample test papers for Infosys recruitment process:

PART A SAMPLE TEST PAPER OF APTITUDE REASONING FOR INFOSYS
Questions: 30 Duration: 40 Minutes

Directions (Questions 1-5) Each of the following questions consists of five figures marked A, B, C, D and E called the Problem Figures followed by five other figures marked 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 called the Answer Figures. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as established by the five Problem Figures.
Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as established by the five Problem Figures.
Problem Figures: Answer Figures:


A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5
Ans: C
Explanation: In each step, element at the upper-right position gets enlarged, inverts vertically and reaches the lower-left corner; the existing element at the lower-left position, is lost and a new small element appears at the upper-right position.

2. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as established by the five Problem Figures.
Problem Figures: Answer Figures:


A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5
Ans: B
Explanation: In each step, the elements move in the sequence.

3. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as established by the five Problem Figures.
Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5
Explanation: In each step, the CW-end element moves to the ACW-end position.

4. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as established by the five Problem Figures.
Problem Figures: Answer Figures:


A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5
Ans: A
Explanation: The ‘x’ moves one step and two steps ACW alternatively and a symbol is added each time it moves one before and the other after alternatively

5. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as established by the five Problem Figures.
Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5
Ans: E
Explanation: In each step, the figure rotates ACW and the trapezium gets inverted. The other symbol gets replaced by a new one alternatively.

Directions (Questions 6-10) Each of the following Questions consists of five options. Choose the best option that suits the question given.

6. Nithin was counting down from 32. Sumit was counting upwards the numbers starting from 1 and he was calling out only the odd numbers. What common number will they call out at the same time if they were calling at the same speed?
A. 19 B. 21 C.22 D.They will not call out the same numberE. None of these.
Ans: D
Explanation:
Nithin: 32 31 30 29 28 27 26 25 24 23 22 21 20…..Sumit: 1 3 5 7 9 11 13 15 17 19 21 23 25…Clearly it is seen that they never call out same nmber at the same time.

7. Radha moves towards South-east a distance of 7 km, then she moves towards West and travels a distance of 14m. From here, she moves towards North-west a distance of 7 m and finally she moves a distance of 4 m towards East and stod at that point. How far is the starting point from where she stood?
A. 3 m B. 4m C.8 m D10 m E.11 mAns

Explanation: The movements of Radha are shown as below:

Clearly Radha’s distance from starting point O = OD = (OC –CD) =(AB-CD) = (14-4) m = 10 m

8. In a certain office, 1/3 of the workers are women, ½ of the women are married and 1/3 of the married women have children. If 3/4 th of the men are married and2/3 rd of the married men have children, what part of workers are without children?A. 5/18 B. 4/9 C. 11/18 D17/18 E.17/36Ans: C
Explanation: Let total no. of workers be x
Number of women = x/3 and number of men = 2x/3Women married=1/2 * x/3 = x/6
Women having children = 1/3 *x/6 =x/18
Married Men =3/4 *2x/3 = x/2
Men having Children =2/3 * x/2 = x/3
Workers with children = x/3 + x/18 = 7x/18
Hence, workers without children = x- 7x/18 = 11x/18

9. A, P, R, X, S and Z are sitting in a row. S and z are in the centre. A and P are at the ends. R is sitting to the left of A. Who is to the right of P?A. P B. A C.X D.S E.ZAns: C
Explanation : The seating arrangement is as follows :P X S Z R AHence , right of P is X.

10. Introducing a boy, a girl said, "He is the son of the daughter of the father of my uncle." How is the boy related to the girl?
A. Brother B. Nephew C. Uncle D. son in law E. grand fatherAns: A
Explanation:
The father of the boy's uncle → the grandfather of the boy and daughter of the grandfather → sister of father.

Directions (Questions 11-12): Each Question Given Below has a problem and two statements numbered I and II giving certain Information. You have to decide if the information given in the statements is sufficient for answering the problem. Indicate your answer as(i) if data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question;(ii) if data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question;
(iii) if data either in I or II alone are sufficient to answer the question;
(iv) if the data even in both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question;
(v) if the data in both the statements are needed.

11. Is Anil taller than Sachin?I. Dinesh is of the same height as Arun and Sachin.
II. Sachin is not shorter than Dinesh.
A. i B. iii C. ii D. v E. ivAns: A
Explanation: From statement I, we can conclude that Dinesh, Arun and Sachin are of same height. So, Arun is not taller than Sachin. So, only statement I is sufficient to answer the question.

12. In a certain code language, ‘13’ means ‘stop smoking’ and ‘59’ means ‘injurious habit’. What is the meaning of ‘9’ and ‘5’ respectively in that code?I. ‘157’ means ‘stop bad habit’
II. ‘839’ means ‘smoking is injurious’.
A. ii B. iii C. v D. iv E. i Ans: BExplanation: ‘59’ means ‘injurious habit’ and ‘157’ means ‘stop bad habit’. Hence common letter ‘5’ denotes ‘habit’. Hence ‘9’ is obviously ‘injurious’. So I alone can be sufficient. Also, ‘59’ is ‘injurious habit’ and ‘839’ is ‘smoking is injurious’ from which it can be implied that ‘9’ is ‘injurious’. Hence II alone can also be sufficient. Hence either I or II alone can be sufficient.

Directions (13- 15): In the following problem, there is one question and three statements I, II and III below the question. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements is sufficient to answer the question. Read all the statements carefully and find out the probable pair which can be sufficient to answer the question.

13. Five persons --- A, B, C, D and E are sitting in a row. Who is sitting in the middle?I. B is in between E and C.II. B is to the right of E.III. D is in between A and E.I and II together B. II and III together C. I and III togetherD. I, II and III together E. Data insufficient.Ans: D
Explanation:
From I, the order is E, B, C or C, B, E.
From II, the order is E, B.
From III, the order is A, D, E.
Combining all the three, we get the order as: A, D, E, B, C.
Clearly, E is sitting in the middle.
Hence all the three statements are required.

14. Four Subjects --- Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics and Biology were taught in four consecutive periods of one hour each starting from 8.00 a.m. At what time was the Chemistry period scheduled?I. Mathematics period ended at 10.00 am which was preceded by Biology.
II. Physics was scheduled in the last period.
III. Mathematics period was immediately followed by Chemistry.
Only I B. Only I or II C. Only II D. II and III together.E. I and II together or I and III together
Ans: E
Explanation: From I and II we conclude that Mathematics period began at9.00 a.m., Biology period began at 8.00 a.m. and Physics period began at 11.00 a.m. So, the Chemistry period began at 10.00 a.m.
From I and III, it is clearly seen that Mathematics period ended at 10.00 a.m. followed by Chemistry to start at 10.00 a.m.

15. How many sons does Sharma have? I. Saurav and Aditya are brothers of Sonali.II. Ayesha is sister of Sharmila and Aditya.
III. Ayesha and Sonali are daughters of Sharma.
A. I and II only. B. II and III together. C. I, II and III togetherD. I, II, III together are not sufficient E. I and III togetherAns: C
Explanation: From I, Saurav, Aditya and Sonali are siblings. From II, Ayesha, Sharmila and Aditya are siblings. It implies that Saurav, Aditya, Ayesha, Sharmila and Sonali are siblings. This is supported by III.

Directions (Questions 16-20): The following table shows the number of new employees added to different categories of employees in a company and also the no of employees from these categories who left the company ever since the foundation of the company in 1995.


16. During the period of 1995 and 2000, the total no of operators who left the company is what percent of the total number of Operators who joined the company?A. 19% B. 21% C. 27% D. 29% E. 32% Ans: DExplanation: Total no. of operators who left the company during 1996 to 2000
= (104 + 120 + 100 + 112 + 144) = 580.
Total No. of Operators who joined the company during 1996 to 2000
= (880 + 256 + 240 + 208 + 192 + 248) = 2024.
Hence, required Percentage = (580/2024 * 100) = 28.66% = 29%

17. For which of the following categories the percentage increase in the number of employees working in the company from 1996 to 2000 was maximum?A. Managers B. Technicians C. Operators D. AccountantsE. Peons.
Ans: A
Explanation:
No. of managers in 1995 = 760
No. of managers by 2000 = (760 + 280 + 179 + 145 + 160 + 193) – (120 + 92 + 88 + 72 + 96) = 1252.
Hence, percentage of increase = (1262-760)/760 * 100 = 64.74%Similarly we can calculate for the rest of employees.

18. What is the difference between total number of Technicians added to the company and total number of Accountants added to the company during the year 1996 to 2000 at the maximum?A. 128 B. 112 C. 96 D. 88 E. 72Ans: D
Explanation: (272 + 240 + 236 + 256 + 288) – (200 + 224 + 248 + 272 + 260) = 88

19. What was the total no. of peons working in the company in the year 1999?A. 1312 B. 1192 C.1088 D.968 E.908Ans: B
Explanation: (820 + 184 + 152 + 196 + 224) – (96 + 88 + 80 + 120) = 1192

20. What is the pooled average of all employees in the year 1997?A. 1325 B. 1285 C. 1265 D. 1235 E. 1195Ans: E
Explanation:
Managers: (760 + 280 + 179) – (120 + 92) = 1007
Technicians: (1200 + 272 + 240) – (120 + 128) = 1464
Operators: (880 +256 +240) – (104 + 120) = 1152
Accountants: (1160 +200 +224) – (100 + 104) = 1380
Peons: (820 + 184 + 152) – (96 + 88) = 972
Hence pooled average of 5 categories = (1007 + 1464 + 1152 + 1380 + 972)/5 = 1195


16 from I and 8 from II
Directions (Questions 26-30): In each of the following questions two statements are given and these statements are followed by two conclusions numbered (1) and (2). You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
26. Statements: Some papers are pens. All the pencils are pens. Conclusions:
1. Some pens are pencils.2. Some pens are papers.Only (1) conclusion follows
Only (2) conclusion follows
Both (1) and (2) follow
Either (1) or (2) follows
Neither (1) nor (2) follows
Ans: C
Explanation:

27. Statements: Some dogs are bats. Some bats are cats. Conclusions:
Some dogs are cats.
Some cats are dogs
Only (2) conclusion follows
Both (1) and (2) follow
Either (1) or (2) follows
Only (1) conclusion follows
Neither (1) nor (2) follows
Ans: E
Explanation:

28. Statements: All the windows are doors. No door is a wall. Conclusions:
Some windows are walls.
No wall is a door.
Either (1) or (2) follows
Only (2) conclusion follows
Both (1) and (2) follow
Neither (1) nor (2) follows
Only (1) conclusion follows
Ans: B
Explanation:

29. Some actors are singers. All the singers are dancers. Conclusions:
Some actors are dancers.
No singer is actor.
Only (1) conclusion follows
Only (2) conclusion follows
Either (1) or (2) follows
Neither (1) nor (2) follows
Both (1) and (2) follow
Ans: A
Explanation:

30. Statements: All the pencils are pens. All the pens are inks. Conclusions:
All the pencils are inks.
Some inks are pencils.
Only (2) conclusion follows
Only (1) conclusion follows
Either (1) or (2) follows
Both (1) and (2) follow
Neither (1) nor (2) follows
Ans: D
Explanation:


PART B SAMPLE TEST PAPER OF Verbal ability FOR INFOSYS
Questions: 40 Duration: 35 Minutes
Directions (Questions 1-8): Which of phrases given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold type to make the grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is, mark 'E' as the answer.1. You need not come unless you want to.
A.You don't need to come unless you want to
B.You come only when you want to
C.You come unless you don't want to
D.You needn't come until you don't want to
E.No correction required
Ans: A

2. They were all shocked at his failure in the competition
A.were shocked at all
B.had all shocked at
C.had all shocked by
D.had been all shocked on
E.No correction required
Ans: E

3. Despite of their differences on matters of principles, they all agree on the demand of hike is salary?
A.Despite their
B.Despite of the
C.Despite for their
D.Despite off their
E.No correction required
Ans: A

4. He is a singer of repute, but his yesterday's performance was quite disappointing.
A.performances of yesterday were
B.yesterday performance was
C.esterday performance were
D.performances about yesterday were
E.No correction required
Ans: E

5.The crime has growth rapidly in Russia since the disintegration of the communist system.
A.rapid crime has grown
B.crime has grown rapidly
C.
crimes grow rapidly
D.crimes have been rapidly grown
E.No correction requiredAns: B

6. My hair stood off ends when I saw the horrible sight.
A.stood at ends
B.tood on ends
C.stood to ends
D.stands on ends
E.No correction requiredAns: B

7. The crops are dying; it must not had rained.
A.must had not
B.must not be
C.must not have
D.must not have been
E.No correction required
Ans: C8. The intruder stood quietly for few moments
A.for few time
B.for the few moments
C.for moments
D.for a few moments
E.No correction required
Ans: D

Directions (Questions 9-16): In questions given below, a part of the sentence is italicized and underlined. Below are given alternatives to the italicized part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, option 'D' is the answer.

9.If the room had been brighter, I would have been able to read for a while before bed time.
A.If the room was brighter
B.If the room are brighter
C.Had the room been brighter
D.No improvement
Ans: C

10. If you are not clear about the meaning of a word, it is wise to look to a dictionary.
A.ook for
Book at
C.look up
D.No improvement
Ans: C

11. There is no more room for you in this compartment.
A.there is no more seat
B.there is no more space
C.there is no more accommodation
D.No improvement
Ans: B

12. More than one person was killed in accident.
A.were killed
B.are killed
C.have been killed
D.No improvement
Ans: A

13. Every time I go in a lift to my sixth floor apartment, I remember the calm and serenity of my ancestral home in the village.
A.move in a lift
B.ascend in a lift
C.take a lift
D.No improvement
Ans: C

14. My friend was in hospital for a week after an accident.
A.through
B.following
C.for
D.No improvement
Ans: B

15. If you are living near a market place you should be ready to bear the disturbances caused by traffic.
A.to bear upon
B.to bear with
C.to bear away
D.No improvement
Ans: B

16. In India today many of our intellectuals still talk in terms of the French Revolution and the Rights of Man, not appreciating that much has happened since then.
A.much has been happening
B.much had happened
C.much might happen
D.No improvement
Ans: D

Directions (Questions17-24): Pick out the most effective word(s) from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
17. Catching the earlier train will give us the ...... to do some shopping.
A.chance
B.luck
C.possibility
D.occasion
Ans: A

18. Many of the advances of civilization have been conceived by young people just on the ...... of adulthood
A.boundary
B.threshold
C.peak
D.horizon
Ans: B

19. If I take a state roadways bus, I'll get late...?
A.isn't it
B.won't I
C.will I
D.s it
Ans: B

20. The paths of glory lead ...... to the grave.
A.straight
B.but
C.in
D.directly
Ans: B

21. Wheat ...... carbohydrates, vitamins, proteins, and dietary fibre in our daily diet.
A.has
B.gives
C.yields
D.provides
Ans: C

22....... all intents and purposes, the manager is the master of the firm.
A. in
B.upon
C.with
D.to
Ans: D

23.He ...... in wearing the old fashioned coat in spite of his wife's disapproval.
A.insists
B.persists
C.desists
D.resists
Ans: B

24. We shall not to be able to use your ability in court unless we can find someone to ...... to statements.
A.corroborate
B.avouch
C.verify
D.approve
Ans: A

Directions (Questions25-30): Each of the following questions contains a small paragraph followed by a question on it. Read each paragraph carefully and answer the question given below it.

25.Due to enormous profits involved in smuggling, hundreds of persons have been attracted towards this anti-national activity. Some of them became millionaires overnight. India has a vast coastline both on the Eastern and Western Coast. It has been a heaven for smugglers who have been carrying on their activities with great impunity. There is no doubt, that from time to time certain seizures were made by the enforcement authorities, during raids and ambush but even allowing these losses the smugglers made huge profits.
The passage best supports the statement that
A.Smuggling hampers the economic development of a nation.
B.Smuggling ought to be curbed.
C.Authorities are taking strict measures to curb smuggling.
D.Smuggling is fast increasing in our country owing to the quick profit it entails.
Ans: D
26. Industrial exhibitions play a major role in a country's economy. Such exhibitions, now regularly held in Delhi, enable us to measure the extent of our own less advanced industrial progress and the mighty industrial power and progress of countries like the U.K., U.S.A. and Russia whose pavilions are the centers of the greatest attention and attractions.
The passage best supports the statement that industrial exhibitions
-A.Greatly tax the poor economies.
B.Are more useful for the developed countries like U.S.A. whose products stand out superior to those of the developing countries.
C.Are not of much use to the countries that are industrially backward.
D.Boost up production qualitatively and quantitatively by analytical comparison of a country's products with those of the developed countries.
Ans: D
27. It is up to our government and planners to devise ways and means for the mobilization of about ten crore workers whose families total up about forty crore men, women and children. Our agriculture is over-manned. A lesser number of agriculturists would mean more purchasing or spending power to every agriculturist. This will result in the shortage of man-power for many commodities to be produced for which there will be a new demand from a prosperous agrarian class. This shortage will be removed by surplus man-power released from agriculture as suggested above.
The passage best supports the statement that:
A.Employment in production is more fruitful than employment in agriculture.
B.Indian economy is in a poor shape basically due to improper mobilization of man-power.
C.A shift of labour from agricultural sector to the industrial sector would uplift the living standard.
D.The industrial sector is labour-deficient while the agricultural sector is over-manned in our country.
Ans: B
28. The only true education comes through the stimulation of the child's powers by the demands of the social situations in which he finds himself. Through these demands he is stimulated to act as a member of a unity, to emerge from his original narrowness of action and feeling, and to conceive himself from the standpoint of the welfare of the group to which he belongs.

