|
#2
4th August 2014, 09:27 AM
| |||
| |||
| Re: Indian Administrative Service preliminary exam previous year question papers
As you want to get the Indian Administrative Service preliminary exam previous year question papers so here it is for you: Scheme of CS (Preliminary) Examination The Preliminary Examination consists of two papers of objective type (multiple-choice questions) carrying a maximum of 400 marks. The Question Papers (Test Booklets) are set in English & Hindi General Studies Paper - I 200 Marks General Studies Paper - II 200 Marks Scheme - CS (Main) Paper-I One of the Indian Languages to be selected by the candidate from the 18 languages included in the VIIIth Schedule to the Constitution (Qualifying Paper) 300 Marks Paper-II English (Qualifying Paper) 300 Marks Paper-III Essay 200 Marks Papers IV & V General Studies (300 Marks for each paper) 600 Marks Papers VI, VII, VIII & IX Any two subjects (each having 2 papers) to be selected from the prescribed optional subjects (300 marks for each paper) 1200 Marks Total Marks for Written Examination 2000 Marks Interview Test 300 Marks Grand Total 2300 Marks Read the following four passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only. Passage - 1 The subject of democracy has become severely muddled because of the way the rhetoric surrounding it has been used recent years. There is, increasingly, an oddly confused dichotomy between those who want to democracy on in ‘impose’ in the non-Western world (in these countries’ countries ‘own interest’, of course) and those who are 0pp0sed to such ‘imposition’ (because of the respect for the countries’ ‘own 1_ ways’). But the entire language of ‘imposition’, used by both sides, is extraordinarily inappropriate since it makes the implicit assumption that democracy belongs exclusively to the West, taking it to be a quintessentially ‘Western’ idea which has originated and flourished only in the West. But the thesis and the pessimism it generates about the possibility of democratic practice in the world would be- extremely hard to justify. There were several experiments in local democracy in ancient India. Indeed, in understanding the roots of democracy in the world, we have to take an interest in the history of people participation and public reasoning in different parts of the world. We have to look beyond thinking of democracy only in terms ' of European and American evolution. We would fail to understand the pervasive demands for participatory living, on “which Aristotle spoke with far-reaching insight, if we take democracy to be a kind of a specialized cultural product of the West. It cannot, of course, be doubted that the institutional structure of the contemporary practice of democracy is largely the product of European and American experience over the last few centuries. This is extremely important to recognize since these developments in institutional formats were immensely innovative and ultimately effective. There can be little doubt that there is a major . ‘Western’ achievement here. Which of the following is closest to the view of democracy as mentioned in the above passage ? (a) The subject of democracy is a muddle due to a desire to portray it as a Western concept, ‘alien’ r to non-Western countries. (b) The language of imposition of democracy is inappropriate. There is, however, a need to consider this concept in the backdrop of culture of ‘own ways’ of non-Western society. (c) While democracy is not essentially a Western idea belonging exclusively to the West, the institutional structure of current democratic practices has been their contribution. None of the statements (a), (b) and (0) given above is correct. (01) With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made : 1. -Many of the non-Western countries are unable to have democracy because they take democracy to be a specialized cultural product of the West. 2. Western countries are always trying to impose democracy on non-Western countries. Which of the above is/are valid assumption/assumptions ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (0) Both 1 and 2 ((1) Neither 1 nor 2 Passage - 2 Corporate governance is based on principles such as conducting the business with all integrity and fairness, being with transactions, making all the necessary transparent regard to all disclosures and decisions, complying with all the laws of the land, accountability and responsibility towards the stakeholders and commitment to conducting business in an ethical manner. Another point highlighted on governance is the need for those in control which is corporate to be able to distinguish between what are personal and corporate funds while managing a company. Fundamentally, there is a level of confidence that is associated with a company that is known to have good corporate governance. The presence of an active group of independent directors on the board contributes a great deal towards the Corporate governance is known to be one ensuring confidence in market. of the criteria that foreign institutional investors are increasingly depending on when deciding on which companies to invest in. It is also known to have a positive influence on the share price of the company. Having a clean image on the corporate governance front could also make it easier for companies to source capital ' at more reasonable costs. Unfortunately, corporate governance often becomes the centre of discussion only after the exposure of a large scam. According to the passage, which of the following should be the practice/practices in good corporate governance ? 