#1
2nd August 2014, 12:25 PM
| |||
| |||
HPCL recruitment test Model paper
I am looking for Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Ltd placement question paper, will you please provide here???
|
#2
2nd August 2014, 02:40 PM
| |||
| |||
Re: HPCL recruitment test Model paper
You are looking for Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Ltd placement question paper, i am giving here: 1. When the load line coincides with the centroid of the rivet group, the rivets are subjected to (A) shear only (B) tension only (C) bending only (D) shear as well as tension Ans: (A) 2. An ISMB 500 is used as a beam in a multistory construction. From the viewpoint of structural design, it can be considered to be ‘laterally restrained’ when (A) the tension flange is laterally restrained (B) the compression flange is laterally restrained (C) the web is adequately stiffened (D) the conditions in both (A) and (C) are met. Ans: (B) 3. Deflection limitations over beams are imposed because excessive deflection may cause (A) undesirable twisting and distortion of end connections (B) problems in drainage system (C) psychological effect on users (D) All of the above Ans: (D) 4. Purlins are to be chosen for a roof truss of 20 m spam, 4 m rise. Trusses are spaced at 4.5 m centre-to-centre. A most efficient design results from the use of (A) angle sections (B) channel sections (C) circular hollow sections (D) square hollow sections Ans: (B) 5. How is water stored in an aquifer? (A). in an open underground lake (B). in cracks and spaces in rocks (C). in impermeable rock (D). in wells and springs Ans:B 6. How do droplets become heavy enough so that the droplets fall as rain or snow? (A). The droplets gain mass from condensation within the clouds. (B). When evaporation occurs, extra water vapors forms into more droplets. (C). The droplets bump together and form larger droplets. (D). The hotter air allows the droplets to solidify and fall from the clouds. Ans:C 7. What causes water to rise out of the ground in hot springs? (A). Earth’s core heats the water, making the hotter water less dense. (B). A pump is used to bring water to Earth’s surface. (C. Gravity pulls water down through permeable materials. (D). A nearby volcano heats the water, making the hotter water less dense Ans 8. Mercury is a hazardous chemical. Which item does not contain mercury? (A) Computer disks (B) Blinking lights in sneakers (C) Fluorescent light bulbs (D) Thermometers Ans:A 9. Which items are recyclable? (A) Plastic milk jugs (B) Cereal boxes (C) Aluminum soda cans (D) All of the above Ans 10. How long does it take Styrofoam to break down in a landfill? (A) 10 Years (B) 50 Years (C) 100 Years (D) 500 Years Ans 11. Used oil should be disposed of by.. (A) Dumping it on your driveway (B) Watering it down and spreading it as a fertilizer (C) Collecting it in a sealed container and taking it to an oil changing business (D) Keeping in the garage for 10 years before throwing it away in the trash Ans:C 12. Fatigue strength of a rod subjected to cyclic axial force is less than that of a rotating beam of the same dimensions subjected to steady lateral force because (A) Axial stiffness is less than bending stiffness (B) Of absence of centrifugal effects in the rod (C) The number of discontinuities vulnerable to fatigue are more in the rod (D) At a particular time the rod has only one type of stress whereas the beam has both the tensile and compressive stresses Ans 13. A solid uniform metal bar of diameter D and length L is hanging vertically from its upper end. The elongation of the bar due to self weight is: (A) Proportional to L and inversely proportional to D2 (B) Proportional to L2 and inversely proportional to D2 (C) Proportional of L but independent of D (D) Proportional of U but independent of D Ans:A 14. If the value of Poisson's ratio is zero, then it means that [IES-1994] (A) The material is rigid. (B) The material is perfectly plastic. (C) There is no longitudinal strain in the material (D) The longitudinal strain in the material is infinite Ans:A 15. Lueder' lines on steel specimen under simple tension test is a direct indication of yielding of material due to slip along the plane [IAS-1997] (A) Of maximum principal stress (B) Off maximum shear (C) Of loading (D) Perpendicular to the direction of loading Ans:B 16. What is the cause of failure of a short MS strut under an axial load? [IAS-2007] (A) Fracture stress (B) Shear stress (C) Buckling (D) Yielding Ans 17. Torsion reinforcement provided at the corners of a two-way slab (A) distributes bending moment uniformly (B) prevents corners from lifting (C) controls cracking at corners (D) does not allow any twist at corners. Ans: (C) 18. If a two-way slab is found to be unsafe in shear, then the preferred remedy is (A) to provide shear stirrups (B) to increase the