A.The passage best supports the statement that real education -A.
B.Will take place if the children imbibe action and feeling.
B.Will take place if the children are physically strong.
C.Is not provided in our schools today.
D.comes through the interaction with social situations
Ans: D
29. The virtue of art does not allow the work to be interfered with or immediately ruled by anything other than itself. It insists that it alone shall touch the work in order to bring it into being. Art requires that nothing shall attain the work except through art itself.
This passage best supports the statement that:
A.Art is governed by external rules and conditions.
B.Art is for the sake of art and life.
C.Art is for the sake of art alone.
D.Artist realizes his dreams through his artistic creation.

Ans: C
30. The attainment of individual and organizational goals is mutually interdependent and linked by a common denominator - employee work motivation. Organizational members are motivated to satisfy their personal goals, and they contribute their efforts to the attainment of organizational objectives as means of achieving these personal goals.
The passage best supports the statement that motivation -
A.Encourages an individual to give priority to personal goals over organizational goals.
B.Is crucial for the survival of an individual and organization.
C.s the product of an individual's physical and mental energy?
D.s the external force which induces an individual to contribute his efforts?

Ans: A
Directions (Questions31-40): The following section consists of two passages followed by set of questions. Read the passage thoroughly and answer the set of questions given below the passage.
(31 – 35):In the world today we make health and end in itself. We have forgotten that health is really means to enable a person to do his work and do it well. A lot of modern medicine and this includes many patients as well as many physicians pays very little attention to health but very much attention to those who imagine that they are ill. Our great concern with health is shown by the medical columns in newspapers. The health articles in popular magazines and the popularity of television programmers and all those books on medicine. We talk about health all the time. Yet for the most part the only result is more people with imaginary illness. The healthy man should not be wasting time talking about health: he should be using health for work. The work does the work that good health possible.
31. Modern medicine is primarily concerned with
A.promotion of good health
B.people suffering from imaginary illness
C.people suffering from real illness
D.ncreased efficiency in work
Ans: B32. The passage suggests that
A.health is an end in itself
B.health is blessing
C.health is only means to an end
D.we should not talk about health
Ans: C
33. Talking about the health all time makes people
A.always suffer from imaginary illness
B.sometimes suffer from imaginary illness
C.rarely suffer from imaginary illness
D.often suffer from imaginary illness
Ans: D
34. The passage tells us
A.how medicine should be manufactured
B.what healthy man should or should not do
C.what television programmers should be about
D.how best to imagine illness
Ans: B
35.
A healthy man should be concerned with
A.his work which good health makes possible
B.looking after his health
C.his health which makes work possible
D.talking about health
Ans: A
(36-40): Organizations are institutions in which members complete for status and power. They compete for resource of the organization, for example finance to expand their own departments, for career advancement and for power to control the activities of others. In pursuit of these aims, grouped are formed and sectional interests emerge. As a result, policy decisions may serve the ends of political and career systems rather than those of the concern. In this way, the goals of the organization may be displaced in favor of sectional interests and individual ambition. These preoccupations sometimes prevent the emergence of organic systems. Many of the electronic firms in the study had recently created research and development departments employing highly qualified and well paid scientists and technicians. Their high pay and expert knowledge were sometimes seen as a threat to the established order of rank, power and privilege. Many senior managers had little knowledge of technicality and possibilities of new developments and electronics. Some felt that close cooperation with the experts in an organic system would reveal their ignorance and show their experience was now redundant.
36. The theme of the passage is
A.Groupism in organizations
B.Individual ambitions in organizations
C.Frustration of senior managers
D.Emergence of sectional interests in organizations
Ans: D
37. "Organic system" as related to the organization implies its
A.growth with the help of expert knowledge
B.growth with input from science and technology
C.steady all around development
D.natural and unimpeded growth
Ans: B
38. Policy decision in organization would involve
A.cooperation at all levels in the organization
B.modernization of the organization
C.attracting highly qualified personnel
D.keeping in view the larger objectives of the organizations
Ans: C
39. The author makes out a case for
A.organic system
B.Research and Development in organizations
C.an understanding between senior and middle level executives
D.a refresher course for senior managers
Ans: A
40. The author tends to the senior managers as
A.ignorant and incompetent
B.a little out of step with their work environment
C.jealous of their younger colleagues
D.robbed of their rank, power and privilege
Ans: A
  #3  
17th November 2014, 10:06 AM
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Infosys placement paper

Here I am looking for placement paper of Infosys so will you please provide me?
  #4  
17th November 2014, 10:45 AM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Apr 2013
Re: Infosys placement paper

Here you are looking for placement paper of Infosys, as you want here I am providing you.

Infosys placement paper
[B]
1) APTITUDE TEST:

Questions = 70; time limit = 75 minutes. Sectional cut-off in each section it’s around 60% in Logical Reasoning part and 50% in Verbal Ability. No negative marking Offline (paper & pen) test



Analytical & Logical reasoning 30 questions: 40 minutes)

English section: (40 questions: 35 minutes)



1. There are 6561 balls out of them 1 is heavy. Find the min. no. of times the balls have to be weighed for finding out the heavy ball.

Ans. 8



2. If I walk with 30 miles/hr i reach 1 hour before and if i walk with 20 miles/hr i reach 1 hour late. Find the distance between 2 points and the exact time of reaching destination is 11 am then find the speed with which it walks.

Ans. 120miles and 24 miles/hr



3. When you reverse the digits of age of father u will get the age of son. One year ago the age of father was twice that of son's age. What are the current ages of father and son?

Ans: 73 & 37

4. In a class there are less than 500 students. When it is divided by 3 it gives a whole number. Similarly when it is divided by 4, 5 or 7 gives a whole number. Find the no. of students in the class



Ans: 420



5. A coffee seller has two types of coffee Brand A costing 5 bits per pound and Brand B costing 3 bits per pound. He mixes two brands to get a 40 pound mixture. He sold this at 6 bits per pound. The seller gets a profit of 33 1/2 percent. How much he has used Brand A in the mixture?



Ans: 30 pounds



6) Which figure completes the series?



Ans: A



7) Which figure completes the series?



Ans: C



8) Which figure completes the series?



Ans: C



9) Which figure completes the series?



Ans: D



10) Which figure completes the series?



Ans: B



Directions 11-15: In each question below are given three Statements followed by three Conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given Statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given Conclusions logically follows from the given Statements disregarding commonly known facts.



11. Statements:



Some cycles are busses. All cars are buses. Some buses are trains. Conclusions:



I. All cares are cycles.



II. Some trains are buses.



III. Some trains are cars.



(1) None follows (2) Only I and II follow (3) Only land III follow (4) Only II and III follow

(5) None of these



Ans: 4



12. Statements: All pencils are sticks. Some sticks are notes. All diaries are notes. Conclusions:

I. Some notes are diaries.



II. Some sticks are pencils.



III. Some diaries are sticks.



(1) All follow



(2) Only I follow



(3) Only I and II follow



(4) Only II follows



(5) None of these



Ans: 5



13. Statements: Some buds are leaves. No leaf is fruit. Some fruits are buds.

Conclusions:



I. Some fruits are leaves.



II. All buds are fruits.



III. Some leaves are buds.



(1) Only I or II follows



(2) Only III follows



(3) Only II follows



(4) None follows



(5) None of these



Ans: 2



14. Statements: Some birds are animals. All animals are rivers. Some rivers are lions. Conclusions:



I. Some lions are animals



II. Some rivers are birds



III. No animal is lion



(1) Only II follows



(2) Only either I or III follows



(3) I and II follows



(4) Only either II or III follow



(5) None of these



Ans: 3



15. Statements: All boxes are pans Some boxes are jugs .Some jugs are glasses.Conclusions:



I. Some glasses are boxes



II. No glass is box



III. Some jugs are pans



IV. No jug is pan



(1) Only I and II follows (2) Either I or II and III follows (3) Only III follows (4) Either I or II , and either III or IV follow (5) None of these



Ans: B



Directions 16-20 Use the following answer choices for the questions below.

A. Statement 1 alone is sufficient but statement 2 alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.

B. Statement 2 alone is sufficient but statement 1 alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.

C. Both statements 1 and 2 together are sufficient to answer the question but neither statement is sufficient alone.

D. Each statement alone is sufficient to answer the question.

E. Statements 1 and 2 are not sufficient to answer the question asked and additional data is needed to answer the statements.

16) If the average size of 3 accounts is $1 million, is the smallest account less than $500,000?

1. The largest account is $1.3 million.

2. One of the accounts is $0.7 million.

Ans: C



17) Is the product of x and y greater than 60?

1. The sum of x and y is greater than 60.

2. Each of the variables is greater than 2.

Ans: C



18) What is the value of y?

1. y - 3 = 2

2. y2 = 25

Ans: A



19) What was the percent increase of Company A's stock between June 1 and June 30, 2000?

1. The stock gained $5 in value during June 2000.

2. The stock rose 12% during the first half of the month.

Ans: E



20) Which company reported the larger dollar increase in earnings?

1. Company A reported that its earnings increased by 5%.

2. Company B reported that its earnings increased by 7%.

Ans: E



21. Ramesh starting from a fixed point goes 15 km towards North and then after turning to his right he goes 15 km. then he goes 10, 15 and 15 metres after turning to his left each time. How far is he from his starting point?



(A) 5 metres



(B) 10 metres



(C) 20 metres



(D) 15 metres



(E) Can not be determined



Ans: (B)



22. Sonalika goes 12 km towards North from a fixed point and then she goes 8 km towards South from there. In the end she goes 3 km towards east. How far and in what direction is she from her starting point?



(A) 7 km East



(B) 5 km West(C) 7 km West



(D) 5 km North-East



(E) None of these



Ans: (D)



23. Sunita goes 30 km towards North from a fixed point, then after turning to her right she goes 15 km. After this she goes 30 km after turning to her right. How far and in what direction is she from her starting point?



(A) 45 km, East



(B) 15 km, East



(C) 45 km, West



(D) 45 Km, North



(E) None of these



Ans: (B)



24. Kanchan goes 5 m towards east from a fixed point N and then 35 km after turning to her left. Again she goes 10 metres after turning to her right. After this she goes 35 m after turning to her right. How far is she from N?



(A) 40 m



(B) At N(C) 10 m



(D) 15 m



(E) None of these



Ans: (D)



25. Shri Prakash walked 40 metres facing towards North. From there he walked 50 metres after turning to his left. After this he walked 40 metres after turning to his left. How far and in what direction is he now from his starting point?



(A) 40 m, North



(B) 50 m, West



(C) 10 m, East



(D) 10 m, West



(E) None of these



Ans: (B)



I. Directions (Question 26 to 30): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given it.



There are six persons A B C D E and F in a school. Each of the teachers teaches two subjects, one compulsory subject and the other optional subject. D's optional subject was History while there others have it as compulsory subject. E and F have Physics as one of their subjects. F's compulsory subject is Mathematics which is an optional subject of both C and E. History and English are A's subjects but in terms of compulsory and optional subjects, they are just reverse of those of D's. Chemistry is an optional subject of only one of them. The only female teacher in the school has English as her compulsory subject.



26. What is C's compulsory subject?



A) History B) Physics C) Chemistry D) English E) Mathematics



Ans: A



27. Who is a female member in the group?



A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E



Ans: D



28. Which of the following has some compulsory and optional subjects as those of F's ?



A) D B) B C) A D) C E) None of these



Ans: E



29. Disregarding which is the compulsory and which is the optional subject, who has the same two subject combination as F?



A) A B) B C) E D) D E) None of these



Ans: C



30. Which of the following groups has History as the compulsory subject?



A) A,C,D B) B,C,D C) C,D D) A,B,C E) A,D



Ans: D



Verbal Ability Test (40 Questions in 35 minutes)



Directions for Questions 1-5: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis of the information provided in the passage.



It all started at the beginning of fifth grade. At first, Carmen wasn’t really sure what was happening. In class, she had to squint to see the blackboard clearly. She had to do the same thing when she read street signs, or when she watched a movie. As the fuzziness got worse, she became more and more worried. It was important for her to see the notes and homework assignments the teacher put on the board.



It wasn’t long before Carmen found herself squinting all the time, but she didn’t want anyone to know that she was having a problem seeing. In class, she asked for a desk that was closer to the blackboard. One day, her teacher said, "Carmen, are you all right? I’ve noticed you squinting a lot. Are you having trouble seeing the board?"



Carmen shook her head. "I’m fine, Mrs. Cruz," she said, but she knew she couldn’t pretend much longer.



At home, she had to sit closer and closer to the television in order to see the picture. Her mother noticed her squinting as she watched her favorite shows, and she began to get suspicious.



"Tomorrow I’m calling the eye doctor to set up an appointment for you," she said firmly. Carmen protested, but her mother’s mind was made up.



Three days later, Carmen had new glasses and instructions from her doctor to wear them all the time. Carmen frowned in the car the whole way home. "All of the kids at school will think I’m a nerd," she said. Her mother smiled and shook her head. "You look just as beautiful with those glasses on as you do without them," she said. But Carmen didn’t believe her. The next day, Carmen kept the glasses in her pocket as she walked into the schoolyard. She avoided her friends and stood alone, feeling miserable. Suddenly, she heard her friend Theresa shout. Carmen ran over to the other girls. "What’s wrong?" she asked. "My silver ring is gone!" Theresa cried. "My sister sent it to me from California. It’s very special and I can’t lose it!"

Carmen could tell that Theresa was very upset. They all looked for the ring in the grassy area of the playground.



Carmen realized that she could search better if she could see better. She took the glasses out of her pocket and put them on. The objects and people around her came into sharp focus. She caught her breath. Everything looked so different! So clear! She looked down at the ground and a glimmer of silver caught her eye. It was the ring. "Here it is," she shouted. "I’ve found it!" She handed it to Theresa, and Theresa slipped the ring back on her finger.



"Thanks Carmen," she said. "I never thought we'd find it." She paused. "Hey, I didn’t know you wore glasses. They look great!" Carmen had forgotten that she was wearing the new glasses. "Thanks," she replied shyly. As they walked back toward the school building, two more girls from her class complimented her glasses. Carmen smiled. "Maybe wearing glasses won’t be so bad after all," she thought.



1. BEFORE Carmen got glasses she

A. Thought having glasses wouldn’t be so bad.

B. Wasn’t able to see the blackboard clearly.

C. Found Theresa’s missing ring.

D. sat far away from the television

Ans: B



2. Based on the end of the story, what do you think Carmen will do next?

A. She won’t tell her friends that she needs to wear glasses.

B. She will keep her glasses in her pocket where no one can see them.

C. She will wear her glasses all the time.

D. She will wear her glasses only when she is with her family.

Ans: C



3. Read this sentence from the story 'Her mother noticed her squinting as she watched her favorite shows, and she began to get suspicious'.



What is an antonym for the word suspicious?

A. doubtful

B. guilty

C. innocent

D. trusting

Ans: D



4. Which statement BEST describes Carmen?



A. She is willing to overcome her fears in order to help her friends.

B. She doesn’t care how well she does in school.

C. She cares more about herself than her friends.

D. She doesn’t worry about what other people think of her.

Ans: A



5. Read this sentence from the story. 'In class, she had to squint to see the blackboard clearly'.



What does squint mean?



A. to look with eyes partly closed

B. to move closer

C. to try hard

D. to concentrate

Ans: D



Directions for Questions 6-10: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis of the information provided in the passage.



Primitive man was probably more concerned with fire as a source of warmth and as a means of cooking food than as a source of light. Before he discovered less laborious ways of making fire, he had to preserve it, and whenever he went on a journey he carried a firebrand with him. His discovery that the firebrand, from which the torch may very well have developed, could be used for illumination was probably incidental to the primary purpose of preserving a flame.



Lamps, too, probably developed by accident. Early man may have had his first conception of a lamp while watching a twig or fibre burning in the molten fat dropped from a roasting carcass. All he had to do was to fashion a vessel to contain fat and float a lighted reed in it. Such lamps, which are made of hollowed stones or sea shells, have persisted in identical from up to quite recent times.



6. Primitive man's most important use for five was



A) To provide warmth B) to cook food C) to provide light D) Both A and B.



Ans: A



7. The firebrand was used to



A) Prevent accidents B) provide light C) scare animals D) save labour



Ans: B



8. By 'primary' the author means



A) Primitive B) fundamental C) elemental D) essential



Ans: D



9. Lamps probably developed through mere



A) Hazard B) fate C) chance D) planning



Ans: C



10. Early lamps were made by



A) Using a reed as a wick in the fat B) letting a reed soak the fat



C) putting the fat in a shell and lighting it D) floating a reed in the sea-shell



Ans: A



Directions11-18: Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.