1. Companies sh0uld always comply with labour and tax laws of the land. 2. Every company in the country should have a government representative as one of the independent directors on the board to ensure transparency. 3. The manager of a company should never invest his personal funds in the company. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : - (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only '(d) 1,2 and3 According to the passage, which of the following is/are the major benefit/benefits of good corporate governance ? 1. Good corporate governance leads to increase in share price of the company. ‘2. A company with good corporate governance always increases its business turnover rapidly. 3. Good corporate governance is the main criterion for foreign institutional investors when they decide to buy a company. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only '(c) 1 and 3 only (d) l, 2 and 3 I Passage — 3 Malnutrition most commonly occurs between the ages of six months and two years. This happens despite the child’s food requirements being less than that of an older child. Malnutrition is often attributed to poverty, but it has been found that even in households where adults eat adequate quantities of food, more than 50 per cent of children-under-five do not consume enough food. The child’s dependence on someone else to feed him/her is primarily responsible for the malnutrition. Very often the mother is working and the responsibility of feeding the young child is left to an older sibling. It is therefore crucial to increase awareness regarding the child's food needs and how to satisfy them. ‘ According to the passage, malnutrition in children can be reduced (a) if the children have regular intake of food. . (b) after they cross the age of five. (c) if the food needs of younger children are known. ((1) if the responsibility of feeding younger children is given to adults. According to the author, poverty is not the main cause of malnutrition, but the fact that 1. taking care of younger ones is not a priority for working mothers. 2. awareness of nutritional needs is not propagated by the Public Health authorities. Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 ((1) Neither 1 nor 2 Passage - 4 A number of empirical studies find that farmers are risk-averse, though only moderately in many cases. There is also evidence to show that farmers' risk aversion results in cropping patterns and input use designed to reduce risk rather than to maximize income. Farmers adopt a number of strategies to manage and agricultural These like crop and field cope with risks. include practices diversification, non-farm employment,_ storage of stocks and strategic migration of family members. There are also institutions ranging from share tenancy to kinship, extended family and informal credit agencies. One major obstacle to risk sharing by farmers is that the same type of risks can affect a large number of farmers in the region. Empirical studies show that the traditional methods are not adequate. Hence there is a need for policy interventions, especially measures that cut across geographical regions. Policies may aim at tackling agricultural risks directly or indirectly. Examples of risk-specific policies are crop insurance, price stabilization and the development of varieties resistant to pests and diseases. Policies which affect risk indirectly are irrigation, subsidized credit and access to information. No single risk—specific policy is sufficient to reduce risk and is without side-effects, whereas policies not specific to risk influence the general situation and affect risks only indirectly. Crop insurance, as a policy measure to tackle agricultural risk directly, deserves careful consideration in the Indian context and in many other developing countries — because the majority of farmers depend on rain-fed agriculture and in many areas yield variability is the predominant cause of their income instability. The need for policy intervention to mitigate risks in agriculture is because (a) farmers are extremely risk-averse. (b) farmers do not know how to mitigate risks. _ (c) the methods adopted by farmers and existing risk sharing institutions are not adequate. (d) majority of farmers depend on rain-fed agriculture. Which of the following observations emerges from the above passage ? (a) One can identify a single policy that can reduce risk without any side-effect. (b) No single risk-specific policy is sufficient to reduce agricultural risk. (c) Policies which affect risk indirectly can eliminate it. (d) Government's policy intervention can mitigate agricultural risk completely. Consider the following statements : (i) A primary group is relatively smaller in size. (ii) Intimacy is an essential characteristic of a primary group. (iii) A family may be an example of a primary group. In the light of the above statements, which one of the following is true ? (a) All families are primary groups. (b) All primary groups are families. (0) A group of smaller size is always a primary group. (d) Members of a primary group know each other intimately. 10. Four friends, A, B, C and D distribute 13. Which one of the following pairs of cities some money among themselves in such a is connected by any of the routes directly manner that A gets one less than B, C without going to any other city? gets 5 more than D, D gets 3 more than (a) P and T B. Who gets the smallest amount ? (b) T and S (a) A (c) Q and R (b) B (d) N f th one 0 ese (0) C (d) D . . . . 