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  #2  
26th November 2014, 12:51 PM
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Join Date: Apr 2013
Re: IISER aptitude test question paper

Ok, as you want the question paper of IISER aptitude test so here I am providing you

IISER aptitude test question paper

Biology

1. If an interphase cell is treated with cyanide (a metabolic poison), the cell does not divide by mitosis. However, if cyanide is added right after mitosis has started, the same cell completes mitosis. Which of’ the following explains this observation?
A. Metabolic activity ceases during mitosis
B. Cell division does not require metabolic activity
C. Energy required for mitosis is produced and stored in the cell during interphase
D. Mitotic cells make factors that make them resistant to cyanide

2. The symplast pathway is most easily disrupted when
A. Water transport channels in the plasma membrane of the root hair cells malfunction
B. Water transport channels in the plasma membrane of the root cortex malfunction
C. Water transport channels in the plasma membrane of the root endodermis malfunction
D. Water transport channels in the plasma membrane of the guard cells malfunction

3. Paleontological studies use fossil pollen because
A. Pollen retains viability for long periods of time unlike male gametes in animals
B. The intine of pollen is very hard and stable and can be used in rescuing plant populations on a decline
C. The exine of pollen retains its structure for long periods of time
D. Soil pollen banks, unlike soil seed banks, stay dormant for long periods of time

4. Which of the following is not an assumption of the Hardy-Weinberg principle?
A. Mating is random in the population
B. There are no mutations
C. All individuals have an equal opportunity to survive and reproduce
D. Immigration and emigration occurs in the population

5. The lens of many vertebrate eyes is a crystallized fonn of a protein that also functions in digestion as a metabolic enzyme. This shows that
A. Vision and digestion co-evolved
B. Digestion necessarily evolved prior to vision since it is a more basic function
C. Evolution in opportunistic
D. Vision and digestion evolved around the same time

Chemistry
6. What is the potential of a cell containing two hydrogen electrodes, in which the anode is in contact with 10-5M HCl and the cathode is in contact with 1000 times the concentration of HCl as that of the anode?
A. 0.36 V.
B. 0.18 V.
C. -0.36 V.
D. -0.18 V.

7. Phosphorus pentoxide, P4O10, has each phosphorus linked to:
A. 5 oxygen atoms with P – P bonds.
B. 5 oxygen atoms.
C. 4 oxygen atoms with P – P bonds.
D. 4 oxygen atoms.

8. The radius of an atom of He is 0.05 nm. Assuming that one mole of a gas occupies 22.4 litres at STP, the fraction of the volume occupied by the atoms in a mole of He gas at STP is:
A. 1.4 x 10-4 .
B. 1.4 x 10-5
C. 7.1 x 10-4
D. 7.1 X 10-5

9. The number of degenerate orbitals present in an energy level of a H-atom characterized by E = -R/16 where R is the Rydberg constant is:
A. 16.
B. 9.
C. 4.
D. I.

10. Formation of ammonia in Haber’s process, N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3 (ΔH = -ve) can be increased by:
A. increase in temperature and pressure.
B. increase in temperature.
C. increase in the concentration of ammonia.
D. increase in pressure.

Mathematics

11. The number of integer values of k for which the equation 7cosΘ + 5sinΘ = 2k + 1 has real solutions is:
A. 6.
B. 8.
C. 10.
D. 12.

12. How many 2 x 2 matrices A satisfy both A3 = I2 and A2 = At, where h denotes the 2 x 2 identity matrix and At denotes the transpose of A?
A. O.
B. I
C. 2
D. 3

13. Let C be the circle that touches the X-axis and whose centre coincides with the circumcentre of the triangle defined by 4|x|+ 3y = 12; y≥ 0. How many points with both co-ordinates integers are there in the interior of C?

A. O
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3

14. Let f : R → R be a function such that f(x + y)+ f(x – y)= f(xy) for all x,y ∈ R. Then f is:
A. Strictly increasing.
B. Strictly decreasing.
C. Identically zero.
D. Constant but not necessarily zero.

Physics

15. A body cools from 67°C to 37°C. If this takes time t when the surrounding temperature is 27°C, what will be the time taken if the surrounding temperature is 7°C?
A. 2t
B. t/3
C. t/2
D. t/4

16. Three rods (lengths 2l, l, l) made of the same material and having the same area of cross-section are joined as shown in figure. The end points A, B and C are maintained at constant temperatures 100°C, 50°C and 0°C, respectively. Assuming that there is no loss of heat from the surface of the rods, find the temperature that the junction P ultimately reaches.
A. 50°C
B. 40°C
C. 30°C
D. 20°C

17. A bar magnet of mass m is suspended from the ceiling with a massless string and is set into oscillations. A gold metal plate is brought close to the oscillating pendulum. The oscillations will damp due to induction of eddy currents in the metal. Which one of the following statements is true if the gold plate is replaced by a steel plate having the same physical dimensions. (Of the two, note that gold is a better conductor of electricity.)