flexural reinforcement by 15% (C) to increase the thickness of the slab adequately (D) to increase the distribution reinforcement in edge strips Ans: (C) 19. According to the Indian Standard Specifications, concrete should be cured under a humidity of (A) 90% (B) 80% (C) 70% (D) 60% ANS: (A) 20. The radial splits which are wider on the outside of the log and narrower towards the pith are known as (A) star shakes (B) annular rings (C) cup shakes (D) heart shakes Ans: (A) 1. Which layer 1 devices can be used to enlarge the area covered by a single LAN segment? Switch NIC Hub Repeater RJ45 transceiver A.1 only B.1 and 3 C.3 and 4 D.5 only Answer: Option D Not that you really want to enlarge a single collision domain, but a hub (multiport repeater) will provide this for you. 2. Routers operate at layer _____. LAN switches operate at layer _____. Ethernet hubs operate at layer _____. Word processing operates at layer _____. A.3, 3, 1, 7 B.3, 2, 1, none C.3, 2, 1, 7 D.3, 3, 2, none Answer: Option E Explanation: Routers operate at layer 3. LAN switches operate at layer 2. Ethernet hubs operate at layer 1. Word processing applications communicate to the Application layer interface, but do not operate at layer 7, so the answer would be none. 3. Which of the following describe router functions? A.Packet switching B.Packet filtering C.Internetwork communication D.Path selection E.All of the above Answer: Option E Explanation: Routers provide packet switching, packet filtering, internetwork communication, and path selection. 4. Why does the data communication industry use the layered OSI reference model?It divides the network communication process into smaller and simpler components, thus aiding component development, design, and troubleshooting. It enables equipment from different vendors to use the same electronic components, thus saving research and development funds. It supports the evolution of multiple competing standards and thus provides business opportunities for equipment manufacturers. It encourages industry standardization by defining what functions occur at each layer of the model. A.1 only B.1 and 4 C.2 and 3 D.3 only Answer: Option A Explanation: The main advantage of a layered model is that it can allow application developers to change aspects of a program in just one layer of the layer model's specifications. Advantages of using the OSI layered model include, but are not limited to, the following: It divides the network communication process into smaller and simpler components, thus aiding compo- nent development, design, and troubleshooting; it allows multiple-vendor development through standardization of network components; it encourages industry standardization by defining what functions occur at each layer of the model; it allows various types of network hardware and software to communicate; and it prevents changes in one layer from affecting other layers, so it does not hamper development. 5. A receiving host has failed to receive all of the segments that it should acknowledge. What can the host do to improve the reliability of this communication session? A.Send a different source port number. B.Restart the virtual circuit. C.Decrease the sequence number. D.Decrease the window size. Answer: Option E Explanation: A receiving host can control the transmitter by using flow control (TCP uses Windowing by default). By decreasing the window size, the receiving host can slow down the transmitting host so the receiving host does not overflow its buffers. 7. What is the purpose of flow control? A.To ensure that data is retransmitted if an acknowledgment is not received. B.To reassemble segments in the correct order at the destination device. C.To provide a means for the receiver to govern the amount of data sent by the sender. D.To regulate the size of each segment. Answer: Option A Explanation: Flow control allows the receiving device to control the transmitter so the receiving device's buffer does not overflow. 8. Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network?There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node. Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.In a full-duplex environment, the host network card must check for the availability of the network media before transmitting. The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode. A.1, 2, and 5 B.2 and 4 C.2, 3 and 4 D.5 only Answer: Option D Explanation: Full-duplex means you are using both wire pairs simultaneously to send and receive data. You must have a dedicated switch port for each node, which means you will not have collisions. Both the host network card and the switch port must be capable and set to work in full-duplex mode. 9. Which of the following are types of flow control?Buffering Cut-through Windowing Congestion avoidance A.1 and 2 B.1, 3 and 4 C.2 only D.3 only The common types of flow control are buffering, windowing, and congestion avoidance. 