11. These essays are intellectually ............... and represent various levels of complexity



A) Revealing B) Modern C) persistent D) demanding E) persistent



Ans: C



12. It was almost impossible for him to put out of his mind the ............... words which he heard from his clever father-in-law



A) Inspiring B) witty C) sarcastic D) soothing E) exhortative



Ans: B



13Integrity of character, honesty, dependability and discipline............... with a genuine interest in your work will go a long way in the achievement of success in your professional life.



A) Coupled B) adjoined C) fixed D) attached E) joined



Ans: A



14. The soldiers were instructed to.........................restraint and handle the situation peacefully.



A) Exercise B) control C) prevent D) enforce E) remain



Ans: A



15. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar was one of the chief............... of women's rights



A) Promoters B) facilitators C) instigators D) organizers E) protagonists



Ans; E



16. Her parents will never give their .........to such an unsuitable match.



A. willingness B. agreement C. consent d. acquiescence



Ans: C



17. He is ......... dancer



A. a skilled B. an adept C. an adapt d. an adopt



Ans: A



18. The degrees were awarded in the annual.........................



A. conference B. convention C. Convolution D. convocation



Ans: D



Direction Questions 19-26 in each question below is given a passage followed by several inferences. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity.



Mark your answer as:



A. if the inference is ' definitely true' i.e., it directly follows from the facts given in the passage



B. if the inference is ' probably true' though not definitely true in the light of the facts given



C. if you think the data are in adequate i.e., from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false



D. if you think the inference is ' probably false' though not definitely false in the light of the facts given; and



E. if you think inference is ' definitely false' i.e, it contradicts the given facts.



Passage I



A recent survey shows that India has the lowest death rate for blood cancer. China, Thailand and Myanmar (countries that have taste for spices) also have low rates. Higher rates are found in .S.A where spices are not used. The typical American food remains chicken rolls, butter and beef.



19. Americans are unorthodox in their food habits.



Ans: D



20. Americans dislike spices



Ans: C



21. Spices prevent blood cancer



Ans: A



22. Spices promote forms of cancer other than blood cancer



Ans: C



23. Chicken rolls, butter and beef promote cancer.



Ans: A



Passage II



The water resources of our country are very much underutilized . The main reason of this underutilization is the lack of capital and technology. A large portion of our water resources is wasted due to floods and unwise use of water for irrigation as well as domestic purposes. we can make full use of our water resources by building dams on rivers and by adopting policy of awareness among people not to waste water.



24. Occurrence of floods adds to the water resources.



Ans: E



25. Some people do not use water resources in a judicious way.



Ans: A



26. The country does not have enough funds to develop water resources



Ans: A



Direction 27-32: In each of the following questions, find out which part of the sentence has an error. If there is no mistake the answer is 'no error'



27. My father is / in bad mood / today. / No error



A B C D



Ans: B



34. Both the civilians/ and armymen / joined the First World War / today. / No error



A B C D



Ans: B



28. The school is / with in hundred yards / from my house / no error



A B C D



Ans: B



29. As soon as the teacher entered / everyone fell /in a silence / no error



A B C



Ans: C



30. He took to / reading Times / for better knowledge / of the facts./ no error



A B C D E



Ans: B



31. I will put on / a note in this regard / for your consideration / and necessary decision./ no error



A B C D E



Ans: A



32. He has been working on /the problem from a long time /but is still not / able to solve it./ no error



A B C D E



Ans: E



Directions 33-40: In each question, a part of sentence is printed in italics. Below each sentence, some phrases are given which can substitute the italicized part of the sentence. If the sentence is correct as it is, the answer is 'No correction required'



33. He did many mischiefs



A. made many a mischiefs B. made much mischief



C. Committed many mischiefs D. No Correction required



Ans: C



34. Rohit is as fast as or perhaps faster than Manish.



A. Equally fast B. almost as fast C. as fast D. No Correction required



Ans: C



35. All his family members are in Kanpur.



A. All of his family members



B. All the family members if his



C. All the members of his family



D. No Correction required



Ans: C



36. I often see him dancing the top



A. rotating



B. encircling



C. dodging



D. No Correction required



Ans: D



37. What is the time in your watch?



A. on B. by C. from D. No Correction required



Ans: C



38. Columbus invented America



A. searched B. traced C. discovered D. No Correction required



Ans: C



39. Wise men catch time by the forelock.



A. Hold B. seize C. take D. No Correction required



Ans: B



40. A bird in hand is worth two in bush



A. two in the bush b. two at a bush c. two on bush D. No Correction required



Ans: A




1) APTITUDE TEST:

Questions = 70; time limit = 75 minutes. Sectional cut-off in each section its around 60% in Logical Reasoning part and 50% in Verbal Ability. No negative marking Offline (paper & pen) test.

Analytical & Logical reasoning 30 questions: 40 minutes)

English section: (40 questions : 35 minutes)



Analytical reasoning



1. A family I know has several children. Each boy in this family has as many sisters as brothers but each girl has twice as many brothers as sisters. How many brothers and sisters are there?

Ans: 4 boys and 3 girls.



2. In a soap company a soap is manufactured with 11 parts. For making one soap you will get 1 part as scrap. At the end of the day u have 251 such scraps. From that how many soaps can be manufactured?



Ans: 25.



3. There is a 5digit no. 3 pairs of sum is eleven each. Last digit is 3 times the first one. 3 rd digit is 3 less than the second.4 th digit is 4 more than the second one. Find the digit.

Ans: 25296.



4. Every day a cyclist meets a train at a particular crossing. The road is straight before the crossing and both are traveling in the same direction. The cyclist travels with a speed of 10 Kmph. One day the cyclist comes late by 25 min. and meets the train 5km before the crossing. What is the speed of the train?

Ans: 60 kmph





5. Two twins have certain peculiar characteristics. One of them always lies on Monday, Wednesday, and Friday. The other always lies on Tuesdays, Thursdays and Saturdays. On the other days they tell the truth. You are given a conversation.



Person A-- today is Sunday my name is Anil

Person B -- today is Tuesday, my name is Bill

what day is today?



Ans: Today is Tuesday



Directions 6:10 in each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?







Answers 6-10



6) E 7) C 8) B 9) E 10) D



Directions 11-15: Each problem consists of a problem followed by two statements. Decide whether the data in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Select your answer according to whether:



(A) Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient to answer the question



(B) Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient to answer the question



(C) Both statements taken together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient



(D) Each statement alone is sufficient



(E) Statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient, and additional data is needed to answer the question



11. If x and y are both positive integers, how much greater is x than y?



x + y = 20

x = y²

A.

B.

C.

D.

E.

Ans: C



12. Fifty percent of the articles in a certain magazine are written by staff members. Sixty percent of the articles are on current affairs. If 75 percent of the articles on current affairs are written by staff members with more than 5 years experience of journalism, how many of the articles on current affairs are written by journalists with more than 5 years experience?



20 articles are written by staff members.

Of the articles on topics other than current affairs, 50 percent are by staff members with less than 5 years experience.

A.

B.

C.

D.

E.

Ans: A



13. Is xy > 0?



x/y < 0

x + y < 0

A.

B.

C.

D.

E.

Ans: A



14 One number, n, is selected at random from a set of 10 integers. What is the probability that ½ n + 13 = 0?



The largest integer in the set is 13.

The arithmetic mean of the set is zero.

A.

B.

C.

D.

E.

Ans: E



15. Is w a whole number?



3w is an odd number.

2w is an even number.

A.

B.

C.

D.

E.

Ans: B



Directions (Question 16 to 19): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it.



IV. i) There are six friends A, B, C, D, E and F



ii) Each one is proficient in one of the games, namely Badminton, Vollyball, Cricket, Hockey, Tennis and Polo



iii) Each owns a different colored car, namely yellow, green, black, white, blue and red.



iv) D plays Polo and owns a yellow colored car



v) C does not play either Tennis or Hockey and owns neither blue nor yellow colored car



vi) E owns a white car and plays Badminton



vii) B does not play Tennis; he owns a red coloured car.



viii) A plays Cricket and owns a black car



16. Who plays Volleyball?



A) B B) C C) F D) Data inadequate E) None of these



Ans: B



17. Which coloured car F owns?



A) Green B) Blue C) Either Green or Blue D) Data inadequate E) None of these



Ans: B



18. Which of the following combinations of colour of car and game played is not correct?



A) Yellow - Polo B) Green - Tennis C) Black - Cricket D) Red- Hockey E) None of these



Ans: B



19. In a group of six women, there are four dancers, four vocal musicians, one actress and three violinists. Girija and Vanaja are among the violinists while Jalaja and Shailaja do not know how to play on the violin. Shailaja and Tanuja are among the dancers. Jalaja, Vanaja, Shailaja and Tanuja are all vocal musicians and two of them are also violinists. If Pooja is an actress, who among the following is both a dancer and violinist?



A) Jalaja B) Shailaja C) Tanuja D) Pooja



Ans: C



20. Salay walked 10 m towards West from his house. Then he walked 5 m turning to his left. After this he walked 10 m turning to his left and in the end he walked 10 m turning to his left. In what direction is he now from his starting point?



(A) South (B) North (C) East (D) West (E) None of these

Ans: (B)



21. Manish goes 7 km towards South-East from his house, then he goes 14 km turning to West. After this he goes 7 km towards North West and in the end he goes 9 km towards East. How far is he from his house?



(A) 5 km (B) 7 km (C) 2 km (D) 14 km (E) None of these

Ans: (A)



22. Laxman went 15 kms from my house, then turned left and walked 20 kms. He then turned east and walked 25 kms and finally turning left covered 20kms. How far was he from his house?



(A) 5 kms (B) 10 kms (C) 40 kms (D) 80 kms (E) None of these

Ans: (D)



23. The door of Aditya's house faces the east. From the back side of his house, he walks straight 50 metres, then turns to the right and walks 50 metres, then turns towards left and stops after walking 25 metres. Now Aditya is in which direction from the starting point?



(A) South-East (B) North-East (C) South- West (D) North-West (E) None of these

Ans: (D)



24. P, Q, R and S are playing a game of carrom. P, R, and S, Q are partners. S is to the right of R who is facing west. Then Q is facing?



(A) North (B) South (C) East (D) West (E) None of these

Ans: (A)



25. A clock is so placed that at 12 noon its minute hand points towards north-east. In which direction does its hour hand point at 1.30 p.m?



(A) North (B) South (C) East (D) West (E) None of these



Ans: C



26. A man walks 30 metres towards South. Then, turning to his right, he walks 30 metres. Then turning to his left, he walks 20 metres. Again he turns to his left and walks 30 metres. How far is he from his initial position?



A. 20 metres B. 30 metres C.60 metres D. 80 metres E None of these



Ans: E



Directions 27-30: The table below shows the number of people who responded to a survey about their favorite style of music. Use this information to answer the following questions to the nearest whole percentage.



27. What percentage of respondents under 31, indicated that blues in their favorite style?



A. 7.1 B. 7.6 C. 8.3 D. 14.1 E. 7.2



Ans: B



28. What percentage of respondents aged 21-30 indicated that jazz is their favorite style?



A. 64 % B. 60% C. 75% D. 36% E. 46%



Ans: A



29. What percentage of the total sample indicated that Jazz is heir favorite style of music?



A. 6 % B. 8% C. 22% D. 4% E. 11%



Ans: E



30. What percentage of the total sample were aged 21-30?



A. 31 % B. 23% C. 25% D. 14% E. 30%



Ans: C



Verbal Ability Test (40 Questions in 35 minutes)



Directions for Questions 1-5: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis of the information provided in the passage.



Much of the information we have today about chimpanzees comes from the groundbreaking, long-term research of the great conservationist, Jane Goodall.



Jane Goodall was born in London, England, on April 3, 1934. On her second birthday , her father gave her a toy chimpanzee named Jubilee. Jubilee was named after a baby chimp in the London Zoo, and seemed to foretell the course Jane’s life would take. To this day, Jubilee sits in a chair in Jane’s London home. From an early age, Jane was fascinated by animals and animal stories. By the age of 10, she was talking about going to Africa to live among the animals there. At the time, in the early 1940s, this was a radical idea because women did not go to Africa by themselves.



As a young woman, Jane finished school in London, attended secretarial school, and then worked for a documentary filmmaker for a while. When a school friend invited her to visit Kenya, she worked as a waitress until she had earned the fare to travel there by boat. She was 23 years old.



Once in Kenya, she met Dr. Louis Leakey, a famous paleontologist and anthropologist. He was impressed with her thorough knowledge of Africa and its wildlife, and hired her to assist him and his wife on a fossil-hunting expedition to Olduvai Gorge. Dr. Leakey soon realized that Jane was the perfect person to complete a study he had been planning for some time. She expressed her interest in the idea of studying animals by living in the wild with them, rather than studying dead animals through paleontology.



Dr. Leakey and Jane began planning a study of a group of chimpanzees who were living on the shores of Lake Tanganyika in Kenya. At first, the British authorities would not approve their plan. At the time, they thought it was too dangerous for a woman to live in the wilds of Africa alone. But Jane’s mother, Vanne, agreed to join her so that she would not be alone. Finally, the authorities gave Jane the clearance she needed in order to go to Africa and begin her study



In July of 1960, Jane and her mother arrived at Gombe National Park in what was then called Tanganyika and is now called Tanzania. Jane faced many challenges as she began her work. The chimpanzees did not accept her right away, and it took months for them to get used to her presence in their territory. But she was very patient and remained focused on her goal. Little by little, she was able to enter their world.



At first, she was able to watch the chimpanzees only from a great distance, using binoculars. As time passed, she was able to move her observation point closer to them while still using camouflage. Eventually, she was able to sit among them, touching, patting, and even feeding them. It was an amazing accomplishment for Jane, and a breakthrough in the study of animals in the wild. Jane named all of the chimpanzees that she studied; stating in her journals that she felt they each had a unique personality.



One of the first significant observations that Jane made during the study was that chimpanzees make and use tools, much like humans do, to help them get food. It was previously thought that humans alone used tools. Also thanks to Jane’s research, we now know that chimps eat meat as well as plants and fruits. In many ways, she has helped us to see how chimpanzees and humans are similar. In doing so, she has made us more sympathetic toward these creatures, while helping us to better understand ourselves.



The study started by Jane Goodall in 1960 is now the longest field study of any animal species in their natural habitat. Research continues to this day in Gombe and is conducted by a team of trained Tanzanians.



Jane’s life has included much more than just her study of the chimps in Tanzania. She pursued a graduate degree while still conducting her study, receiving her Ph.D. from Cambridge University in 1965. In 1984, she received the J. Paul Getty Wildlife Conservation Prize for "helping millions of people understand the importance of wildlife conservation to life on this planet." She has been married twice: first to a photographer and then to the director of National Parks. She has one son.



Dr. Jane Goodall is now the world’s most renowned authority on chimpanzees, having studied their behavior for nearly 40 years. She has published many scientific articles, has written two books, and has won numerous awards for her groundbreaking work. The Jane Goodall Institute for Wildlife Research, Education , and Conservation was founded in 1977 in California but moved to the Washington, D.C., area in 1998. Its goal is to take the actions necessary to improve the environment for all living things.



Dr. Goodall now travels extensively, giving lectures, visiting zoos and chimp sanctuaries, and talking to young people involved in environmental education. She is truly a great conservationist and an amazing human being.



Read this sentence from the article.



1. 'But she was very patient and remained focused on her goal'. What is an antonym for the word focused?



bothered

tired

disinterested

concerned

Ans: C



2. What is the author’s purpose in writing this article?



to entertain the reader with stories about chimpanzees

to inform the reader of the importance of wildlife conservation

to warn the reader about the challenges of working in Africa

To describe the work and life of Jane Goodall.

Ans: D

3. Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons Dr. Leakey chose Jane to work with him?



She knew a lot about Africa.

She knew a lot about African wildlife.

She earned the money to travel to Africa on her own.

She was interested in studying animals in the wild.

Ans: C

4. Which of the following is NOT true of chimpanzees?



Chimpanzees are often comfortable with strangers right away.

Chimpanzees eat meat as well as plants and fruit.

Chimpanzees use tools to help them get food.

Different chimpanzees have different personalities.

Ans: A



5. Jane Goodall is now the world’s most renowned authority on chimpanzees, having studied their behavior for nearly forty years. What does authority mean?



an intelligent person

one who studies animals

a scientist

an expert

Ans: B



Read this sentence from the article.



Directions for Questions 6-10: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis of the information provided in the passage.



There are some men who seem to be always on the lookout for trouble and, to tell the truth, they are seldom disappointed. Listening to such men one would think that this world is one of the stormiest and most disagreeable places. Yet, after all it is not such a bad place and the difficulty is often in the man who is too thin- skinned. On the other hand, the man who goes out expecting people to be like himself, kind and brotherly, will be surprised at the kindness he meets even in the most unlike quarters. A smile is apt to be met met with a respective smile while the sneer is just as apt to provoke a snarl. Men living in the same neighborhood may live vastly different lives. But it is not the neighborhood which is quarrelsome, but the man within us. And we have it in out power to change our neighborhood into a pleasant one by simply changing our own ways.



6. The passage is about



A) Our disagreeable and hostile world



B) A kindly and pleasant world



C) Our different and unresponsive world



D) The world and what one makes of it.