A. the amplitude of oscillations will decrease faster
B. the amplitude of oscillations will decrease slower
C. the amplitude of oscillations will increase
D. the amplitude of oscillations will not be affected

18. A charged particle is moving away from a uniformly charged infinite wire along a direction perpendicular to it. Initially, the particle is at a distance L from the wire moving with a velocity U. When it is at a distance 2L, its velocity is found to be 2u. What will be the velocity of the particle when it is at a distance 4L from the wire ?
A. √6 u
B. √7 u
C. √8 u
D. √9 u

19. A steel wire of length 1 meter is under a tension of 10 newtons. The speed of the transverse wave excited in this wire is v. The wire is replaced by another steel wire of the same length but half the diameter. What should be the tension in the replaced wire, so that, the speed of the wave stays the same?
A. 40 N
B. 20N
C. 5 N
D. 2.5N

20. Consider the circuit shown in the figure. In which resistor the amount of power dissipated is the largest?
A. R1
B. R2
C. R3
D. R4

21. A biconvex lens with focal length f in air and refractive index of 1.5 is floating on the surface of a deep pond of water (refractive index 1.33). If an object is placed at a height of 2f vertically above the lens, then the distance between the lens and the image is

A. f
B. 2f
C. less than 2f
D. greater than 2f
  #3  
21st February 2015, 05:00 PM
Unregistered
Guest
 
IISER Aptitude Test Question Paper

I want to get IISER aptitude test question paper for doing preparation so will you please provide me that question paper ?
  #4  
22nd February 2015, 09:44 AM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Apr 2013
Re: IISER Aptitude Test Question Paper

As you want to get IISER aptitude test question paper for doing preparation so here I am giving you some questions of that paper:

A proton of mass 1 a.m.u. collides with a Carbon-12 nucleus (mass = 12 a.m.u.) at rest. Assuming that the collision is perfectly elastic and that the Newton’s laws of motion hold, what fraction of the proton’s kinetic energy is transferred to the Carbon nucleus?

A pendulum is made of a rigid rod (mass m, length l) and a small bob of mass M attached at one end (as shown in the figure). The rod is pivoted on the other end. What should be the minimum speed of the bob at its lowest point so that the pendulum completes a full circle?

A physical quantity f depends on the dimensionful quantities x and y as follows: f = A x + B exp (c y) :

A bar magnet of mass m is suspended from the ceiling with a massless string and is set into oscillations. A gold metal plate is brought close to the oscillating pendulum. The oscillations will damp due to induction of eddy currents in the metal. Which one of the following statements is true if the gold plate is replaced by a steel plate having the same physical dimensions. (Of the two, note that gold is a better conductor of electricity.)
A. the amplitude of oscillations will decrease faster
B. the amplitude of oscillations will decrease slower
C. the amplitude of oscillations will increase
D. the amplitude of oscillations will not be a
ected

A steel wire of length 1 meter is under a tension of 10 newtons. The speed of the transverse wave excited in this wire is v. The wire is replaced by another steel wire of the same length but half the diameter. What should be the tension in the replaced wire, so that, the speed of the wave stays the same?
A. 40 N
B. 20 N
C. 5 N
D. 2:5 N

IISER Aptitude Test Question Paper




Last edited by Raman Vij; 22nd February 2015 at 10:03 AM.
  #5  
12th June 2015, 08:14 AM
sagar.paprola@gmail.com
Guest
 

Hi I want the question paper of IISER aptitude test so will you provide me?
  #6  
10th June 2016, 04:02 PM
Unregistered
Guest
 
Re: IISER aptitude test question paper

hi I want the solutions of the model papers 1and 2 will u plz provide it to me
  #7  
13th June 2017, 06:38 AM
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Guest
 
Re: IISER aptitude test question paper

What is the type of medium of iiser aptitude test 2017
  #8  
13th June 2017, 06:40 AM
Piyush Khandelwal
Guest
 
Re: IISER aptitude test question paper

What is the type of medium of iiser aptitude test 2017? Hindi or english
  #9  
23rd September 2019, 08:35 AM
Unregistered
Guest
 