14. Between WhlCl'l two cities among the pairs Directions for the following 4 (four) items: 0f Cities given belOW are there maximum Read the following statements and answer travel optums avallable ? the four items that follow : (a) Q and S Five cities P, Q, R, S and T are connected (b) P and R by different modes of transport as (C) P and T follows : (d) Q and R land Q are connecmd by boat as well as Directions for the following 3 (three) S ' d R d items : c' n t b b andbo t. an are on ec e y lls a Read the following passage and answer Q and T are connected by air only. the three items that follow '_ P and R are connected by boat only. I . _ _ T and R are connected by rail and bus. A tenms coaCh IS trymg to put together a team .of four players for 11. Which mode of transport would help one the forthcommg, toufnament' For thlpf to' reach R Starting from Q, but without 7 players are available . males A, B and C, changing the mode of transport? and females W, X» Y and Z- All Players (a) Boat have equal capability and at least 2 males 0)) R _1 will be there in the team. For a team of 31 four, all players must be able to play with (0')- Bus each other. But, B cannot play with W, C (d) Ail" cannot play with Z and W cannot play with Y. 12. If a person visits each of the places Starting fmm P and gets back to P, which 15. If Y is selected and B is rejected, the team of the following places must he visit will consist of which one of the following twice ? ' groups ? (a) Q (a) A, C, W and Y (b) R' (b) A, C, X and Y (c) S (c) A, C, Y and Z (d) T (d) A, W, Y and Z 5.} B»BRO—M—HTB l 10 — A l ‘ (b) 'Kaushal, Knnal, Mukesh and Jaswant. If B is selected and 'Y is rejected, the team will consist of which one of the 19' following groups ? (a) A, B, C and W A, B, C and Z A, B, C and X A, W, Y and Z (c) (d) If all the three males are selected, then how many combinations of four member Five people A, B, C, D and E are seated about a round table. Every chair is spaced equidistant from adjacent chairs. 6) (ii) vA is seated two seats from D. C is seated next to A. (iii) B is not seated next to A. Which of the following must be true ? (I) D is seated next to B. (II) E is seated next to A. Select the correct answer from the codes given below : teams are possible ? _ (a) I only (a) 1 (b) 11 only 0  Both I and II(b) 2 (d) Neither I nor II (‘1) ‘3 Directions for the following 3 (three) (d) 4 items .- The music director of a film wants to select four persons to work on different aspects of the composition of a piece of music. Seven persons are available for this work; they are Rohit, Tanya, Shobha, Rohit and Tanya will not work together. Kunal and Shobha will not work together. Mukesh and Kunal want to work together. Which of the following is the most acceptable group of people that can be selected by the music director ? 20. 21. (a) Rohit, Shobha, Kunal and Kaushal (b) Tanya, Kaushal, Shobha and Rohit (c) Tanya, Mukesh, Kunal and J aswant (d) Shobha, Tanya, Rohit and Mukesh (12—Al Examine carefully the following statements and answer the three items that follow .' Out of four friends A, B, C and D, - A and B play football and cricket, B and C play cricket and hockey, A and D play basketball and football, C and D play hockey and basketball. Who does not play hockey ? (a) D (b) C (c) B (d) A Who plays football, basketball and hockey? ‘ (a) D l (b) (c) B (d) A ‘ Which game do B, C and D play ? (a) Basketball (b) Hockey (c) Cricket (d) Football Geeta is older than her cousin Meena. Meena’s brother Bipin is older than Geeta. When Meena and Bipin visit Geeta, they like to play chess. Meena wins the game more often than Geeta. Based on the above information, four conclusions, as given below, have been made. Which one of these logically follows from the information given above '? (a) While playing chess with Geeta and Meena, Bipin often loses. (b) Geeta is the oldest among the three. (0) Geeta hates to lose the game. (d) Meena is the youngest of the three. Directions for the following 4 (four) items : B—BRO-M-HTB Read the following passage and answer the four items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only. Passage Financial markets in India have acquired greater depth and liquidity over the years. Steady reforms since 1991 have led to growing linkages and integration of the Indian economy and its financial system with the global economy. Weak global economic prospects and continuing uncertainties in the international financial markets therefore, have had their impact on the emerging market economies. Sovereign risk concerns, particularly in the Euro area, affected financial markets for the greater part of the year, with the contagion of Greece’s sovereign debt problem spreading to India economies and other by way of higher-than-normal levels of volatility. The funding international constraints in financial markets 'could impact both the availability and cost of foreign funding for banks and corporates. Since the Indian financial system is bank dominated, 'banks’ ability to Withstand stress is critical to overall financial stability. Indian banks, however, remain robust, notwithstanding a decline in capital to risk-Weighted assets ratio and a rise in non—performing asset levels in the adequacy levels regulatory market Capital remain above the requirements. The financial function With consolidation, infrastructure continues to without further deregulation, and diversification of the any major disruption. globalization, financial system, the banking business may become more complex and riskier. Issues like risk and liquidity management and enhancing skill. therefore assume greater significance. 