Ans: D



7. "..............they are seldom disappointed". The statement denotes that such men



A) Welcome difficulties as a morale booster



B) Do not have face any trouble



C) Manage to keep unruffled in the face of discomforts



D) Generally do not fail to come across troubles



Ans: D



8. The author's own view of the world is that it is



A) One of the loveliest and quietest places



B) An unpleasant and turbulent place



C) one's own excessive sensitivity that makes it a bad place



D) A sordid place for those who suffer in life



Ans: C



9. Which of the following is opposite in meaning to the expression 'thin-skinned' as sed in the passage?



A) Insensitive



B) Intelligent



C) Awkward



D) Obstinate



Ans: A



10. "On the other hand............. unlikely quarter" The statement shows that people's reaction to our attitude is



A) Generally indifferent



B) Surprisingly responsive



C) Often adverse



D) Mainly favorable



Ans: B



Directions 11-18: Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.



11. For a few seconds, Madan was.............blinded by the powerful lights of the oncoming car



A) Heavily B) largely C) greatly D) powerfully E) totally



Ans: E



12. His interest in the study of human behavior is indeed very..............



A) Strong B) large C) broad D) vast E) deep



Ans: E



13. The police have................a complaint against four persons



A) Entered B) lodged C) registered D) noted E) received



Ans: C



14. The improvement made by changes in the system was ....................and did not warrant the large expenses.



A) Large B) small C) minute D) marginal E) uncertain



Ans: D



15. The man who is..........................hesitating which of the two things he will do first, will do neither.



A) Persistently B) constantly C) insistently D) consistently E) perpetually



Ans: A



16. He is too...................to be deceived easily



A) strong B) modern C) kind D) honest E) intelligent



Ans: E



17. The Manager gave her his ..... that the complaint would be investigated



A. assurance B. suggestion C. avowal D. support



Ans: A



18. I am feeling ...... better today.



A. rather B. too C. fairly D. very



Ans: C



Direction Questions19-26: In each question below is given a passage followed by several inference. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity.



mark your answer as :



A. if the inference is ' definitely true' i.e. , it directly follows from the facts given in the passage



B. if the inference is ' probably true' though not definitely true in the light of the facts given



C. if you think the data are in adequate i.e., from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false



D. if you think the inference is ' probably false' though not definitely false in the light of the facts given; and



E. if you think inference is ' definitely false' i.e. , it contradicts the given facts.



Passage I



Urban services have not expanded fast enough to cope with urban expansion. Low investment allocation have tended top be under spent. Both public( e. g. water and sewage) and private (e.g. low-income area housing) infrastructure quality has declined. this impact of the environment in which children live and the supporting services available to them when they fall ill, seems clear. The decline in average food availability and the rise in absolute poverty point in the same satisfactory direction



19. There is nothing to boast about urban services



Ans: A



20. The public transport system is in the hands of private sector.



Ans: C



21. Birth rate is higher in Urban areas compared to rural areas.



Ans: C



22. Low-cost urban housing is one of the priorities



Ans: B



23 The environment around plays an important role on the health status.



Ans: A



Passage II



Though the states cultivate only 3.2 lakh tones of mangoes, they are of premium quality and with mangoes becoming second most consumed fruit in the world after grapes. The government has been trying exporting it through sea route which is cheaper. An experiment which was done in this regard last year has proved successful.



24. Quality of mangoes is an important factor in exports.



Ans: A



25. The state also exports good quality grapes



Ans: C



26. The state also cultivates a large number of medium quality mangoes.



Ans: E



Direction27-32: In each of the following questions, find out which part of the sentence has an error. If there is no mistake the answer is 'no error'



27. I going there / will not solve / this complicated problem / No error



A B C D



Ans: A



28. You can get /all the information you want / in this book / No error



A B C D



Ans: A



29. The bus could not / ascend the steep hill / because it was in the wrong gears / No error

A B C D



Ans: C



30. No stronger / a figure than his / is prescribed in the history / No error



A B C D



Ans: C



31. Most people would have /attended the union meeting / if they had / longer notice of it / No error



A B C D E



Ans: D



32. And though one did not / quite believe his claim / one saw no harm / in granting him permission / No error



A B C D E



Ans: E



Directions 33: In each question, a part of sentence is printed in italics. Below each sentence, some phrases are given which can substitute the italicized part of the sentence. If the sentence is correct as it is, the answer is 'No correction required'



33. The problems of translation are still remain.



A. are remain. B. wills remain C. will still remain. D. No Correction required



Ans: C



34. It is ten years since I have begun living here



A. begun B. had begun C. began D. No Correction required



Ans: C



35. Education is a strong instruments for moldings the character of the young.



A. striking B. powerful C. potent D. No Correction required



Ans: B



36. He gave the I.A.S. examination in all seriousness.



A. appeared B. took C. undertook D. No Correction required



Ans: B



37. He has cooked that meal so often he can do it with his eyes closed.



A. mind blank B. eyes covered C. hands full D. No Correction required



Ans: D



38. The young hikers went as far as they finally got lost in the valley.



A. so far that B. too far that C. so far as that D. No Correction required



Ans: A



39. He stopped to work an hour ago



A. to working B. to have worked C. working D. No Correction required



Ans: C



40. The fact finding committee has so far not made any advancement.



A. progress B. improvement C. stride D. No Correction required



Ans: A
  #5  
6th December 2014, 09:11 AM
Unregistered
Guest
 
Infosys Placement Paper

Will you provide me the sample paper of the Infosys Placement?
  #6  
6th December 2014, 10:51 AM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Apr 2013
Re: Infosys Placement Paper