10. What are two purposes for segmentation with a bridge?To add more broadcast domains. To create more collision domains. To add more bandwidth for users. To allow more broadcasts for users. A.1 only B.2 and 3 C.2 and 4 D.4 only Answer: Option C Explanation: Bridges break up collision domains, which allow more bandwidth for users. 11. How does a host on an Ethernet LAN know when to transmit after a collision has occurred?In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data simultaneously. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting.You can improve the CSMA/CD network by adding more hubs.After a collision, the station that detected the collision has first priority to resend the lost data. After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit data. A.1 and 3 B.2 and 4 C.1,3 and 4 D.2 and 5 Answer: Option C Explanation: Once transmitting stations on an Ethernet segment hear a collision, they send an extended jam signal to ensure that all stations recognize the collision. After the jamming is complete, each sender waits a predetermined amount of time, plus a random time. After both timers expire, they are free to transmit, but they must make sure the media is clear before transmitting and that they all have equal priority. 12. Which of the following types of connections can use full duplex? Hub to hub Switch to switch Host to host Switch to hub Switch to host A.1, 2 and 4 B.3 and 4 C.3 and 5 D.2, 3 and 5 Answer: Option A Explanation: Hubs cannot run full-duplex Ethernet. Full duplex must be used on a point-to-point connection between two devices capable of running full duplex. Switches and hosts can run full duplex between each other, but a hub can never run full duplex. 13. Acknowledgments, sequencing, and flow control are characteristics of which OSI layer? A.Layer 2 B.Layer 3 C.Layer 4 D.Layer 7 Answer: Option D Explanation: A reliable Transport layer connection uses acknowledgments to make sure all data is transmitted and received reliably. A reliable connection is defined by a virtual circuit that uses acknowledgments, sequencing, and flow control, which are characteristics of the Transport layer (layer 4). 14. Which fields are contained within an IEEE Ethernet frame header?Source and destination MAC address Source and destination network address Source and destination MAC address and source and destination network address FCS field A. 1 and 4 B.2 only C.2 and 3 only D. 3 only Answer: Option C Explanation: An Ethernet frame has source and destination MAC addresses, an Ether-Type field to identify the Network layer protocol, the data, and the FCS field that holds the answer to the CRC. 15. What type of RJ45 UTP cable do you use to connect a PC's COM port to a router or switch console port? A.Straight-through B.Crossover cable C.Crossover with a CSU/DSU D.Rolled Answer: Option B To connect to a router or switch console port, you would use an RJ45 UTP rolled cable. 16. How to implement a network medium that is not susceptible to EMI. Which type of cabling should you use? A.Thicknet coax B.Thinnet coax C.Category 5 UTP cable D.Fiber-optic cable Answer: Option D Explanation: Fiber-optic cable provides a more secure, long-distance cable that is not susceptible to EMI interference at high speeds. 17. Segmentation of a data stream happens at which layer of the OSI model? A.Physical B.Data Link C.Network D.Transport Answer: Option D Explanation: The Transport layer receives large data streams from the upper layers and breaks these up into smaller pieces called segments. 18. When data is encapsulated, which is the correct order? A.Data, frame, packet, segment, bit B.Segment, data, packet, frame, bit C.Data, segment, packet, frame, bit D.Data, segment, frame, packet, bit Answer: Option E Explanation: The encapsulation method is data, segment, packet, frame, bit. 19. Which of the following are unique characteristics of half-duplex Ethernet when compared to full-duplex Ethernet?Half-duplex Ethernet operates in a shared collision domain. Half-duplex Ethernet operates in a private collision domain. Half-duplex Ethernet has higher effective throughput. Half-duplex Ethernet has lower effective throughput. A.2 only B.1,2 and 3 C.1 and 4 D.4 only Answer: Option B Explanation: Unlike full duplex, half-duplex Ethernet operates in a shared collision domain, and it has a lower effective throughput than full duplex. 20. What type of RJ45 UTP cable is used between switches? A.Straight-through B.Crossover cable C.Crossover with a CSU/DSU D.Crossover with a router in between the two switches Answer: Option A |
#3
2nd December 2015, 01:35 PM
| |||
| |||
Re: HPCL recruitment test Model paper
Hello sir I want to do preparation for requirement test so here can you please give me paper for practice ?
