2023 2024 Student Forum > Management Forum > Main Forum

 
  #2  
19th December 2015, 04:18 PM
Unregistered
Guest
 
IISER Science Aptitude Test ISAT

Hello, I want to give the IISER science aptitude test of ISAT and I want to some of the aptitude test papers.
  #3  
19th December 2015, 04:36 PM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Apr 2013
Re: IISER Science Aptitude Test ISAT

Hello, here I am providing you some of the questions of the aptitude asked in the previous years of the ISAT paper as under:

The number of integer values of k for which the equation 7cosΘ + 5sinΘ = 2k + 1 has real solutions is:
A. 6.
B. 8.
C. 10.
D. 12.

How many 2 x 2 matrices A satisfy both A3 = I2 and A2 = At, where h denotes the 2 x 2 identity matrix and At denotes the transpose of A?
A. O.
B. I
C. 2
D. 3

Let C be the circle that touches the X-axis and whose centre coincides with the circumcentre of the triangle defined by 4|x|+ 3y = 12; y≥ 0. How many points with both co-ordinates integers are there in the interior of C?

A. O
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3

Let f : R → R be a function such that f(x + y)+ f(x – y)= f(xy) for all x,y ∈ R. Then f is:
A. Strictly increasing.
B. Strictly decreasing.
C. Identically zero.
D. Constant but not necessarily zero.

Physics


A body cools from 67°C to 37°C. If this takes time t when the surrounding temperature is 27°C, what will be the time taken if the surrounding temperature is 7°C?
A. 2t
B. t/3
C. t/2
D. t/4

Three rods (lengths 2l, l, l) made of the same material and having the same area of cross-section are joined as shown in figure. The end points A, B and C are maintained at constant temperatures 100°C, 50°C and 0°C, respectively. Assuming that there is no loss of heat from the surface of the rods, find the temperature that the junction P ultimately reaches.
A. 50°C
B. 40°C
C. 30°C
D. 20°C

A bar magnet of mass m is suspended from the ceiling with a massless string and is set into oscillations. A gold metal plate is brought close to the oscillating pendulum. The oscillations will damp due to induction of eddy currents in the metal. Which one of the following statements is true if the gold plate is replaced by a steel plate having the same physical dimensions. (Of the two, note that gold is a better conductor of electricity.)

A. the amplitude of oscillations will decrease faster
B. the amplitude of oscillations will decrease slower
C. the amplitude of oscillations will increase
D. the amplitude of oscillations will not be affected

A charged particle is moving away from a uniformly charged infinite wire along a direction perpendicular to it. Initially, the particle is at a distance L from the wire moving with a velocity U. When it is at a distance 2L, its velocity is found to be 2u. What will be the velocity of the particle when it is at a distance 4L from the wire ?
A. √6 u
B. √7 u
C. √8 u
D. √9 u

A steel wire of length 1 meter is under a tension of 10 newtons. The speed of the transverse wave excited in this wire is v. The wire is replaced by another steel wire of the same length but half the diameter. What should be the tension in the replaced wire, so that, the speed of the wave stays the same?
A. 40 N
B. 20N
C. 5 N
D. 2.5N

Consider the circuit shown in the figure. in which resistor the amount of power dissipated is the largest?
A. R1
B. R2
C. R3
D. R4

A biconvex lens with focal length f in air and refractive index of 1.5 is floating on the surface of a deep pond of water (refractive index 1.33). If an object is placed at a height of 2f vertically above the lens, then the distance between the lens and the image is

A. f
B. 2f
C. less than 2f
D. greater than 2f

1. If an interphase cell is treated with cyanide (a metabolic poison), the cell does not divide by
mitosis. However, if cyanide is added right after mitosis has started, the same cell completes
mitosis. Which of the following explains this observation?
A. Metabolic activity ceases during mitosis
B. Cell division does not require metabolic activity
C. Energy required for mitosis is produced and stored in the cell during interphase
D. Mitotic cells make factors that make them resistant to cyanide
2. The symplast pathway is most easily disrupted when
A. Water transport channels in the plasma membrane of the root hair cells malfunction
B. Water transport channels in the plasma membrane of the root cortex malfunction
C. Water transport channels in the plasma membrane of the root endodermis malfunction
D. Water transport channels in the plasma membrane of the guard cells malfunction
3. Paleontological studies use fossil pollen because
A. Pollen retains viability for long periods of time unlike male gametes in animals
B. The intine of pollen is very hard and stable and can be used in rescuing plant populations on
a decline
C. The exine of pollen retains its structure for long periods of time
D. Soil pollen banks, unlike soil seed banks, stay dormant for long periods of time
4. Which of the following is not an assumption of the Hardy-Weinberg principle?
A. Mating is random in the population
B. There are no mutations
C. All individuals have an equal opportunity to survive and reproduce
D. Immigration and emigration occurs in the population
5. The lens of many vertebrate eyes is a crystallized form of a protein that also functions in digestion
as a metabolic enzyme. This shows that
A. Vision and digestion co-evolved
B. Digestion necessarily evolved prior to vision since it is a more basic function
C. Evolution in opportunistic
D. Vision and digestion evolved around the same time
6. On which segment of the human chromosome is the enzyme Reverse Transcriptase located?
A. Centromere
B. Telomere
C. Kinetochore