As you want I am here providing you the sample paper of the Infosys Placement.
Aptitude Questions With Answers for Time & Distance Problems
1)A train covers a distance in 50 min ,if it runs at a speed
of 48kmph on an average.The speed at which the train must run
to reduce the time of journey to 40min will be.
1. Solution::
Time=50/60 hr=5/6hr
Speed=48mph
distance=S*T=48*5/6=40km
time=40/60hr=2/3hr
New speed = 40* 3/2 kmph= 60kmph
2)Vikas can cover a distance in 1hr 24min by covering 2/3 of
the distance at 4 kmph and the rest at 5kmph.the total
distance is?
2. Solution::
Let total distance be S
total time=1hr24min
A to T :: speed=4kmph
diistance=2/3S
T to S :: speed=5km
distance=1-2/3S=1/3S
21/15 hr=2/3 S/4 + 1/3s /5
84=14/3S*3
S=84*3/14*3
= 6km
3)walking at ¾ of his usual speed ,a man is late by 2 ½ hr.
the usual time is.
3. Solution::
Usual speed = S
Usual time = T
Distance = D
New Speed is ¾ S
New time is 4/3 T
4/3 T – T = 5/2
T=15/2 = 7 ½
4)A man covers a distance on scooter .had he moved 3kmph
faster he would have taken 40 min less. If he had moved
2kmph slower he would have taken 40min more.the distance is.
4.Solution::
Let distance = x m
Usual rate = y kmph
x/y – x/y+3 = 40/60 hr
2y(y+3) = 9x ————–1
x/y-2 – x/y = 40/60 hr y(y-2) = 3x —————–2
divide 1 & 2 equations
by solving we get x = 40
5)Excluding stoppages,the speed of the bus is 54kmph and
including stoppages,it is 45kmph.for how many min does the bus
stop per hr.
5.Solution::
Due to stoppages,it covers 9km less.
time taken to cover 9 km is [9/54 *60] min = 10min
6)Two boys starting from the same place walk at a rate of
5kmph and 5.5kmph respectively.wht time will they take to be
8.5km apart, if they walk in the same direction
6.Solution::
The relative speed of the boys = 5.5kmph – 5kmph = 0.5 kmph
Distance between them is 8.5 km
Time= 8.5km / 0.5 kmph = 17 hrs
7)2 trains starting at the same time from 2 stations 200km
apart and going in opposite direction cross each other ata
distance of 110km from one of the stations.what is the ratio of
their speeds.
7. Solution::
In same time ,they cover 110km & 90 km respectively
so ratio of their speed =110:90 = 11:9
8)Two trains start from A & B and travel towards each other at
speed of 50kmph and 60kmph resp. At the time of the meeting the
second train has traveled 120km more than the first.the distance
between them.8. Solution::
Let the distance traveled by the first train be x km
then distance covered by the second train is x + 120km
x/50 = x+120 / 60
x= 600
so the distance between A & B is x + x + 120 = 1320 km
9)A thief steals a ca r at 2.30pm and drives it at 60kmph.the
theft is discovered at 3pm and the owner sets off in another car
at 75kmph when will he overtake the thief
9. Solution::
Let the thief is overtaken x hrs after 2.30pm
distance covered by the thief in x hrs = distance covered by
the owner in x-1/2 hr
60x = 75 ( x- ½)
x= 5/2 hr
thief is overtaken at 2.30 pm + 2 ½ hr = 5 pm
10)In covering distance,the speed of A & B are in the ratio
of 3:4.A takes 30min more than B to reach the destion.The time
taken by A to reach the destinstion is.
10. Solution::
Ratio of speed = 3:4
Ratio of time = 4:3
let A takes 4x hrs,B takes 3x hrs
then 4x-3x = 30/60 hr
x = ½ hr
Time taken by A to reach the destination is 4x = 4 * ½ = 2 hr
Modal Paper For Aptitude
1) The average ages of three persons is 27 years. Their ages are in the proportion of 1:3:5.What is the
age in years of the youngest one among them.
Sol: Let the age of three persons be x, 3x and 5x
-- > 9x/3 = 27 -- > x = 9
2) The average of 11 numbers is 50. If the average of first 6 numbers is 49 and that of last 6 is 52.Find
the 6th number.
Sol: The total sum of 11 results = 11 * 50 = 550
The total sum of first 6 results = 6 * 49 = 294
The total sum of last 6 results = 6 * 52 = 312
Sixth result = 294 + 312 – 550 = 56
3) Find L.C.M of 852 and 1491.
852) 1491 (1
852
639) 852 (1
639
213) 639 (3
639
0
H.C.F of 852 and 1491 is 213
: . L.C.M = 852*1491/213 = 5964
4) The smallest number which when divided by 20, 25, 35, 40 leaves the remainder 6 When divided by
14, 19, 23 and 34 respectively is the difference between divisor and The corresponding remainder is 6.
: . Required number = (L.C.M of 20, 25, 35, 40) – 6
= 1400-6 = 1394
5) The least multiple of 7 which leaves a remainder 4 when divided by 6,9,15 and 18 is
L.C.M of 6,9,15 and 18 is 90.
Let x be the least multiple of 7, which when divided by 90 leaves the remainder 4.
Then x is of the form 90k + 4.
Now, minimum value of k for which 90k + 4 is divisible by 4.
: . x = 4 * 90 + 4 = 364
6) Sum of three even consecutive numbers is 48, and then least number is
1) 16
2) 18
3) 20
4) 14
Sol: 4) Let the numbers be 2n, 2n+2 and 2n+4
2n + (2n+2) + (2n+4) = 48
6n = 48-6 = 42, n = 7
Hence the numbers are -- > 14, 16 and 18
The least number is 14.
7) It being given that √ 15 = 3.88, the best approximation to √5/3 is
1) 0.43
2) 1.89
3) 1.29
4) 1.63
__ ___ __ __ __
Sol: 3) x = √5/3 = √5*3/3*3 = √15 /√ 9 = √15/3 = 3.88/3 = 1.29
8) Of the two-digit numbers (those from 11 to 95, both inclusive) how many have a Second digit
greater than the first digit?
1) 37
2) 38
3) 36
4) 35
Sol: 3) 12 to 19 -- > 8
23 to 29 -- > 7
34 to 39 -- > 6
45 to 49 -- > 5
56 to 59 -- > 4
67 to 69 -- > 3
78 to 79 -- > 2
89 -- > 1
9) The Value of √24 + 3√64 + 4√28 is
Sol: 24*1/2 + 43*1/3 + 28*1/4
-- > 4 + 4 + 4 -- > 12
10) 3 ¼ - 4/5 of 5/6 / 4 1/3 / 1/5 – ( 3/10 + 21 1/5 ) is equal to
Sol: 13/4 – 4/5 * 5/6 / 13/3 / 1/5 – ( 3/10 + 106/5 ) (use BODMASRULE)
-- > 13/4 – 4/6 / 13/3 / 1/5 – 215/10 -- > 31/12 / 13/3 * 5 – 215/10
-- > 31/12 / 65/3 – 43/2 -- > 31/12 / 130 – 129/6 -- > 31/12/1/6 = 31/12 * 6/1
-- > 31/2 = 15 1/2
1) 13 sheeps and 9 pigs were bought for Rs. 1291.85.If the average price of a sheep be Rs. 74. What
is the average price of a pig.
Sol: Average price of a sheep = Rs. 74
: . Total price of 13 sheeps
= (74*13) = Rs. 962
But, total price of 13 sheeps and 9 pigs
= Rs. 1291.85
Total price of 9 pigs
= Rs. (1291.85-962) = Rs. 329.85
Hence, average price of a pig
= (329.85/9) = Rs. 36.65
12) A batsman in his 18th innings makes a score of 150 runs and there by increasing his Average by 6.
Find his average after 18th innings.
Sol: Let the average for 17 innings is x runs
Total runs in 17 innings = 17x
Total runs in 18 innings = 17x + 150
Average of 18 innings = 17x + 150/18
: . 17x + 150/18 = x + 6 -- > x = 42
Thus, average after 18 innings = 42
13) . Find the H.C.F of 777 and 1147.
777) 1147 (1
777
370) 777 (2
740
37) 370 (10
370
0
: . H.C.F of 777 and 1147 is 37.
14) The L.C.M of two numbers is 2310 and their H.C.F is 30. If one number is 210 the Other is
The other number
= L.C.M * H.C.F/given number
= 2310*30/210 = 330
15) The average of 50 numbers is 38. If two numbers namely 45 and 55 are discarded, The average of
remaining numbers is?
Total of 50 numbers = 50 * 38 = 1900
Average of 48 numbers = 1900-(45+55) / 48
= 1800 / 48 = 37.5
16) Divide 50 in two parts so that the sum of reciprocals is (1/12), the numbers are
1) 20,30
2) 24,36
3) 28,22
4) 36,14
Sol: 1) Let the numbers be x and y then
X+y = 50. ………(i)
1/x + 1/y = 12
1/x + 1/50-x = 1/12..From (i) y = 50 – x
-- > 50-x+x/x(50-x) = 1/12
-- > x2-50x+600 = 0
-- > (x-30) (x-20) = 0
&am
Aptitude Material
1) Five years ago the average age of a family of 3 members was 27 years. A child has Been born, due
to which the average age of the family is 25 years today. What is the Present age of the child?
Sol: Average age of the family of 3 members
5 years ago = 27 years
Sum of the ages of the 3 members now
= (27 + 5) * 3 = 96 years
Average age of the family of 4 members now
= 25 years
Sum of the ages of the 4 numbers now
= 25*4 = 100 years
Age of child = 100 – 96 = 4 years
2) In a class of 20 students in an examination in Mathematics 2 students scored 100 Marks each, 3 get
zero each and the average of the rest was 40. What is the average Of the whole class?
Sol: Total marks obtained by a class of 20 students
= 2 * 100 + 3 * 0 + 15 * 40
= 200 + 600 = 800
: Average marks of whole class = 800/20 = 40
3). The greatest number, which can divide 432, 534 and 398 leaving the same remainder 7 in each, is
Required number is the H.C.F of
(432-7), (534-7) and (398-7)
i.e., H.C.F. of 425, 527, 391
Required number = 17
4) The sum of two numbers is 216 and their H.C.F is 27. The numbers are
. Let the numbers be 27a and 27b
Then 27a + 27b = 216
a+b = 8
Value of co-primes a and b are (1,7) (3,5)
: . Numbers are (27*1, 27*7) = (27,189)
5) The greatest number of 4 digits which is divisible by each one of the number 12,18,21 and 28 is
Greatest number of 4 digits is 9999
L.C.M of 12, 18, 21, 28 = 252
On dividing 9999 by 252, the remainder is 171
: . Required number is (9999-171) = 9828
6) Four prime numbers are arranged in ascending order according to their magnitude.Product of first
three is 385 and the product of last three is 1001. The greatest number is.
1) 11
2) 13
3) 17
4) 19
Sol: 2) 385) 1001(2
770
231) 385(1
231 (1
154)231(1
154
77) 154(2
154
0
Hence the product of the middle terms = 77
Greatest prime number = 1001 / 77 = 13.
7) If the square root of 55625 is 75, then
____ ____ ______
√5625 + √56.25 + √0.5625 is equal to
1) 82.25
2) 83.25
3) 80.25
4) 79.25
____ _____ ______
Sol: 2) √5625 = 75; √56.25 = 7.5; √. 5625 = .75
-- > 75+7.5+0.75 = 83.25
8) Which of the following integers has most number of divisors?
1) 176
2) 182
3) 99
4) 101
Sol: 2) 176 = 2,4,8,11,16,22,44,88
182 = 2,7,13,14,26,91
99 = 3, 9, 11, 33
101= 101
9) 10) A boy was asked to find the value of 3/8 of a sum of money. Instead of multiplying The sum by
3/8 he divided it by 3/8 and then his answer exceeded by Rs. 55. Find the Correct be x.
Sol: Let amount be x
8/3* - 3/8 * = 55
-- > 64x – 9x/24 = 55 -- > 55x/24 = 55
-- > x = 24*55/55 = 24
: . 3/8 of x = 3/8 * 24 = Rs.9
10) A boy was asked to find the value of 7/12 of a sum of money. Instead of multiplying The sum by
7/12 he divided it by 7/12 and thus his answer exceeded the correct Answer By Rs.95. Find the correct
answer.
Sol: Let sum = Rs. K
: . 12/7 k – 7k/12 = 95
-- > 144k – 49k/84 = 95 -- > k = 84
:. 7/12 k -- > 7/12 * 84 = Rs. 49
11) In a boat 25 persons were sitting. Their average weight increased one kilogram when One man
goes and a new man comes in. The weight of the new man is 70kgs. Find the Weight of the man who is
going.
Sol: Weight increased per person is 1 kg.
Total increase in weight = 25 kgs
Weight of new man is 70 kgs,
(Which means his weight is 25 kgs heavier)
The weight of the old man was 70 – 25 = 45 kgs
13) What is the greatest possible length that can be used to measure exactly the following Lengths 7m,
3m 85cm, 12m 95cm?
The length to be measured is
700cm, 385cm, 1295cm.
The required length in cm is the H.C.F of 700, 385, and 1295, which is 35 cm.
14) The product of two-digit number is 2160 and their H.C.F is 12. The numbers are
Let the number are 12a and 12b
Then 12a * 12b = 2160
ab = 15
Value of co-primes a and b are (1, 15) (3,5)
: . The two digit numbers are (3*12, 5*12)
= (36, 60)
15) The least number of 6 digits which it exactly divisible by 12, 15 and 18 is
Least number of 6 digits is 100000
L.C.M of 12, 15, 18, is 180.
On dividing 100000 by 180, the remainder is 100
. Required number = 100000 + (180-100) = 100080
16) Two third of three fifth of one fourth of a number is 24. What is 40% of that number?
1) 96
2) 72
3) 120
4) 156
Sol: 1) let the number be x, then
X of 2/3 of 3/5 of ¼ = 24
X * 2/3 * 3/5 * ¼ = 24, x = 240.
Hence 40% of 240 = 40/100 * 240 = 96
17) Which of the following has the fractions in asce
Model paper 3
1.A coffee shop blends 2 kinds of coffee,putting in 2 parts of a 33p. a gm. grade to 1
part of a 24p. a gm.If the mixture is changed to 1 part of the 33p. a gm. to 2 parts of
the less expensive grade,how much will the shop save in blending 100 gms.
a) Rs.90
b) Rs.1.00
c) Rs.3.00
d) Rs.8.00
Ans.C
2.There are 200 questions on a 3 hr examination. Among these questions are 50
Mathematics problems. It is suggested that twice as much time be spent on each
maths problem as for each other question. How many minutes should be spent on
Mathematics problems
a) 36
b) 72
c) 60
d) 100
Ans.B
3.In a group of 15,7 have studied Latin, 8 have studied Greek, and 3 have not
Studied either. How many of these studied both Latin and Greek
a) 0
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Ans.B
4.If 13 = 13w/(1-w), then (2w) 2 =
a) 1/4
b) 1/2
c) 1
d) 2
Ans.C
5.If a and b are positive integers and (a-b)/3.5 = 4/7, then
a) b < a
b) b > a
c) b = a
d) b >= a
Ans. A
6.In June a baseball team that played 60 games had won 30% of its game played.
After a phenomenal winning streak this team raised its average to 50% .How many
games must the team have won in a row to attain this average?
a) 12
b) 20
c) 24
d) 30
Ans. C
7.M men agree to purchase a gift for Rs. D. If three men drop out how much more
Will each have to contribute towards the purchase of the gift
a) D/(M-3)
b) MD/3
c) M/(D-3)
d) 3D/(M2-3M)
Ans. D
8.A company contracts to paint 3 houses. Mr.Brown can paint a house in 6 days
while Mr.Black would take 8 days and Mr.Blue 12 days. After 8 days Mr.Brown
goes on vacation and Mr. Black begins to work for a period of 6 days.
How many days will it take Mr.Blue to complete the contract?
a) 7
b) 8
c) 11
d) 12
Ans.C
9. 2 hours after a freight train leaves Delhi a passenger train leaves the same station
traveling in the same direction at an average speed of 16 km/hr. After traveling 4 hrs
the passenger train overtakes the freight train. The average speed of the freight train
Was?
a) 30
b) 40
c) 58
d) 60
Ans. B
10.If 9x-3y=12 and 3x-5y=7 then 6x-2y = ?
a) -5
b) 4
c) 2
d) 8
e)
Ans. D
11.In a class composed of x girls and y boys what part of the class is composed of girls
a) y/(x + y)
b) x/xy
c) x/(x + y)
d) y/xy
Ans.C
12.What is the maximum number of half-pint bottles of cream that can be filled with a
4-gallon can of cream (2 pt.=1 qt. and 4 qt.=1 gal)
a) 16
b) 24
c) 30
d) 64
Ans. D
13.If the operation,^ is defined by the equation x ^ y = 2x + y,what is the value of a
in 2 ^ a = a ^ 3
a) 0
b) 1
c) -1
d) 4
Ans. B
14. 2 hours after a freight train leaves Delhi a passenger train leaves the same station travelling in the
same direction at an average speed of 16 km/hr. After travelling 4 hrs the passenger train overtakes the
freight train. The average speed of the freight train was?
(a). 30
(b). 40
(c). 58
(d). 60
Ans. B
15. If a boat is moving in upstream with velocity of 14 km/hr and goes downstream with a velocity of 40
km/hr, then what is the speed of the stream?
(a) 13 km/hr
(b) 26 km/hr
(c) 34 km/hr
(d) none of these
Ans. A
16. Two trains move in the same direction at 50 kmph and 32 kmph respectively. A man in the slower
train
observes the 15 seconds elapse before the faster train completely passes by him.
What is the length of faster train ?
(a) 100m
(b) 75m
(c) 120m
(d) 50m
Ans.B
17. I drove 60 km at 30 kmph and then an additional 60 km at 50 kmph. Compute my average speed
over my 120 km.
(a) 40
(b) 37 1/2
(c) 25 1/2
(d) 50
Ans.B
18. If a car starts from A towards B with some velocity due to some problem in the engine after travelling
30km.If the car goes with 4/5 th of its actuval velocity the car reaches B 45min later to the actual time. If
the car engine fails ofter travelling 45km, the car reaches the destination B 36min late to the actual time
, what is the initial velocity of car and what is the distance between A and B in km
(a) 40 & 100
(b) 10 & 150
(c) 20 & 130
(d) 50
Ans.C
19. Two trains are travelline at equilateral .Train A is travelling in the direction of earths spin.Other train
B is travelling in opposite direction of earths spin.Which trains wheels will wear first?and why?
(a) Train B
(c) none of these
(d) Train A
Ans. A
20. A person, who decided to go to weekend trip should not exceed 8 hours driving in a day. Average
speed of forward journey is 40 m/h. Due to traffic in Sundays, the return journey average speed is 30
m/h. How far he can select a picnic spot?
a) 120 miles
b) Between 120 and 140 miles
c) 160 miles
Ans. A
21. A person was fined for exceeding the speed limit by 10mph. Another person was also fined for
exceeding the same speed limit by twice the same. If the
second person was traveling at a speed of 35 mph, find the speed limit.
a) 20 mph
b) 15 mph
c) 18 mph
Ans. A
22.A bus started from bus stand at 8.00am, and after 30 minutes staying at
destination, it returned back to the bus stand. The destination is 27 miles from
the bus stand. The speed of the bus is 18mph. In return journey bus travels
with 50% fast speed. At what time it returns to the bus stand?
(a) 10:30 am
(b) 10.00 am
(c) 11.00 am
(d) 11.30 am
Ans: C
Model Paper 2
1. Divide 45 into four parts such that when 2 is added to the first part, 2 is subtracted from the second
part, 2 is multiplied by the third part and the fourth part is divided by two, all result in the same number.
(a) 8, 12, 5, 20
(b)6,10,15,11
(c)2,8,14,9
(d)none of these
Correct Answer - c
2. What is the sum of the first 25 natural odd numbers?
(a)225
(b)125
(c)525
(d)625
Correct Answer - d
3. Find the nth number in the series is 1, -3, 5, -7
(a)0
(b)(0)*(n-1)
(c)(-1)*(2n-1)
(d)infinite
Correct Answer - c
4. How many rational numbers are there between 0 & 5
(a)2
(b)1
(c)3
(d)infinite
Correct Answer - d
5. A certain number of bullets were shared by 3 people equally.Each of them fired 4 bullets and the sum
of the remaining bullets was equal to the initial share each had got.what was the initial number of
bullets?
(a)20
(b)18
(c)16
(d)14
Correct Answer - b
6. Which of the following are prime numbers
(a) 119
(b) 115
(c) 127
(d) none
Correct Answer - c
7). The sum of any seven consecutive numbers is divisible by
a) 2
b) 7
c) 3
d) 11
Correct Answer - b
8) 0 < x < 1 which is greater
(a) 1/x2
(b) 1/x
(c) x
(d) x2
Correct Answer - a
9).If 13 = 13w/(1-w) ,then (2w)2 =
(a) 1/4
(b) 1/2
(c) 1
(d) 2
Correct Answer - c
10. 50 is divided into 2 parts such that the sum of their reciprocals is 1/12. Find the 2 parts.
(a) 20,30
(b) 24,26
(c) 38,12
(d) 40,10
Correct Answer - b
11. A man goes from city A to city B situated 60 kms apart by a boat. His onward journey was with the
stream while the return journey was an upstream journey. It took him four and half hours to complete
the round trip. If the speed of the stream is 10 km/hr, how long did it take him to complete the onward
journey?
(1) 3 hours
(2) 3.5 hours
(3) 2.25 hours
(4) 1.5 hours
Correct Answer - (4)
12. An express train traveling at 72 km/hr speed crosses a goods train traveling at 45 km/hr speed in
the opposite direction in half a minute. Alternatively, if the express train were to overtake the goods
train, how long will it take to accomplish the task. Assume that the trains continue to travel at the same
respective speeds as mentioned in case 1.
(1) Cannot be determined
(2) 30 seconds
(3) 150 seconds
(4) 130 seconds
Correct Answer - (4)
13. Train A traveling at 60 km/hr leaves Mumbai for Delhi at 6 P.M. Train B traveling at 90 km/hr also
leaves Mumbai for Delhi at 9 P.M. Train C leaves Delhi for Mumbai at 9 P.M. If all three trains meet at
the same time between Mumbai and Delhi, what is the speed of Train C if the distance between Delhi
and Mumbai is 1260 kms?
(1) 60 km/hr
(2) 90 km/hr
(3) 120 km/hr
(4) 135 km/hr
Correct Answer - (3)
14. A man moves from A to B at the rate of 4 km/hr. Had he moved at the rate of 3.67 km/hr, he would
have taken 3 hours more to reach the destination. What is the distance between A and B?
(1) 33 kms
(2) 132 kms
(3) 36 kms
(4) 144 kms
Correct Answer - (2)
15. A ship develops a leak 12 km from the shore. Despite the leak, the ship is able to move towards the
shore at a speed of 8 km/hr. However, the ship can stay afloat only for 20 minutes. If a rescue vessel
were to leave from the shore towards the ship, and it takes 4 minutes to evacuate the crew and
passengers of the ship, what should be the minimum speed of the rescue vessel in order to be able to
successfully rescue the people aboard the ship?
(1) 53 km/hr
(2) 37 km/hr
(3) 28 km/hr
(4) 44 km/hr
Correct Answer - (2)
16. A man driving his bike at 24 kmph reaches his office 5 minutes late. Had he driven 25% faster on an
average he would have reached 4 minutes earlier than the scheduled time. How far is his office?
(1) 24 km
(2) 72 km
(3) 18 km
(4) Data Insufficient
Correct Answer - (3)
17. When an object is dropped, the number of feet N that it falls is given by the formula N = ½gt2 where
t is the time in seconds from the time it was dropped and g is 32.2. If it takes 5 seconds for the object to
reach the ground, how many feet does it fall during the last 2 seconds?
(1) 64.4
(2) 96.6
(3) 161.0
(4) 257.6
Correct Answer - (4)
18. If the wheel of a bicycle makes 560 revolutions in travelling 1.1 km, what is its radius?
(1) 31.25 cm
(2) 37.75 cm
(3) 35.15 cm
(4) 11.25 cm
Correct Answer - (1)
19. Rajesh traveled from city A to city B covering as much distance in the second part as he did in the
first part of this journey. His speed during the second part was twice as that of the speed during the first
part of the journey. What is his average speed of journey during the entire travel?
(1) His average speed is the harmonic mean of the individual speeds for the two parts.
(2) His average speed is the arithmetic mean of the individual speeds for the two parts.
(3) His average speed is the geometric mean of the individual speeds for the two parts.
(4) Cannot be determined.
Correct Answer - (2)
20. Two boys begin together to write out a booklet containing 535 lines. The first boy starts with the first
line, writing at the rate of 100 lines an hour; and the second starts with the last line then writes line 534
and so on, backward proceeding at the rate of 50 lines an hour. At what line will they meet?
(1) 356
(2) 277
(3) 357
(4) 267
Correct Answer - (3)
Aptitude Questions With Answers for Time & Distance Problems
1)A train covers a distance in 50 min ,if it runs at a speed
of 48kmph on an average.The speed at which the train must run
to reduce the time of journey to 40min will be.
2)Vikas can cover a distance in 1hr 24min by covering 2/3 of
the distance at 4 kmph and the rest at 5kmph.the total
distance is?
3)walking at ¾ of his usual speed ,a man is late by 2 ½ hr.
the usual time is.
4)A man covers a distance on scooter .had he moved 3kmph
faster he would have taken 40 min less. If he had moved
2kmph slower he would have taken 40min more.the distance is.
5)Excluding stoppages,the speed of the bus is 54kmph and
including stoppages,it is 45kmph.for how many min does the bus
stop per hr.
6)Two boys starting from the same place walk at a rate of
5kmph and 5.5kmph respectively.wht time will they take to be
8.5km apart, if they walk in the same direction
7)2 trains starting at the same time from 2 stations 200km
apart and going in opposite direction cross each other ata
distance of 110km from one of the stations.what is the ratio of
their speeds.
8)Two trains start from A & B and travel towards each other at
speed of 50kmph and 60kmph resp. At the time of the meeting the
second train has traveled 120km more than the first.the distance
between them.
9)A thief steals a ca r at 2.30pm and drives it at 60kmph.the
theft is discovered at 3pm and the owner sets off in another car
at 75kmph when will he overtake the thief
10)In covering distance,the speed of A & B are in the ratio
of 3:4.A takes 30min more than B to reach the destion.The time
taken by A to reach the destinstion is.
Answers :
1. Solution::
Time=50/60 hr=5/6hr
Speed=48mph
distance=S*T=48*5/6=40km
time=40/60hr=2/3hr
New speed = 40* 3/2 kmph= 60kmph
2. Solution::
Let total distance be S
total time=1hr24min
A to T :: speed=4kmph
diistance=2/3S
T to S :: speed=5km
distance=1-2/3S=1/3S
21/15 hr=2/3 S/4 + 1/3s /5
84=14/3S*3
S=84*3/14*3
= 6km
3. Solution::
Usual speed = S
Usual time = T
Distance = D
New Speed is ¾ S
New time is 4/3 T
4/3 T – T = 5/2
T=15/2 = 7 ½
4.Solution::
Let distance = x m
Usual rate = y kmph
x/y – x/y+3 = 40/60 hr
2y(y+3) = 9x ————–1
x/y-2 – x/y = 40/60 hr y(y-2) = 3x —————–2
divide 1 & 2 equations
by solving we get x = 40
5.Solution::
Due to stoppages,it covers 9km less.
time taken to cover 9 km is [9/54 *60] min = 10min
6.Solution::
The relative speed of the boys = 5.5kmph – 5kmph = 0.5 kmph
Distance between them is 8.5 km
Time= 8.5km / 0.5 kmph = 17 hrs
7. Solution::
In same time ,they cover 110km & 90 km respectively
so ratio of their speed =110:90 = 11:9
8. Solution::
Let the distance traveled by the first train be x km
then distance covered by the second train is x + 120km
x/50 = x+120 / 60
x= 600
so the distance between A & B is x + x + 120 = 1320 km
9. Solution::
Let the thief is overtaken x hrs after 2.30pm
distance covered by the thief in x hrs = distance covered by
the owner in x-1/2 hr
60x = 75 ( x- ½)
x= 5/2 hr
thief is overtaken at 2.30 pm + 2 ½ hr = 5 pm
10. Solution::
Ratio of speed = 3:4
Ratio of time = 4:3
let A takes 4x hrs,B takes 3x hrs
then 4x-3x = 30/60 hr
x = ½ hr
Time taken by A to reach the destination is 4x = 4 * ½ = 2 hr
Aptitude Question And Answer For Fresher
1) In the first Test match between India and South Africa,South Africa were bowled out for 84 runs in
their first innings which is their lowest score against India . what is their lowest ever score in a Test
match?
1) 30
2) 35
3) 43
4) 47
2) Adam Gilchrist has become the wicket keeper with most text centuries. How many centuries.
How many centuries has he scored so far?
1) 15
2) 17
3) 18
4) 20
3) Brian Lara recently joined the club of batsmen with more than 10,000 run in ODIs. How many
players are this group ?
1) 3
2) 4
3) 5
4) 6
4) Which women Indian athlete who won a silver medal at the Asian Games failed to clear a gender
test recently?
1) Santhi Soudarajan
2) Soma Biswas
3) PT Usha
4) None of these
5) Thongchai Jaidee won the Volvo masters Asia Golf tournament held in Bangkok. He is from
which country?
1) Thailand
2) Malaysia
3) North Korea
4) Japan
6) Who is the world’s youngest grandmaster?
1) Rupam Kapoor
2) Sohail Khan
3) Parimarjan Negi
4) Sontosh Sinha
7) Which of the following clubs won the club world cup Football Trophy recently?
1) Barcelona
2) International
3) A C Milan
4) Chelsea
8) India recently won a test match in south Africa which of the following facts regarding it are
correct?
a) It was India’s first victory in 10 test matches in South Africa
b) India won the match by 123 runs
c) The match was played at Johannesburg
d) S Sreesanth was declared man of the match.
1) a , b and c
2) b , c and d
3) a , b and d
4) All are correct
9) Sri Lanka recently drew a test series with which of the following teams?
1) India
2) New Zeland
3) Pakistan
4) South Africa
10) Which team was declared as the soccer team of the year 2006 by FIFA recently?
1) Brarzil
2) Italy
3) Germany
4) France
11) The German luxury car maker Audi is planning to use the facilities of which
automobiles company to assemble its luxury cars in India?
1) Skoda
2) Hyundai
3) Ford
4) Toyota
12) A new car model named Teana is going to be launched in-India by the automobile
company of which country?
5) Japan
6) China
7) Germany
8) Israel
13) Which watch manufacturing company is now going to make motor cycles?
9) HMT
10) Titan
11) Maxima
12) Ajanta
14) Which of the following has been named as the two wheeler design of the
year?
13) Honda Unicorn
14) Bajaj Caliber
15) TVS star city
16) Kinetic Blaze
15) The India scientists have teamed up with the scientists of which country to
find out the actual source of Brahmaputra and Sutlej?
17) Japan
18) Pakistan
19) China
20) Tibet
Ans:
1) 2 2) 1 3) 2 4) 3 5) 1
6) 1 7) 3 8) 2 9) 4 10) 2
11) 4 12) 1 13)1 14) 4 15) 3
Aptitude interview Questions And Answers
1) Which one of the following Indian birds is highly endangered species?
1) Golden Oriole
2) Great Indian Bustard
3) Indian Fantail Pigeon
4) Indian Sunbird
2) The headquarters of the Green peace International are located at
1) Amsterdam
2) Canberra
3) Ottawa
4) Nagasaki
3) Rourkela steel plant gets its supplies of iron ore from
1) Keonijhar
2) Mayurbhanj
3) Delli-Rajhara
4) Kamangundi
4) On which date Australian leg spinner dismissed Andrew strauss of England in the pick his 700th
test wicket?
1) December 21,2006
2) December 18 ,2006
3) December 24, 2006
4) December 26 , 2006
5) Under whose patronage was the Kandariya Mahadeo Temple at Khajuraho built?
1) Solankis
2) Rashtrakutas
3) Tomaras
4) Chandellas
6) During the period of which of the following was ‘Panchtrantra’ written?
1) Nandas
2) Mauryas
3) Guptas
4) Sungas
7) Who wrote the book called Kitabi- Nauras?
1) Amir Khusro
2) Badauni
3) Ibrahim Adil Shah II
4) Ala-ud-din Bahmani
8) Which one of the following places has a nuclear power station?
1) Koradi
2) Rawatbhata
3) Ramagundam
4) Talcher
9) Where is the ocean current called the ‘Gulf Stream’found?
1) Atlantic Ocean
2) Indian Ocean
3) North pacific Ocean
4) South pacific Ocean
10) Which one of the following countries is not a permanent member of the UN Security Council?
1) China
2) France
3) Japan
4) Russia
11) A person climbing a hill bends forward in order to
1) avoid slipping
2) increase speed
3) reduce fatigue
4) increase stability
12) The period of revolution of a geostationary satellite is
1) 24 hours
2) 30 days
3) 365 days
4) changing continuously
13) If an apple is released from an orbiting spaceship. It will
1) fall towards the earth
2) move along with the spaceship at the same speed
3) move at a higher speed
4) move at a lower speed
14) The density of sea water increases as
1) depth and salinity decrease
2) depth decrease and salinity increases
3) depth increase and salinity decreases
4) depth and salinity increase
15) When a ship enters a sea from a river
1) it rises a little
2) it sinks little
3) it remains at the same level
4) it rises or sinks depending on the material it is made of
Ans :
1) 2 2) 1 3) 3 4) 4 5) 4
6) 3 7) 3 8) 2 9) 1 10) 3
11) 4 12) 1 13) 2 14) 4 15) 1
Aptitude Question And Answer For Job Seekers
1) Where was the united Nations charter signed in 1945 at a conference?
1) Geneva
2) New York
3) San Francisco
4) Paris
2) In which one of the following countries did the Industrial Revolution take place first?
1) France
2) Russia
3) Japan
4) Great Britain
3) Which among the following is referred to as the Montagu Chelmsford Reforms?
1) Indian Council Act,1909
2) Government of India Act ,1919
3) Rowlatt Act
4) Government of India Act,1935
4) On December 21 , 2006 the Union Cabinet approved the sale of Government’s remaining stake
in Maruti Udyog Ltd at present is
1) 10.27 per cent
2) 22.27 per cent
3) 12.72 per cent
4) 14.67 per cent
5) When fine sand is carried by wind and deposited as windborne sedimentary rock, it is called
1) Loess
2) Dyke
3) Shale
4) Sill
6) From north to south, which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given hills?
1) Kaimur Hills-Mahadeo Hills – Satmala Hills
2) Mahadeo Hills-Kaimur Hills-Satmala Hills
3) Kaimur Hills –Satmala Hills-Mahadeo Hills
4) Mahadeo Hills-Satmala Hills-Kaimur Hills
7) According to Census 2001,which one of the following number of females to every 1000 males in
India?
1) 875
2) 900
3) 930
4) 960
8) Which one of the following statements is correct?
1) Gypsum is a sedimentary rock
2) Deccan traps of peninsular India are formed of granite
3) Lacoliths are the largest intrusive igneous rock bodies
4) In India, gneiss is found only in the Himalayan region
9) Who among the following Mughal rulers granted the English Company Diwani over Bengal, Bihar
and Orissa by Treaty of Aliahabad?
1) Ahmad Shah
2) Alamgir II
3) Shah Alam II
4) Akbar Shah II
10) During the Indian Freedom struggle, what accusation was made against Master Amir Chand,
Awadh Bihari,Bal Mukund and Basant Kumar Biswas?
1) Assassination of the commissioner of Poona
2) Throwing a bomb on viceroy’s procession in Delhi
3) Attempt to shoot the Governor of Punjab
4) Looting an armoury in Bengal
11) What is the subject of the 73rd Amendment Act of the Constitution of India?
1) Defection by the Members of parliament and Members of Legislative Assemblies from their
political parties
2) Free and compulsory education for the children in the age group 6-14 years
3) Strong panchayati Raj Institutions in the country
4) Protection of wildlife
12) Ghataprabha is a tributary of which one of the following rivers?
1) Ganga
2) Indus
3) Godavari
4) Krishna
13) When the speed of a body is doubled. Its kinetic energy becomes
1) double
2) half
3) quadruple
4) one-fourth
14) Winding a watch is actually the process of storing
1) electrical energy
2) pressure energy
3) kinetic energy
4) potential energy
15) Conservation of energy means that
1) energy can be created as well as destroyed
2) energy con be created but not destroyed
3) energy cannot be created but can be destroyed
4) energy can neither be created nor destroyed
Ans:
1) 3 2) 4 3) 2 4) 1 5) 1
6) 1 7) 3 8) 1 9) 3 10) 2
11) 3 12) 4 13) 3 14) 4 15) 4
TCS Model Question Paper
VERBAL SECTION
Directions for questions 1-15: Find the synonyms of the following words
1. Merry
Ans. Gay, Happy
2. Alienate
Ans. Estrange
3. Solicit
Ans. To request
4. Heap
Ans. To pile
5. Cargo
Ans. Freight
6. Momentary
Ans. Transient
7. Volume
Ans. Quantity
8. Veer
Ans. Diverge
9. Dispel
Ans. Dissipate
10. Admonish
Ans. Cautious
11. Meager
Ans. Scanty
12. Latitude
Ans. Scope
13. Latent
Ans. Potential
14. Covet
Ans. Crave
15. Discretion
Ans. Prudence
QUANTITATIVE SECTION
1. If two pencils cost 8 cents, then how much do 5 pencils cost?
Ans. 20 cents
2. Some work is done by two people in 24 minutes. One of them can do this work alone in 40 minutes.
How much time does the second person take to do the same work?
Ans. 60 minutes
3. A car is filled with four and half gallons of fuel for a round trip. If the amount of fuel taken while going
is 1/4 more than the amount taken for coming, what is the amount of fuel consumed while coming
back?
Ans.2 gallons
4. The lowest temperature in the night in a city A is 1/3 more than 1/2 the highest during the day. Sum of
the lowest temperature and the highest temperature is 100 degrees. Then what is the low temp?
Ans.40 degrees
5. Javagal, who decided to go to weekend trip should not exceed 8 hours driving in a day. The average
speed of forward journey is 40 miles/hr. Due to traffic on Sundays; the return journey's average speed is
30 m/h. How far he can select a picnic spot?
a) 120 miles
b) between 120 and 140 miles
c) 160 miles
Ans. 120 miles
6. A salesperson by mistake multiplied a number and got the answer as 3, instead of dividing the
number by 3.What is the answer he should have actually got?
Ans. 3
7. A building with height D shadow up to G. What is the height of a neighboring building with a shadow
of C feet?
Ans. (C*D)/G
8. A person was fined for exceeding the speed limit by 10 mph. Another person was also fined for
exceeding the same speed limit by twice the same. If the second person was travelling at a speed of 35
mph, find the speed limit.
Ans. 15 mph
9. A bus started from bus stand at 8.00am, and after staying for 30 minutes at a destination, it returned
back to the bus stand. The destination is 27 miles from the bus stand. The speed of the bus is 18mph.
During the return journey bus travels with 50% faster speed. At what time does it return to the bus
stand?
Ans. 11.00 am
10. In a mixture, R is 2 parts and S is 1 part. In order to make S to 25% of the mixture, how much of R
is to be added?
Ans.One part of R
11. Wind flows 160 miles in 330 min, for traveling 80 miles how much time does it require?
Ans. 2 hrs 45 mins
12. With a 4/5 full tank a vehicle can travel 12 miles, how far can it travel with a 1/3 full tank
Ans. 5 miles
13. There are two trees in a lawn. One grows at a rate 3/5 of the other in 4 years. If the total growth of
trees is 8 ft. What is the height of the smaller tree after 2 years?
Ans. 1 1/2 feet
14. Refer to the figure below. A ship started from P and moves at a speed of I miles per hour and
another ship starts from L and moving with H miles per hour simultaneously. Where do the two ships
meet?
||---g---||---h---||---i---||---j---||---k---||---l---||
PG H I J K L are the various stops in between denoted by || . The values g, h, i, j, k, l denote the
distance between the ports.
Ans. between I and J, closer to J
15. If A is traveling at 72 km per hour on a highway. B is traveling at a speed of 25 meters per second
on a highway. What is the difference in their speeds in m/sec?
Ans. 1 m/sec
CRITICAL REASONING SECTION
The critical reasoning section consists of some passages followed by 4 to 7 questions per passage. The
questions are such that they require ability to read fast and comprehend. The questions asked in this
section have three choices TRUE, FALSE, CAN'T SAY. Some examples of questions are given below.
Please note that these passages are not the exact passages asked. The passages used a good deal of
difficult words which have been removed in this reproduction. Also the passages appearing in the actual
paper are much lengthier.
Directions: Answer the questions given below the passage or statement as true, false or can't say.
PASSAGE A: My father has no brothers. He has three sisters who has two child's each.
Answer 1-5 based on the passage A
1.My grandfather has two sons .
Ans. False
2. Three of my aunts have two sons
Ans. Can't say
3. My father is only child to his father
Ans. False
4. I have six cousins from my mother side
Ans. Can't say
5. I have one uncle
Ans. Can't say (uncle can be from the mother's side as well)
PASSAGE B: Ether injected into gallbladder to dissolve cholesterol based gallstones. This type one day
treatment is enough for gallstones not for calcium stones. This method is alternative to surgery for
millions of people who are suffering from this disease.
Answer questions 6-9 based on passage B
6. Calcium stones can be cured in one day
Ans. False
7. Hundreds of people contain calcium stones
Ans. Can't say
8. Surgery is the only treatment to calcium stones
Ans. True
9. Ether will be injected into the gallbladder to cure the cholesterol based gall stones
Ans. True
PASSAGE C: Hacking is illegal entry into another computer. This happens mostly because of lack of
knowledge of computer networking. With networks one machine can access to another machine.
Hacking go about without knowing that each network is accredited to use network facility?
Answer questions 10-12 based on passage B
10. Hackers never break the code of the company which they work for
Ans. Can't say
11. Hacking is the only vulnerability of the computers for the usage of the data
Ans. False
12. Hacking is done mostly due to the lack of computer knowledge
Ans. False
PASSAGE C: Alpine tunnels are closed tunnels. In the past 30 yrs not even a single accident has been
recorded for there is one accident in the rail road system. Even in case of a fire accident it is possible to
shift the passengers into adjacent wagons and even the live fire can be detected and extinguished with
in the duration of 30 min.
Answer questions 13-16 based on passage C
13. No accident can occur in the closed tunnels
Ans. True
14. Fire is allowed to live for 30 min
Ans. False
16. All the care that travel in the tunnels will be carried by rail shutters.
Ans.True
PASSAGE D: In the past helicopters were forced to ground or crash because of the formation of the ice
on the rotors and engines. A new electronic device has been developed which can detect the water
content in the atmosphere and warns the pilot if the temperature is below freezing temperature about
the formation of the ice on the rotors and wings.
Answer questions 17-20 based on passage D
17. The electronic device can avoid formation of the ice on the wings
Ans.False
18. There will be the malfunction of rotor & engine because of formation of ice
Ans.True
19. The helicopters were to be crashed or grounded
Ans.True
20. There is only one device that warn about the formation of ice
Ans.True
PASSAGE E: In the survey conducted in Mumbai out of 63 newly married house wives not a single
house wife felt that the husbands should take equal part in the household work as they felt they loose
their power over their husbands. In spite of their careers they opt to do the kitchen work themselves
after coming back to home. The wives get half as much leisure time as the husbands get at the week
ends.
Answer questions 21-23 based on passage E
21. Housewives want the husbands to take part equally in the household
Ans.False
22. Wives have half as much leisure time as the husbands have
Ans. False
23. 39% of the men will work equally in the house in cleaning and washing
Ans. False
PASSAGE F: Copernicus is the intelligent. In the days of Copernicus the transport and technology
development was less & it took place weeks to communicate a message at that time, wherein we can
send it through satellite with in no time. Even with this fast development it has become difficult to
understand each other.
Answer questions 24-27 based on passage F
24. People were not intelligent during Copernicus days
Ans.False
25. Transport facilities are very much improved in now a day
Ans.Can't say
26. Even with the fast developments of the technology we can't live happily.
Ans. Can't say
27. We can understand the people very much with the development of communication
Ans. False.
PASSAGE G: Senior managers warned the workers that because of the introductory of Japanese
industry in the car market. There is the threat to the workers. They also said that there will be the
reduction in the purchase of the sales of car in public. the interest rates of the car will be increased with
the loss in demand.
Answer questions 28-31 based on passage G
28. Japanese workers are taking over the jobs of Indian industry.
Ans.False
  #7  
6th December 2014, 10:52 AM
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Join Date: Apr 2013
Re: Infosys Placement Paper