Re: IISER aptitude test question paper

Hi buddy here I have come to collect IISER aptitude test question paper to start its exam preparation so would you plz let me know from where I can collect it ??
  #10  
23rd September 2019, 08:49 AM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Aug 2012
Re: IISER aptitude test question paper

As you are asking for IISER aptitude test question paper , so on your demand I am providing same here:

Biology
1. If an interphase cell is treated with cyanide (a metabolic poison), the cell does not divide by mitosis. However, if cyanide is added right after mitosis has started, the same cell completes mitosis. Which of the following explains this observation?
A. Metabolic activity ceases during mitosis
B. Cell division does not require metabolic activity
C. Energy required for mitosis is produced and stored in the cell during interphase
D. Mitotic cells make factors that make them resistant to cyanide

2. The symplast pathway is most easily disrupted when
A. Water transport channels in the plasma membrane of the root hair cells malfunction
B. Water transport channels in the plasma membrane of the root cortex malfunction
C. Water transport channels in the plasma membrane of the root endodermis malfunction
D. Water transport channels in the plasma membrane of the guard cells malfunction

3. Paleontological studies use fossil pollen because
A. Pollen retains viability for long periods of time unlike male gametes in animals
B. The intine of pollen is very hard and stable and can be used in rescuing plant populations on a decline
C. The exine of pollen retains its structure for long periods of time
D. Soil pollen banks, unlike soil seed banks, stay dormant for long periods of time

4. Which of the following is not an assumption of the Hardy-Weinberg principle?
A. Mating is random in the population
B. There are no mutations
C. All individuals have an equal opportunity to survive and reproduce
D. Immigration and emigration occurs in the population

5. The lens of many vertebrate eyes is a crystallized fonn of a protein that also functions in digestion as a metabolic enzyme. This shows that
A. Vision and digestion co-evolved
B. Digestion necessarily evolved prior to vision since it is a more basic function
C. Evolution in opportunistic
D. Vision and digestion evolved around the same time

6. On which segment of the human chromosome is the enzyme Reverse Transcriptase located?
A. Centromere
B. Telomere
C. Kinetochore
D. Satellite

7. Muscle X and muscle Y are of the same size, but muscle X is capable of much finer control than
muscle Y. Which of the following is likely to be true of muscle X?
A. It is controlled by more neurons than muscle Y
B. It contains fewer motor units than muscle Y
C. It is controlled by fewer neurons than muscle Y
D. Each of its motor units consists of more cells than the motor units of muscle Y

8. A National Park associated with rhinoceros is
A. Kaziranga
B. Corbett
C. Ranthambore
D. Valley of Flowers

9. During HIV infection
A. Number of helper T-lymphocytes increase
B. Number of helper T-lymphocytes decrease
C. Number of red blood cells increase
D. Number of red blood cells decrease

10. If the blood groups of the father and mother are AB and B respectively, then which one of the following statements is true with respect to their childrens blood group?
A. Blood group is either A or B
B. Blood group is either B or AB
C. Blood group is AB only
D. Blood group can be A or B or AB

11. The sequence of DNA is 5-ATGGTTCCATC-3. What is the sequence of the complimentary RNA strand?
A. 5-TACCAAGGTAG-3
B. 3-TACCAAGGTAG-5
C. 3-UACCAAGGUAG-5
D. 5-UACCAAGGUAG-3

12. Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD)?
A. Secondary treatment of effluent decreases the BOD
B. Secondary treatment of effluent increases the BOD
C. Secondary treatment of effluent does not change the BOD
D. Secondary treatment of effluent first increases and then decreases the BOD

13. Which of the following is a general nature of plant-pollinator interactions?
A. Tight one to one co-evolutionary partnership
B. A plant species is pollinated by a few pollinator species
C. Plants rely on deceit to achieve pollination by pollinator species
D. Most pollinators benefit the plant by providing pollinator services, but disadvantage the plant at the same time by laying eggs into the flower and thereby negatively affects fruit formation

14. Sickle cell anemia is a disease resulting from altered haemoglobin structure. This alteration is
because of the replacement of a glutamic acid with valine. Indentify the protein structure level
where this change has been made
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Quaternary

15. Which of the following life history adaptations is least likely when predation pressure, on a fish species that grows in size continuously throughout its lifespan, is concentrated on the larger individuals
A. Allocate more resources preferentially to early reproduction than to growth
B. Allocate more resources preferentially to growth than to early reproduction
C. Sexual maturity at an early age
D. Produce more offspring in very few reproductive seasons

IISER aptitude test question paper




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