D. Satellite
7. Muscle X and muscle Y are of the same size, but muscle X is capable of much finer control than
muscle Y. Which of the following is likely to be true of muscle X?
A. It is controlled by more neurons than muscle Y
B. It contains fewer motor units than muscle Y
C. It is controlled by fewer neurons than muscle Y
D. Each of its motor units consists of more cells than the motor units of muscle Y
8. A National Park associated with rhinoceros is
A. Kaziranga
B. Corbett
C. Ranthambore
D. Valley of Flowers
9. During HIV infection
A. Number of helper T-lymphocytes increase
B. Number of helper T-lymphocytes decrease
C. Number of red blood cells increase
D. Number of red blood cells decrease
10. If the blood groups of the father and mother are AB and B respectively, then which one of the
following statements is true with respect to their children’s blood group?
A. Blood group is either A or B
B. Blood group is either B or AB
C. Blood group is AB only
D. Blood group can be A or B or AB
11. The sequence of DNA is 5’-ATGGTTCCATC-3’. What is the sequence of the complimentary
RNA strand?
A. 5’-TACCAAGGTAG-3’
B. 3’-TACCAAGGTAG-5’
C. 3’-UACCAAGGUAG-5’
D. 5’-UACCAAGGUAG-3’
12. Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to Biochemical Oxygen Demand
(BOD)?
A. Secondary treatment of euent decreases the BOD
B. Secondary treatment of euent increases the BOD
C. Secondary treatment of euent does not change the BOD
D. Secondary treatment of euent first increases and then decreases the BOD

13. Which of the following is a general nature of plant-pollinator interactions?
A. Tight one to one co-evolutionary partnership
B. A plant species is pollinated by a few pollinator species
C. Plants rely on deceit to achieve pollination by pollinator species
D. Most pollinators benefit the plant by providing pollinator services, but disadvantage the plant
at the same time by laying eggs into the flower and thereby negatively a ects fruit formation
14. Sickle cell anemia is a disease resulting from altered haemoglobin structure. This alteration is
because of the replacement of a glutamic acid with valine. Indentify the protein structure level
where this change has been made
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Quaternary
15. Which of the following life history adaptations is least likely when predation pressure, on a
fish species that grows in size continuously throughout its lifespan, is concentrated on the larger
individuals
A. Allocate more resources preferentially to early reproduction than to growth
B. Allocate more resources preferentially to growth than to early reproduction
C. Sexual maturity at an early age
D. Produce more o spring in very few reproductive seasons

Chemistry
16. What is the potential of a cell containing two hydrogen electrodes, in which the anode is in
contact with 10

Here I am providing you some more papers as under:
Attached Files
File Type: pdf ISAT model papers.pdf (178.7 KB, 141 views)
  #4  
14th June 2018, 09:48 AM
Unregistered
Guest
 
Re: IISER Science Aptitude Test ISAT

Can you tell me if I have to clear IIST Admission Test (ISAT) exam to get admission in IISER (Indian Institute of Science Education and Research), Mohali?
  #5  
14th June 2018, 09:49 AM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Aug 2012
Re: IISER Science Aptitude Test ISAT

IISER is one of the famous Institution of India which offers education in the field of science & research. In India, there are seven IISER Institutions located in Pune, Bhopal, Kolkata, Mohali, Thiruvananthapuram, Tirupati & Berhampur.

IIST Admission Test (ISAT) exam is now replaced with JEE (Main). Admission in IISER (Indian Institute of Science Education and Research), Mohali is based on an IISER entrance exam, KVPY exam (Kishor Vaigyanik Protsahan Yojana) & JEE Advanced exam.

IISER 2018 Exam Date

SCB Streams:


Releasing of First Advertisement 6th April 2018
Releasing of Second Advertisement May 2018
Online Application Starts 24th May 2018
Application Closed 12th June 2018 (12:00 Noon)
Hall Ticket Download 18th June 2018
IISER Aptitude Test 24th June 2018
Result Declaration 3rd July 2018
Submission of SAF for first round of allotment begins 4th July 2018
Last Date for submission of SAF for final round of allotment begins 21st July 2018

KVPY & JEE Advanced Streams:

KVPY
Application Starts 21st May 2018
Application Closed 8th June 2018 (12:00 Noon)
Result Announced KVPY Allotment 13th June 2018
Submission of SAF begins 14th June 2018
Last Date for submission of SAF 19th June 2018

JEE Advanced
Application Starts 11th June 2018 (9:00 AM)
Application Closed 21st June 2018 (12:00 Noon)
Result Announced (1st round allotment) 25th June 2018
Submission of SAF begins 26th June 2018
Last Date for submission of SAF 30th June 2018

Eligibility Criteria 2018

Indian National, PIO & OCI candidates are eligible to apply.

SCB Streams:
Qualifying Exam: One must pass 10+2 examination with science stream in 2017 or 2018.
Minimum Marks: One has to secure marks equal or above the cut-off percentage in their respective boards.
Relaxation: There is 5% relaxation in qualifying marks for the OBC-NC & PwD category.
Cut-Off Percentage: For SC/ST/KM category candidates, the cut-off percentage marks are 55% in 10+2 level for all boards.
One applying through SCB channel will have to appear in the IISER Aptitude Test.

KVPY Stream:
Qualifying Exam: One has a valid KVPY scholarship commencing from 2018-2019 session.
Additional cut-off criteria may be applicable.

JEE Advanced Stream:
Qualifying Exam: One must qualify the JEE Advanced exam & secure a rank within 10000 in CRL (Common Rank List).
Relaxation: For OBC-NC/SC/ST/PwD category, their category rank should be within 10000.


Quick Reply
Your Username: Click here to log in

Message:
Options

Thread Tools Search this Thread



All times are GMT +5. The time now is 08:28 PM.


Powered by vBulletin® Version 3.8.11
Copyright ©2000 - 2024, vBulletin Solutions Inc.
SEO by vBSEO 3.6.0 PL2

1 2 3 4