29. Managers said car interests will go down after seeing the raise in interest rates.
Ans.True
30. Japanese investments are ceasing to end in the car industry.
Ans. False
31. People are very interested to buy the cars.
Ans.False
PASSAGE H: In the Totalitarian days, the words have very much devalued. In the present day, they are
becoming domestic that is the words will be much more devalued. In those days, the words will be very
much affected in political area. but at present, the words came very cheap .We can say they come free
at cost.
Answer questions 32-34 based on passage H
32. Totalitarian society words are devalued.
Ans.False
33. Totalitarians will have to come much about words
Ans.True
34. The art totalitarian society the words are used for the political speeches.
Ans. False
PASSAGE I: There should be copyright for all arts. The reel has came that all the arts has come under
one copy right society, they were use the money that come from the arts for the developments . There
may be a lot of money will come from the Tagore works. We have to ask the benifiters from Tagore work
to help for the development of his works.
Answer questions 35-39 based on passage I
35. Tagore works are come under this copy right rule.
Ans. False
36. People are free to go to the public because of the copy right rule.
Ans: Can't say
37 People gives to theater and collect the money for development.
Ans: Can't say
38 We have asked the Tagore residents to help for the developments of art.
Ans: Can't say
PSYCHOMETRIC TEST
You don't need to fret much about this test. This test consists of 150 questions and is just a psychology
test which should be answered confidently and doesn't require any preparation. One must try being
consistent while answering as the same questions are repeatedly asked in different forms. Also one
must answer all questions. Questions are of yes, no or can't say kind.
1. Will you be interested in social activities?
2. While going upstairs do you move two steps at a time?
3. Can you make friends with people of the same sex or with opposite sex also
4. Your friends consider you as a leader in your group
5. People think that you’re serious minded.
6. There are times you feel dull without any reason.
7. You host several parties
8. When relatives come to your house do you entertain them?
9. You can work for long hours without tiredness.
10. In your company you want to lead the organization.
Aptitude Material - With Solutions
1) A boy was asked to find the value of 7/12 of a sum of money. Instead of multiplying The sum by 7/12
he divided it by 7/12 and thus his answer exceeded the correct answer By Rs.95. Find the correct
answer.
Sol: Let sum = Rs. K
: . 12/7 k – 7k/12 = 95
-- > 144k – 49k/84 = 95 -- > k = 84
: . 7/12 k -- > 7/12 * 84 = Rs. 49
2) The value of ¼ + 1/4.3 + 1/4.32 + 1/4.33 correct to four places of decimals is
Sol: ¼ + 1/12 + 1/36 + 1/108 = 27+9+3+1/108
-- > 40/108 -- > 10/27
= 0.3704
3) If 2/3rd of a number is subtracted from 7/3 of the number, the result is 2 more than the number itself.
Find the number.
Sol: Let the number be k
: . 7/3 k – 2/3 k = k+2 -- > 5/3 k = k+2
-- > 2/3 k = 2 -- > = 3
4) Simplify 3.7*3.7+2.3*2.3+2*3.7*2.3 / 4.6*4.6-3.4*3.4
Sol: -- > (3.7 + 2.3)2 / (4.6 + 3.4) (4.6 – 3.4)
-- > 36/8*1.2 -- > 36/9.6 = 360/96 = 3 ¾
5) Three numbers are in the ratio 3:4:5. The sum of the largest and the smallest equals the Sum of the
third and 52. The smallest number is:
Sol: Let the numbers be x, y, z
: . x/3 = y/4 = z/5 = k
: . x = 3k, y = 4k, z = 5k
: . 3k + 5k= 4k + 52
-- > k = 13
: . Smallest number = 39
6) Of the three numbers, second is twice the first and also thrice the third. If the average of the three
numbers is 44, the largest number is (3)
1) 24
2) 36
3) 72
4) 108
Sol: Let the 3rd number be x, Then, second number = 3x
: . First number = 3x/2
: . x+3x + 3x/2 = (44*3)
-- > 11x/2 = 132 -- > x = 24
Largest number -- > 3x
-- > 3*24 = 72
7) The least number of five digits which is exactly divisible by 12, 15 and 18 is
1) 10010
2) 10015
3) 10020
4) 10080
Sol: Least number of 5 digits is 10000.
L.C.M of 12, 15, 18 is 180
On dividing 10000 by 180, the remainder is 100.
: . Required number = 10000 + (180 – 100) = 10080
8) Simplify 2/3 / 4/9 of 7 ½ + 999 494/495 * 99
1) 99999
2) 10000
3) 99000
4) 11111
Sol: 2/3 / 4/9 of 15/2 + (999 +494/495) * 99
= 2/3 / 10/3 + 999*99 + 494/495 * 99
= 2/3 * 3/10 + (1000 – 1) 99 + 494/495 * 99
= 1/5 + 99000 – 99 + 494/5
= 494/5 + 99000 – 99 = 99000
9) If a/2 = b/3 = c/5, the value of a+b+c/c is
1) 2
2) 5
3) ½
4) 1/5
Sol: a/2 = b/3 = c/5 = k
-- > a = 2k, b = 3k, c = 5k
: . a+b+c/c = 2k+3k+5k/5k = 10k/5k = 2
10) Simplify: 2 ½ of ¾ * ½ /3/2 + ½ / 3/2 (2/3 – ½ of 2/3) to get
1) 1 5/8
2) 2 5/8
3) 1 8/11
4) 3 5/8
Sol: 1) 2 ½ of ¾ * ½ / 3/2 + ½ / 3/2 (2/3 – ½ of 2/3)
-- > (5/2 * ¾) * ½ * 2/3 + ½ * 2/3 * (2/3 – ½ * 2/3)
-- > 15/8 * 1/3 + 1/3 * [ ( 2/3 – 1/3 )]
-- > 15/8 * 1/3 + 1/3 * [(2/3- 1/3) ]
-- > 5/8 + 1/3 / 1/3
-- > 5/8 + 1 = 1 5/8
11) If a = 16 and b = then a2+b2+ab/a3-b3 will be
1) 11
2) 1/11
3) 121
4) Non
Sol: 1) 162+52+80 / 163-53 = 256+25+80/4096-125
= 361/3971 = 1/11
12) Find the smallest number which when divided by 6,10 and 15 respectively leaves 5 as Remainder in
each case?
Sol: L.C.M of 6,10,15 -- > 30
Required number =30 + 5 = 35
13) If 1/3rdof a number subtracted from ½ of that number, then the difference is 10more Than 1/7th of
the same number. How much is that number?
Sol: Let the number = x
: . x/2 – x/3 = x/7+ 10
-- > 3x-2x/6 = x/7+10
-- > x/6 – x/7 = 10
-- >7x-6x/42 = 10 -- > x = 420
14) If we multiply a fraction by itself and divide the product by its reciprocal; the fraction Thus obtained
is 15 5/8. The original fraction is:
Sol: Let the original fraction be x/y
X/y *x/y/y/x = 15 5/8
-- > x/y * x/y * x/y =125/8
-- > x3/y3 = 125/8
____
> x/y = 3√125/8 = 5/2 = 2 1/2
15) Find the H.C.F. of 852, 1065 and 1491.
Sol: 852) 1065(1
852
213) 852 (4
852
0
213) 1491(7
1491
0
Hence 213 is H.C.F of given numbers.
16) Find the greatest number which divides 3460 and 9380 leaving as remainder 9 and 13 respectively.
Sol: Since on dividing 3460 remainder 9 is left, the required number must divide (3460-9) = 3451
exactly . Similarly it must divide 9380 – 13 = 9367 exactly. Hence H.C.F of 9367 and 3451 will be
required number
Aptitude Question And Answer For Job Seekers
1) Joe Barbera who died recently at an age of 95 was famous for
1) He was the first defence secretary of USA
2) He had won Nobel Prize twice
3) He was a famous cartoonist who designed Tom & Jerry
4) He was the first American to climb Mt.Everest
2) Which of the following was voted as the best BBC documentary ?
1) Being American
2) Being Indian
3) Being Pakistani
4) Being British
3) Which is going to be the seventh and the final book of the Harry potter series?
1) Harry meets his end
2) Harry potter: The last destination
3) Harry potter and the Deathly Halloms
4) Harry potter and the final countdown
4) Who is the author of the book “you can heal your life”?
1) Louise L Hay
2) Stephen Roberts
3) William Dalrymple
4) Robert Corps
5) Jignesh Shah, the CEO of which of the following companies has won the US – India
businessman award?
1) Tata Steel
2) Bharti Airtel
3) Financial Technologies Group
4) None of these
6) Who is the author of the book “The of Everying : The Origin and Fate of The Universe?
1) William Dalrymple
2) Stephen Hawkings
3) Stephen Roberts
4) Louise L Hay
7) Who was the vice president of NAAS COM who died recently ?
1) Kiran Karnick
2) Sunil Mehta
3) Anil Kumar
4) None of these
8) Who is the author of the book, “Mithya :A Handbook of Hindu Mythology”?
1) Devdutt pattanaik
2) Samir Sinha
3) Amrita Pritam
4) Rishi Shankar
9) Who is the author of the book, “Me: A Handbook For Life”?
1) Ravi Shekhar
2) Manish Sinha
3) Raksha Bharadia
4) Amrita pitam
10) What is the profession of Chitra Bharucha, who is going to be the next head of BBC?
1) Actor
2) Doctor
3) Engineer
4) Writer
11) According to a recent survey which state was elected to have largest area under forest (31%)
1) Bihar
2) Assam
3) Madhya pradesh
4) Kerala
12) Who is going to be the new executive managing director of global real estate consultancy firm
Cushman and wakefield?
1) Nandan Nilekaru
2) Suresh Mehta
3) Sanjay Verma
4) Pawan Shrivastava
13) In the Line of Fire: A Memoir is the autobiography of which of the following personalities?
1) General J.J Singh
2) Captain Vikram Batra
3) George Fernandes
4) Gen.pervez Musharraf
14) Which of the following places was the venue for the 14th NAM Summit?
1) Havana
2) Moscow
3) New Delhi
4) Islamabad
15) Who among the following is the winner of the Gandhi International peace prize for the year 2006?
1) Desmond Tutu
2) Sabana Azmi
3) Nelson Mandela
4) Muhammad Yunus
Ans:
1) 3 2) 2 3) 3 4) 1 5) 3
6) 2 7) 2 8) 1 9) 3 10) 2
11) 3 12) 3 13) 4 14) 1 15)
Quatitative Aptitude Model Paper - 2
1. 6, 24, 60,120, 210
a) 336 b) 366 c) 330 d) 660
Answer : a) 336
Explanation : The series is 1.2.3, 2.3.4, 3.4.5, 4.5.6, 5.6.7, ..... ( '.' means product)
2. 1, 5, 13, 25
Answer : 41
Explanation : The series is of the form 0^2+1^2, 1^2+2^2,...
3. 0, 5, 8, 17
Answer : 24
Explanation : 1^2-1, 2^2+1, 3^2-1, 4^2+1, 5^2-1
4. 1, 8, 9, 64, 25 (Hint : Every successive terms are related)
Answer : 216
Explanation : 1^2, 2^3, 3^2, 4^3, 5^2, 6^3
5. 8,24,12,36,18,54
Answer : 27
6. 71,76,69,74,67,72
Answer : 67
7. 5,9,16,29,54
Answer : 103
Explanation : 5*2-1=9; 9*2-2=16; 16*2-3=29; 29*2-4=54; 54*2-5=103
8. 1,2,4,10,16,40,64 (Successive terms are related)
Answer : 200
Explanation : The series is powers of 2 (2^0,2^1,..).
All digits are less than 8. Every second number is in octal number system.
128 should follow 64. 128 base 10 = 200 base 8.
9. 3,5,7,12,13,17,19
Answer : 12
Explanation : All but 12 are odd numbers
10. 2,5,10,17,26,37,50,64
Answer : 64
Explanation : 2+3=5; 5+5=10; 10+7=17; 17+9=26; 26+11=37; 37+13=50; 50+15=65;
11. 105,85,60,30,0,-45,-90
Answer : 0
Explanation : 105-20=85; 85-25=60; 60-30=30; 30-35=-5; -5-40=-45; -45-45=-90;
Quatitative Aptitude Model Paper - 3
1. What is the number of zeros at the end of the product of the numbers from 1 to 100?
Answer : 127
2. A fast typist can type some matter in 2 hours and a slow typist can type the same in 3 hours. If both
type combinely, in how much time will they finish?
Answer : 1 hr 12 min
Explanation : The fast typist's work done in 1 hr = 1/2
The slow typist's work done in 1 hr = 1/3
If they work combinely, work done in 1 hr = 1/2+1/3 = 5/6
So, the work will be completed in 6/5 hours. i.e., 1+1/5 hours = 1hr 12 min
3. Gavaskar's average in his first 50 innings was 50. After the 51st innings, his average was 51. How
many runs did he score in his 51st innings. (supposing that he lost his wicket in his 51st innings)
Answer : 101
Explanation : Total score after 50 innings = 50*50 = 2500
Total score after 51 innings = 51*51 = 2601
So, runs made in the 51st innings = 2601-2500 = 101
If he had not lost his wicket in his 51st innings, he would have scored an unbeaten 50 in his 51st innings.
4. Out of 80 coins, one is counterfeit. What is the minimum number of weighings needed to find out the
counterfeit coin?
Answer : 4
5. What can you conclude from the statement : All green are blue, all blue are red. ?
(i) some blue are green
(ii) some red are green
(iii) some green are not red
(iv) all red are blue
(a) i or ii but not both
(b) i & ii only
(c) iii or iv but not both
(d) iii & iv
Answer : (b)
6. A rectangular plate with length 8 inches, breadth 11 inches and thickness 2 inches is available. What is
the length of the circular rod with diameter 8 inches and equal to the volume of the rectangular plate?
Answer : 3.5 inches
Explanation : Volume of the circular rod (cylinder) = Volume of the rectangular plate
(22/7)*4*4*h = 8*11*2
h = 7/2 = 3.5
7. What is the sum of all numbers between 100 and 1000 which are divisible by 14 ?
Answer : 35392
Explanation : The number closest to 100 which is greater than 100 and divisible by 14 is 112, which is the
first term of the series which has to be summed.
The number closest to 1000 which is less than 1000 and divisible by 14 is 994, which is the last term of
the series.
112 + 126 + .... + 994 = 14(8+9+ ... + 71) = 35392
8. If s(a) denotes square root of a, find the value of s(12+s(12+s(12+ ...... upto infinity.
Answer : 4
Explanation : Let x = s(12+s(12+s(12+.....
We can write x = s(12+x). i.e., x^2 = 12 + x. Solving this quadratic equation, we get x = -3 or x=4. Sum
cannot be -ve and hence sum = 4.
Quatitative Aptitude Model Paper - 4
1. The diameter of the driving wheel of a bus is 140cm. How many revolutions per minute must the wheel
make in order to keep a speed of 66 kmph?
Ans. 250
Sol. Distance to be covered in 1 min=(66*1000)/60 m=1100m
Circumference of the wheel =(2*22/7*0.70)m=4.4m.
So, Number of revolutions per min=1100/4.4=250.
2. Vivek travelled 1200km by air which formed 2/5 of his trip.One third of the whole trip , he travelled by
car and the rest of the journey he performed by train. The distance travelled by train was ?
Ans.800km
Sol: Let the total trip be x km.
Then 2x/5=1200
x=1200*5/2=3000km
Distance travelled by car =1/3*3000=1000km
Journey by train =[3000-(1200+1000)]=800km.
3. Two trains 200mts and 150mts are running on the parallel rails at this rate of 40km/hr and 45km/hr.In
how much time will they cross each other if they are running in the same direction.
Ans: 252sec
Sol: Relative speed=45-40=5km/hr=25/18 mt/sec
Total distance covered =sum of lengths of trains =350mts.
So, time taken =350*18/25=252sec.
4. From height of 8 mts a ball fell down and each time it bounces half the distance back. What will be the
distance travelled
Ans.: 24
Sol. 8+4+4+2+2+1+1+0.5+0.5+ and etc .. =24
5. If a man walks at the rate of 5kmph, he misses a train by only 7min. However if he walks at the rate of
6 kmph he reaches the station 5 minutes before the arrival of the train. Find the distance covered by him
to reach the station.
Ans:6km.
Sol: Let the required distance be x km.
Difference in the times taken at two speeds=12mins=1/5 hr.
Therefore x/5-x/6=1/5 or 6x-5x=6 or x=6km.
Hence ,the required distance is 6 km
6. Walking 5/6 of its usual speed, a train is 10min late. Find the usual time to cover the journey?
Ans:50 min
Sol: New speed = 5/6 of usual speed
New time = 6/5 of usual time
Therefore, (6/5 of usual time) – usual time = 10min
Therefore Usual time = 50min
7. A train running at 54 kmph takes 20 seconds to pass a platform. Next it takes 12 seconds to pass a
man walking at 6 kmph in the same direction in which the train is going. Find the length of the train and
the length of the platform.
Ans. length of the train=160m
length of the platform=140 m.
Sol: Let the length of the train be x meters and length of the platform be y meters.
Speed of the train relative to man=(54-6) kmph =48 kmph.
=(48*5/18) m/sec =40/3 m/sec.
In passing a man, the train covers its own length with relative speed.
Therefore, length of the train=(Relative speed *Time)
=(40/3 * 12) m =160 m.
Also, speed of the train=(54 * 5/18) m/sec=15 m/sec.
Therefore, x+y/2xy=20 or x+y=300 or y=(300-160 m=140 m.
Therefore, Length of the platform=140 m.
8. A man is standing on a railway bridge which is 180m long. He finds that a train crosses the bridge in
20seconds but himself in 8 seconds. Find the length of the train and its speed.
Ans: length of train=120m
Speed of train=54kmph
Sol: Let the length of the train be x meters
Then, the train covers x meters in 8 seconds and (x + 180) meters in 20 seconds.
Therefore x/8 = (x+180)/20 ó 20x = 8(x+180) ó x = 120
Therefore Length of the train = 120m
Speed of the train = 120/8 m/sec = 15 m/sec =15 * 18/5 kmph = 54kmph
  #8  
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Infosys placement paper