24. According to the passage, the financial markets in the emerging market e00nomies including India had the adverse impact in recent years due to. 1. weak global economic prospects. 2. uncertainties in the international financial markets. 3. sovereign risk concerns in the Euro area. 4. bad monsoons and the resultant crop loss. Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 25. The Indian financial markets are affected by global changes mainly due to the (21) increased inflow of remittances from abroad. (b) enormous increase in the foreign exchange reserves. (c) growing' global linkages and integration of the Indian financial markets. ' (d) contagion of Greece’s sovereign debt problem. 26. According to the passage, in the Indian financial system, banks’ - ability to withstand stress is critical to ensure overall financial stability because Indian financial system is (a) controlled by the Government of India. (b) less integrated with banks. (c) controlled by Reserve Bank of India. (d) dominated by banks. Risk and liquidity management assumes more importance in the Indian banking system in future due to 1. further globalization. 2. more consolidation and deregulation of the financial system. 3. further diversification of the financial system. 4. more financial inclusion in the economy. Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) l, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 3 and 4 only There are five hobby clubs in a college viz., photography, yachting, chess, electronics and gardening. The gardening group meets every second day, the electronics group meets every third day, the chess group meets every fourth day, the yachting group meets every fifth day and the photography group meets every sixth day. How‘ many times do all the five groups meet on the same day within 180 days ? (a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 10 (d) 18 A, B, C, D and E belong to five different cities P, Q, R, S and T (not necessarily in that order). Each one of them comes from a different city. Further it is given that : 1. B and C do not belong to Q. 2. B and E do not belong to P and R. 3. A and C do not belong to R, S and T. 4. D and E do not belong to Q and T. Which one of the following statements is not correct '? (a) C belongs to P (b) D belongs to R (c) A belongs to Q (d) belongs to S Seven men, A, B, C, D, E, F and G are standing in a queue in that order. Each one is wearing a cap of a different colour like violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange and red. D is able to see in front of him green and blue, but not violet. E can see violet and yellow, but not red. G can see caps of all colours other than orange. If E is wearing an indigo coloured cap, then the colour of the cap worn by F is (a) Blue (b) Violet (c) Red (d) Orange There are some balls of red, green and yellow colour lying on a table. There are as many red balls as there are yellow balls. There are twice as many yellow balls as there are green ones. The number of red balls (a) is equal to the sum of yellow and green balls. (1)) (c) is double the number of green balls. is equal to yellow balls minus green balls. (d) cannot be ascertained. Directions for the following 2 (two) items r: 32. (lS—Al Read the following passage and answer the two items that follow. Ybur answers to these items should be based on the passage only. ' Passage Crude mineral oil comes out of the earth as a thick brown or black liquid with a strong smell. It is a complex mixture of many different substances, each with its own individual qualities. Most of them are combinations of hydrogen and carbon in varying proportions. Such hydrocarbons are also found in other forms such as bitumen, asphalt and natural gas. Mineral oil originates from the carcasses of tiny animals and from plants that live in the sea. Over millions of years, these dead creatures form large deposits under the sea-bed; and ocean currents cover them with a blanket of sand and silt. As this mineral hardens, it becomes sedimentary rock and effectively shuts out the oxygen, so preventing the complete decomposition of the marine deposits underneath. The layers of sedimentary rock become thicker and heavier. Their pressure produces heat, which transforms the tiny carcasses into crude oil in a process that is still going on today. Mineral oil deposits under the sea do not get completely decomposed because they (a) are constantly washed by the ocean currents. 0)) become rock and prevent oxygen from entering them. (0) contain a mixture of hydrogen and carbon. ((1) are carcasses of organisms lying in saline conditions. Sedimentary rock leads to the formation of oil deposits because (a) there are no saline conditions below it. (b) it allows some dissolved oxygen to enter the dead organic.matter below it. (0) weight of overlying sediment layers causes the production of heat. (d) it contains the substances that catalyze the chemical reactions required to change dead organisms into oil. In a class of 45 students, a boy is ranked 20th. When two boys joined, his rank was dropped by one. What is his new rank from the end ? (a) 25th (b) 26th (a) 28th A thief running at 8 km/hr is chased by a policeman whose speed is 10 kmfhr. If the thief is 100 m ahead of the policeman, then the time required for the policeman to catch the thief will be (a) 2 min (b) (c) (d) A train travels at a certain average speed for a distance of 63 km and then travels