I am looking for placement paper of Infosys written test so will you please provide me?
  #9  
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Re: Infosys placement paper

Hi, as you want the placement paper of Infosys written test so here I am providing you

Infosys placement paper

1) Aptitude test:

Questions = 70; time limit = 75 minutes. Sectional cut-off in each section it’s around 60% in Logical Reasoning part and 50% in Verbal Ability. No negative marking Offline (paper & pen) test

Analytical & Logical reasoning 30 questions: 40 minutes)
English section: (40 questions: 35 minutes)

1. There are 6561 balls out of them 1 is heavy. Find the min. no. of times the balls have to be weighed for finding out the heavy ball.
Ans. 8

2. If I walk with 30 miles/hr i reach 1 hour before and if i walk with 20 miles/hr i reach 1 hour late. Find the distance between 2 points and the exact time of reaching destination is 11 am then find the speed with which it walks.
Ans. 120miles and 24 miles/hr

3. When you reverse the digits of age of father u will get the age of son. One year ago the age of father was twice that of son's age. What are the current ages of father and son?
Ans: 73 & 37
4. In a class there are less than 500 students. When it is divided by 3 it gives a whole number. Similarly when it is divided by 4, 5 or 7 gives a whole number. Find the no. of students in the class

Ans: 420

5. A coffee seller has two types of coffee Brand A costing 5 bits per pound and Brand B costing 3 bits per pound. He mixes two brands to get a 40 pound mixture. He sold this at 6 bits per pound. The seller gets a profit of 33 1/2 percent. How much he has used Brand A in the mixture?

Ans: 30 pounds

6) Which figure completes the series?

Ans: A

7) Which figure completes the series?

Ans: C

8) Which figure completes the series?

Ans: C

9) Which figure completes the series?

Ans: D

10) Which figure completes the series?

Ans: B

Directions 11-15: In each question below are given three Statements followed by three Conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given Statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given Conclusions logically follows from the given Statements disregarding commonly known facts.

11. Statements:

Some cycles are busses. All cars are buses. Some buses are trains. Conclusions:

I. All cares are cycles.

II. Some trains are buses.

III. Some trains are cars.

(1) None follows (2) Only I and II follow (3) Only land III follow (4) Only II and III follow
(5) None of these

Ans: 4

12. Statements: All pencils are sticks. Some sticks are notes. All diaries are notes. Conclusions:
I. Some notes are diaries.

II. Some sticks are pencils.

III. Some diaries are sticks.

(1) All follow

(2) Only I follow

(3) Only I and II follow

(4) Only II follows

(5) None of these

Ans: 5

13. Statements: Some buds are leaves. No leaf is fruit. Some fruits are buds.
Conclusions:

I. Some fruits are leaves.

II. All buds are fruits.

III. Some leaves are buds.

(1) Only I or II follows

(2) Only III follows

(3) Only II follows

(4) None follows

(5) None of these

Ans: 2

14. Statements: Some birds are animals. All animals are rivers. Some rivers are lions. Conclusions:

I. Some lions are animals

II. Some rivers are birds

III. No animal is lion

(1) Only II follows

(2) Only either I or III follows

(3) I and II follows

(4) Only either II or III follow

(5) None of these

Ans: 3

15. Statements: All boxes are pans Some boxes are jugs .Some jugs are glasses.Conclusions:

I. Some glasses are boxes

II. No glass is box

III. Some jugs are pans

IV. No jug is pan

(1) Only I and II follows (2) Either I or II and III follows (3) Only III follows (4) Either I or II , and either III or IV follow (5) None of these

Ans: B

Directions 16-20 Use the following answer choices for the questions below.
A. Statement 1 alone is sufficient but statement 2 alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
B. Statement 2 alone is sufficient but statement 1 alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
C. Both statements 1 and 2 together are sufficient to answer the question but neither statement is sufficient alone.
D. Each statement alone is sufficient to answer the question.
E. Statements 1 and 2 are not sufficient to answer the question asked and additional data is needed to answer the statements.
16) If the average size of 3 accounts is $1 million, is the smallest account less than $500,000?
1. The largest account is $1.3 million.
2. One of the accounts is $0.7 million.
Ans: C

17) Is the product of x and y greater than 60?
1. The sum of x and y is greater than 60.
2. Each of the variables is greater than 2.
Ans: C

18) What is the value of y?
1. y - 3 = 2
2. y2 = 25
Ans: A

19) What was the percent increase of Company A's stock between June 1 and June 30, 2000?
1. The stock gained $5 in value during June 2000.
2. The stock rose 12% during the first half of the month.
Ans: E

20) Which company reported the larger dollar increase in earnings?
1. Company A reported that its earnings increased by 5%.
2. Company B reported that its earnings increased by 7%.
Ans: E

21. Ramesh starting from a fixed point goes 15 km towards North and then after turning to his right he goes 15 km. then he goes 10, 15 and 15 metres after turning to his left each time. How far is he from his starting point?

(A) 5 metres

(B) 10 metres

(C) 20 metres

(D) 15 metres

(E) Can not be determined

Ans: (B)

22. Sonalika goes 12 km towards North from a fixed point and then she goes 8 km towards South from there. In the end she goes 3 km towards east. How far and in what direction is she from her starting point?

(A) 7 km East

(B) 5 km West(C) 7 km West

(D) 5 km North-East

(E) None of these

Ans: (D)

23. Sunita goes 30 km towards North from a fixed point, then after turning to her right she goes 15 km. After this she goes 30 km after turning to her right. How far and in what direction is she from her starting point?

(A) 45 km, East

(B) 15 km, East

(C) 45 km, West

(D) 45 Km, North

(E) None of these

Ans: (B)

24. Kanchan goes 5 m towards east from a fixed point N and then 35 km after turning to her left. Again she goes 10 metres after turning to her right. After this she goes 35 m after turning to her right. How far is she from N?

(A) 40 m

(B) At N(C) 10 m

(D) 15 m

(E) None of these

Ans: (D)

25. Shri Prakash walked 40 metres facing towards North. From there he walked 50 metres after turning to his left. After this he walked 40 metres after turning to his left. How far and in what direction is he now from his starting point?

(A) 40 m, North

(B) 50 m, West

(C) 10 m, East

(D) 10 m, West

(E) None of these

Ans: (B)

I. Directions (Question 26 to 30): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given it.

There are six persons A B C D E and F in a school. Each of the teachers teaches two subjects, one compulsory subject and the other optional subject. D's optional subject was History while there others have it as compulsory subject. E and F have Physics as one of their subjects. F's compulsory subject is Mathematics which is an optional subject of both C and E. History and English are A's subjects but in terms of compulsory and optional subjects, they are just reverse of those of D's. Chemistry is an optional subject of only one of them. The only female teacher in the school has English as her compulsory subject.

26. What is C's compulsory subject?

A) History B) Physics C) Chemistry D) English E) Mathematics

Ans: A

27. Who is a female member in the group?

A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

Ans: D

28. Which of the following has some compulsory and optional subjects as those of F's ?

A) D B) B C) A D) C E) None of these

Ans: E

29. Disregarding which is the compulsory and which is the optional subject, who has the same two subject combination as F?

A) A B) B C) E D) D E) None of these

Ans: C

30. Which of the following groups has History as the compulsory subject?

A) A,C,D B) B,C,D C) C,D D) A,B,C E) A,D

Ans: D

Verbal Ability Test (40 Questions in 35 minutes)

Directions for Questions 1-5: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis of the information provided in the passage.

It all started at the beginning of fifth grade. At first, Carmen wasn’t really sure what was happening. In class, she had to squint to see the blackboard clearly. She had to do the same thing when she read street signs, or when she watched a movie. As the fuzziness got worse, she became more and more worried. It was important for her to see the notes and homework assignments the teacher put on the board.

It wasn’t long before Carmen found herself squinting all the time, but she didn’t want anyone to know that she was having a problem seeing. In class, she asked for a desk that was closer to the blackboard. One day, her teacher said, "Carmen, are you all right? I’ve noticed you squinting a lot. Are you having trouble seeing the board?"

Carmen shook her head. "I’m fine, Mrs. Cruz," she said, but she knew she couldn’t pretend much longer.

At home, she had to sit closer and closer to the television in order to see the picture. Her mother noticed her squinting as she watched her favorite shows, and she began to get suspicious.

"Tomorrow I’m calling the eye doctor to set up an appointment for you," she said firmly. Carmen protested, but her mother’s mind was made up.

Three days later, Carmen had new glasses and instructions from her doctor to wear them all the time. Carmen frowned in the car the whole way home. "All of the kids at school will think I’m a nerd," she said. Her mother smiled and shook her head. "You look just as beautiful with those glasses on as you do without them," she said. But Carmen didn’t believe her. The next day, Carmen kept the glasses in her pocket as she walked into the schoolyard. She avoided her friends and stood alone, feeling miserable. Suddenly, she heard her friend Theresa shout. Carmen ran over to the other girls. "What’s wrong?" she asked. "My silver ring is gone!" Theresa cried. "My sister sent it to me from California. It’s very special and I can’t lose it!"
Carmen could tell that Theresa was very upset. They all looked for the ring in the grassy area of the playground.

Carmen realized that she could search better if she could see better. She took the glasses out of her pocket and put them on. The objects and people around her came into sharp focus. She caught her breath. Everything looked so different! So clear! She looked down at the ground and a glimmer of silver caught her eye. It was the ring. "Here it is," she shouted. "I’ve found it!" She handed it to Theresa, and Theresa slipped the ring back on her finger.

"Thanks Carmen," she said. "I never thought we'd find it." She paused. "Hey, I didn’t know you wore glasses. They look great!" Carmen had forgotten that she was wearing the new glasses. "Thanks," she replied shyly. As they walked back toward the school building, two more girls from her class complimented her glasses. Carmen smiled. "Maybe wearing glasses won’t be so bad after all," she thought.

1. BEFORE Carmen got glasses she
A. Thought having glasses wouldn’t be so bad.
B. Wasn’t able to see the blackboard clearly.
C. Found Theresa’s missing ring.
D. sat far away from the television
Ans: B

2. Based on the end of the story, what do you think Carmen will do next?
A. She won’t tell her friends that she needs to wear glasses.
B. She will keep her glasses in her pocket where no one can see them.
C. She will wear her glasses all the time.
D. She will wear her glasses only when she is with her family.
Ans: C

3. Read this sentence from the story 'Her mother noticed her squinting as she watched her favorite shows, and she began to get suspicious'.

What is an antonym for the word suspicious?
A. doubtful
B. guilty
C. innocent
D. trusting
Ans: D

4. Which statement BEST describes Carmen?

A. She is willing to overcome her fears in order to help her friends.
B. She doesn’t care how well she does in school.
C. She cares more about herself than her friends.
D. She doesn’t worry about what other people think of her.
Ans: A

5. Read this sentence from the story. 'In class, she had to squint to see the blackboard clearly'.

What does squint mean?

A. to look with eyes partly closed
B. to move closer
C. to try hard
D. to concentrate
Ans: D

Directions for Questions 6-10: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis of the information provided in the passage.

Primitive man was probably more concerned with fire as a source of warmth and as a means of cooking food than as a source of light. Before he discovered less laborious ways of making fire, he had to preserve it, and whenever he went on a journey he carried a firebrand with him. His discovery that the firebrand, from which the torch may very well have developed, could be used for illumination was probably incidental to the primary purpose of preserving a flame.

Lamps, too, probably developed by accident. Early man may have had his first conception of a lamp while watching a twig or fibre burning in the molten fat dropped from a roasting carcass. All he had to do was to fashion a vessel to contain fat and float a lighted reed in it. Such lamps, which are made of hollowed stones or sea shells, have persisted in identical from up to quite recent times.

6. Primitive man's most important use for five was

A) To provide warmth B) to cook food C) to provide light D) Both A and B.

Ans: A

7. The firebrand was used to

A) Prevent accidents B) provide light C) scare animals D) save labour

Ans: B

8. By 'primary' the author means

A) Primitive B) fundamental C) elemental D) essential

Ans: D

9. Lamps probably developed through mere

A) Hazard B) fate C) chance D) planning

Ans: C

10. Early lamps were made by

A) Using a reed as a wick in the fat B) letting a reed soak the fat

C) putting the fat in a shell and lighting it D) floating a reed in the sea-shell

Ans: A

Directions11-18: Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

11. These essays are intellectually ............... and represent various levels of complexity

A) Revealing B) Modern C) persistent D) demanding E) persistent

Ans: C

12. It was almost impossible for him to put out of his mind the ............... words which he heard from his clever father-in-law

A) Inspiring B) witty C) sarcastic D) soothing E) exhortative

Ans: B

13Integrity of character, honesty, dependability and discipline............... with a genuine interest in your work will go a long way in the achievement of success in your professional life.

A) Coupled B) adjoined C) fixed D) attached E) joined

Ans: A

14. The soldiers were instructed to.........................restraint and handle the situation peacefully.

A) Exercise B) control C) prevent D) enforce E) remain

Ans: A

15. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar was one of the chief............... of women's rights

A) Promoters B) facilitators C) instigators D) organizers E) protagonists

Ans; E

16. Her parents will never give their .........to such an unsuitable match.

A. willingness B. agreement C. consent d. acquiescence

Ans: C

17. He is ......... dancer

A. a skilled B. an adept C. an adapt d. an adopt

Ans: A

18. The degrees were awarded in the annual.........................

A. conference B. convention C. Convolution D. convocation

Ans: D

Direction Questions 19-26 in each question below is given a passage followed by several inferences. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity.

Mark your answer as:

A. if the inference is ' definitely true' i.e., it directly follows from the facts given in the passage

B. if the inference is ' probably true' though not definitely true in the light of the facts given

C. if you think the data are in adequate i.e., from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false

D. if you think the inference is ' probably false' though not definitely false in the light of the facts given; and

E. if you think inference is ' definitely false' i.e, it contradicts the given facts.

Passage I

A recent survey shows that India has the lowest death rate for blood cancer. China, Thailand and Myanmar (countries that have taste for spices) also have low rates. Higher rates are found in .S.A where spices are not used. The typical American food remains chicken rolls, butter and beef.

19. Americans are unorthodox in their food habits.

Ans: D

20. Americans dislike spices

Ans: C

21. Spices prevent blood cancer

Ans: A

22. Spices promote forms of cancer other than blood cancer

Ans: C

23. Chicken rolls, butter and beef promote cancer.

Ans: A

Passage II

The water resources of our country are very much underutilized . The main reason of this underutilization is the lack of capital and technology. A large portion of our water resources is wasted due to floods and unwise use of water for irrigation as well as domestic purposes. we can make full use of our water resources by building dams on rivers and by adopting policy of awareness among people not to waste water.

24. Occurrence of floods adds to the water resources.

Ans: E

25. Some people do not use water resources in a judicious way.

Ans: A

26. The country does not have enough funds to develop water resources

Ans: A

Direction 27-32: In each of the following questions, find out which part of the sentence has an error. If there is no mistake the answer is 'no error'

27. My father is / in bad mood / today. / No error

A B C D

Ans: B

34. Both the civilians/ and armymen / joined the First World War / today. / No error

A B C D

Ans: B

28. The school is / with in hundred yards / from my house / no error

A B C D

Ans: B

29. As soon as the teacher entered / everyone fell /in a silence / no error

A B C

Ans: C

30. He took to / reading Times / for better knowledge / of the facts./ no error

A B C D E

Ans: B

31. I will put on / a note in this regard / for your consideration / and necessary decision./ no error

A B C D E

Ans: A

32. He has been working on /the problem from a long time /but is still not / able to solve it./ no error

A B C D E

Ans: E

Directions 33-40: In each question, a part of sentence is printed in italics. Below each sentence, some phrases are given which can substitute the italicized part of the sentence. If the sentence is correct as it is, the answer is 'No correction required'


33. He did many mischiefs

A. made many a mischiefs B. made much mischief

C. Committed many mischiefs D. No Correction required

Ans: C

34. Rohit is as fast as or perhaps faster than Manish.

A. Equally fast B. almost as fast C. as fast D. No Correction required

Ans: C

35. All his family members are in Kanpur.

A. All of his family members

B. All the family members if his

C. All the members of his family

D. No Correction required

Ans: C

36. I often see him dancing the top

A. rotating

B. encircling

C. dodging

D. No Correction required

Ans: D

37. What is the time in your watch?

A. on B. by C. from D. No Correction required

Ans: C

38. Columbus invented America

A. searched B. traced C. discovered D. No Correction required

Ans: C

39. Wise men catch time by the forelock.

A. Hold B. seize C. take D. No Correction required

Ans: B

40. A bird in hand is worth two in bush

A. two in the bush b. two at a bush c. two on bush D. No Correction required

Ans: A
  #10  
4th February 2020, 07:41 AM
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Improve a subject

I passed my BA degree in 2004 from your university. One of my subjects has a low number.I am a primary teacher in government school.I need a score improvement for promotion.Can I improve the score again? Please provide information.


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