a distance of 72 km at an average speed of 6 km/hr more than its Original speed. If it takes 3 hours to complete the total journey, what is the original speed of the train in kin/hr ? (a) 24 (b) 33 (c) 42 (d) 66 3 min 4 min 6 min Directions for the following 7 (seven) items : Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only. Passage — 1 The law in many parts of the world increasingly restricts the discharge of agricultural slurry into watercourses. The simplest and often the most economically sound practice returns the material to the land as semisolid manure or as sprayed slurry. This dilutes its concentration in the environment to What might have occurred in a more primitive and sustainable type of agriculture and converts pollutant into fertilizer. Soil microorganisms decompose the organic components of sewage and slurry and most of the mineral nutrients become available to be absorbed again by the vegetation . The excess input of' nutrients, both nitrogen and phosphorus — based, from agricultural runofi" (and human sewage) has caused many ‘healthy’ oligotrophic lakes (low nutrient concentrations, low plant productivity with abundant water weeds, and clear water) to change to eutrophic condition where high nutrient lead to productivity (sometimes dominated by inputs high phytoplankton bloom-forming toxic species). This makes 1. What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha? (a) The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommen- dations of the Rajya Sabha (b) The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill further (0} The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration {d} The President may call a joint sitting for passing the Bill 2. Which one of the statements is cdrrect? following (a) In India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more States at the same time (b) The Judges of the High Court of the States in India are appointed by the Governor of the State just as the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President (c) No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from his/ her post (at) In the case of a Union Territory having a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support 3. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched? (a) (b) (C) (d) Geographical Region Feature Abyssinian Plateau : Arabia Atlas Mountains : North-Western Africa Guiana Highlands : South-Western Africa Okavango Basin : Patagonia 4. With reference to the history of Indian rock-cut architecture, consider the following statements : 1. The caves at Badami are the oldest surviving rock-cut caves in India. The Barabar rock-cut caves were originally made for Ajivikas by Emperor Chandragupta Maurya. At Ellora, caves were made for different faiths. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? (a) (b) (C) (d) 1 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2and 3 5. Recombinant DNA technology {Genetic Engineering) allows genes to be transferred 1. across different species of ' plants 2. from animals to plants 3. from microorganisms to higher organisms Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (£1) 1, 2 and 3 6. The Chinese traveller Yuan Chwang [Hiuen Tsang) who visited India recorded the general conditions and culture of India at that time. In this context, which of the following statements is / are Correct? 1. The roads and river-routes were completely immune from robbery. 2. As regards punishment for offences, ordeals by fire, water and poison were the instruments for determining the innocence or guilt of a person. 3. The tradesmen had to pay duties at ferries and barrier stations. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1 only (19) 2 and 3 only (0) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 7. Consider the following : 1. Star tortoise 2. Monitor lizard 3. Pygmy hog 4. Spider monkey Which of the above are naturally - found in India? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 8. Which of the following can be found as pollutants in the drinking water in some parts of India? 1 . Arsenic Sorbitol Fluoride Formaldehyde Uranium Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2, 4 and 5 only (c) 1, 3 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4- and 5 9. With reference to Indian History, the Members of the Constituent Assembly from the Provinces were (or) directly elected by the people of those Provinces (b) nominated by the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League (c) elected by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies (6!) selected by the Government for their expertise in constitutional matters 10. Consider the following animals : 1. Sea cow 2. ‘ Sea horse 3. Sea lion Which of the above is/are mammal / mammals? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only 13_ (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 11. Consider the following statements : 1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only. 2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (0} Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 14- 12. Consider the following statements : Attorney General of India can 1. take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha 2. be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha 3. speak in the Lok Sabha 4. vote in the Lok Sabha Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only With reference to the usefulness of the by-products of sugar industry, which of the following statements is /are correct? 1. Bagasse can be used as biomass fuel for the generation of energy. 2. Molasses can be used as one of the feedstocks for the production of synthetic chemical fertilizers. 3. Molasses can be used for the production of ethanol. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only {c} 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Variations in the length of daytime and nighttime from season to season are due to (a) (b) the earth’s rotation on its axis the earth’s revolution round the sun in an elliptical manner {c} latitudinal position of the place revolution of the earth on a tilted axis 15. The Narmada river flows to the west, while most other large peninsular rivers flow to the east. Why? 1. It occupies a linear rift valley. 2. It flows between the Vindhyas and the Satpuras. 3. The land slopes to the west from Central India. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (:1) None 16. On the planet earth, most of the freshwater exists as ice caps and glaciers. Out of the remaining freshwater, the largest proportion (a) is found in atmosphere as moisture and clouds (b) is found in freshwater lakes and rivers (0) exists as groundwater {d} exists as soil moisture 17. Consider the following pairs : l. Nokrek Bio- sphere Reserve : Garo Hills 2. Logtak (Loktak) Lake : Barail Range 3. Namdapha National Park : Dafla Hills Which of the above correctly matched? pairs is / are (a) 1 only {b} 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None 19. Which 18. Consider the following : 1. Electromagnetic radiation Geothermal energy Gravitational force Plate movements Rotation of the earth Revolution of the earth Which of the above are responsible for bringing dynamic changes on the surface of the earth? (a) l, 2, 3 and 4 only (12) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only (0) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution? 1. National Development Council 2. Planning Commission 3. Zonal Councils Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only {c} 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and3 20. The demand for the Tebhaga Peasant Movement in Bengal was for (a) the reduction of the share of the landlords from one—half of the crop to one—third (b) the grant of ownership of land to peasants as they were the actual cultivators of the land (0) the uprooting of Zamindari system and the end of serfdom (d) writing off all peasant debts 21. The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties (a) with the consent of all the States (b) with the consent of the majority of States (c) with the consent of the States concerned (d) without the consent of any State 22. In the grasslands, trees do not replace the grasses as a part of an ecological succession because of (a) insects and fungi (b) limited sunlight and paucity of nutrients (c) water limits and fire (at) None of the above 23. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of ecosystems in the order of decreasing productivity? (a) Oceans, lakes, grasslands, mangroves (b) Mangroves, oceans, grasslands, lakes (0} Mangroves, grasslands, lakes, OCCEIIS {d} Oceans, grasslands mangroves, lakes, 24. Contour bunding is a method of soil conservation used in (a) (b) (C) (d) 25. The desert margins, liable to strong wind action I low flat plains, close to stream courses, liable to flooding scrublands, liable to spread of weed growth None of the above Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas {PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective? (a) (b) (C) (d) To provide self-governance To recognize traditional rights To create autonomous regions in tribal areas To free tribal exploitation people from 26. Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers [Recognition of Forest Rights} Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both? (a) State Forest Department {b} District Collector/ Deputy Commissioner (0) Tahsildar/Block Development OfficerfMandal Revenue Officer (C!) Gram Sabha 27. Improper handling and storage of cereal grains and oilseeds result in the production of toxins known as aflatoxins which are not generally destroyed by normal cooking process. Aflatoxins are produced by (a) bacteria (b) protozoa (c) moulds (d) viruses 28. ‘Economic Justice’ as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been provided in (a) the Preamble and the Fundamental Rights (b) the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy (c) the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy (61) None of the above 12 29. Due to improper/indiscriminate disposal of old and used computers or their parts, which of the following are released into the environment as e-waste? 1 . Beryllium Cadmium Chromium Heptachlor Mercury Lead Plutonium Select the correct answer using the codes given below. {a} 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only (b) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 only (c) 2, 4, 5 and 7 only (d) 1, 2, s, 4, 5, 6 and 7 30. Acid rain is caused by the pollution of environment by (a) carbon dioxide and nitrogen (b) carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide (c) ozone and carbon dioxide ((1) nitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide With reference to food chains in ecosystems, consider the following statements : 1. A food chain illustrates the order in which a chain of organisms feed upon each other. 2. Food chains are found within the populations of a species. 3. A food chain illustrates the numbers of each organism which are eaten by others. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (61) None 32. Consider the following pairs : National Park River flowing through the Park 1. Corbett National Park : Ganga 2. Kaziranga National Park : Manas 3. Silent Valley National Park : Kaveri Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 3 (a) N0ne 33. Consider the following organisms : 1. Agaricus 2. Nostoc 3. Spirogyra Which of the above is/are used as biofertilizer/biofertilizers? (a) land 2 (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only 34. Which of the following adds/add nitrogen to the soil? 1. Excretion of urea by animals 2. Burning of coal by man 3. Death of vegetation Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (0) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 35. In which of the following States is 14 lion-tailed macaque found in its natural habitat? 1. Tamil Nadu 2. Kerala 3. Karnataka 4. Andhra Pradesh Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only (0) 1, 3 and 4 only (at) 1, 2, 3 and 4 36. Some Buddhist rock-cut caves are called Chaityas, While the others are called Viharas. What is the difference between the two? (a) Vihara is a place of worship, while Chaitya is the dwelling place of the monks (b) Chaitya is a place of worship, while Vihara is the dwelling place of the monks (c) Chaitya is the stupa at the far end of the cave, while Vihara is the hall axial to it (d) There is no material difference between the two 37. Which one of the following describes best the concept of Nirvana in Buddhism? (a) The extinction of the flame of desire (b) The complete annihilation of self (0) A state of bliss and rest (at) A mental stage beyond all comprehension 38. According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country? (a) Fundamental Rights (11 Fundamental Duties(c) Directive Principles of State Policy (d) Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties 16 39. The people of India agitated against the arrival of Simon Commission because (a) Indians never wanted the review of the working of the Act of 1919 (b) Simon Commission recom- mended the abolition of Dyarchy [Diarchy] in the Provinces (c) there was no Indian member in the Simon Commission (0!) the Simon Commission suggested the partition of the country 40. Quit India Movement was launched in response to (a) Cabinet Mission Plan {b} Cripps Proposals (0) Simon Commission Report (d) Wavell Plan 41. The balance of payments of a country is a systematic record of (a) all import and export transactions of a country during a given period of time, normally a year (1)) goods exported from a country during a year (c) economic transaction between the government of one country to another (d) capital movements from one country to another 42. The Reserve Bank of India regulates the commercial banks in matters of 1. liquidity of assets 2 branch expansion 3. merger of banks 4 winding-u p of banks Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (0) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 43. An increase in the Bank Rate generally indicates that the (a) market rate of interest is likely to fall (b) Central Bank is no longer making loans to commerciaI banks (c) Central Bank is following an easy money policy (d) Central Bank is following a tight money policy 44. In India, deficit financing is used for raising resources for (at) economic development (b) redemption of public debt (0) adjusting the balance of payments ((1) reducing the foreign debt 18 45. Which of the following characterizes / characterize the people of Indus Civilization? 1. They possessed great palaces and temples. 2. They worshipped both male and female deities. 3. They employed horse-drawn chariots in warfare. Select the correct statement] statements using the codes given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (19} 2 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None of the statements given above is correct 46. Which of the following diseases can be transmitted from one person to another through tattooing? 1. Chikungunya 2. Hepatitis B 3. HIV AIDS Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 47. Which of the following statements is/ are applicable to Jain doctrine? 1. The surest way of annihilating Karma is to practice penance. 2. Every object, even the smallest particle has a soul. 3. Karma is the bane of the soul and must be ended. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. {a} 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d)1,23nd3 48. Which one of the following terms describes not only the physical space occupied by an organism, but also its functional role in the community of organisms? (a) Ecotone (b) Ecological niche (0) Habitat ((1') Home range 20 49. Photochemical smog is a resultant of the reaction among (a) (b) (C) N02, 03 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight CO, 02 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight CO, 002 and N02 at low temperature high concentration of N02, 03 and CO in the evening 50. Consider the following minerals : 1. 2. 3. Calcium Iron Sodium Which of the minerals given above is /are required by human body for the contraction of muscles? (a) (b) (C) (d) 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1I 2and Contact Details: Union Public Service Commission UPSC, Man Singh Road Area, New Delhi, Delhi 110069 India Map Location: [MAP]https://www.google.co.in/maps?q=`+Public+Service+Commision,+UPSC,+Man+Singh +Road+Area,+New+Delhi,+Delhi&hl=en&ll=28.608656,77 .227728&spn=0.009513,0.013046&sll=23.814107,86.441 138&sspn=0.009914,0.013046&oq=`+Pu&t=m&z=16&iwloc= A[/MAP] |