|
#4
2nd December 2015, 01:35 PM
| |||
| |||
Re: HPCL recruitment test Model paper
Hey as Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited is an Indian state-owned oil and natural gas company with its headquarters at Mumbai, Maharashtra and with Navratna status Pattern HPCL Officer Trainee Written Test Model Questions and Syllabus Section I: General Aptitude (Applicable for all Positions) Intellectual Potential Logical Reasoning Data Interpretation Quantitative Aptitude Test of English Language Section II: Technical / Professional Knowledge 1A & 1B. Officer Trainee - Engineering Discipline Mechanical Civil Electrical Electronics & Telecommunications Instrumentation Chemical Here I am giving you paper :- HPCL Test Paper - Electrical & Electronics Engineering 1. Choose which of the below mentioned stands true for its justification. a. A transparent latch consists of a D – flip flop b. A flip – flop is used to store 1 – bit of information c. Master slave flip flop is used to store 2 bits of information d. Race around condition occurs in JK flip flop when both the inputs are 1 2. Choose the correct option to identify the fastest read/writable memory? a. Flash b. PROM c. EEPROM d. None of the above 3. Which logic is used by odd parity generator? a. Analog b. Sequential c. Digital d. None of the above 4. If you have to implement AB+CD+EF, how many NAND gates will be required to do so? a. 2 b. 1 c. 3 d. 4 5. State the value of A’+1. a. 1 b. A c. A’ d. None of the above 6. According to Boolean Algebra what is the value of 1+A+B+C a. A+B+C b. 1 c. A d. None of the above 7. How many number of 1’s are there in the binary expression – 162*9+162*7+16*5+3? a. 23 b. 4 c. 6 d. 10 8. Choose the correct alternative that is used as a data selector. a. Decoder b. Modulator c. Encoder d. Demodulator 9. Which transistor will you use in enhancement mode? a. UJT b. MOSFET c. JFET d. NPN 10. Which of the following option consist of high cut – off frequency? a. CE b. CB c. CC d. None of the above 11. What is the largest negative number be represented with 8 bits in 2’s compliment representation? a. -127 b. -256 c. -255 d. -128 12. State the range of generation voltage. a. Between 400 KV and 700 KV b. Between 11 KV and 33 KV c. Between 132 KV and 400 KV d. None of the above 13. Choose which of the following option falls true for hysteresis motor. a. Needs Dc excitation b. Is not a self – starting motor c. Is a constant speed motor d. Cannot be run in reverse speed 14. Which heating method is independent of supply frequency? a. Dielectric heating b. Electric arc heating c. Induction heating d. Electric resistance heating 15. What is the power factor of a squirrel cage induction motor? a. Low at heavy load only b. Low at light load only c. Low at light and heavy load only d. Low at rated load only 16 .Choose the correct option which uses direct inward dialling as one of its feature. a. VPN b. PBX c. PSTN d. EPABX 17. Choose the correct option for identifying the two windings of a transformer? a. Not linked at all b. Conductively linked c. Electrically linked d. Inductively linked Fill in the blanks 18. In a stepper motor the angular displacement _______ a. It cannot be used for positioning of work tables and tools in NC machine b. Can be precisely controlled c. It cannot be readily interfaced with micro - computer based controller d. The angular displacement cannot be precisely controlled 19. The purpose of inducing emf in the primary of a transformer ______ a. Leads the flux by 90 degree b. Lags behind the flux by 90 degree c. Is in phase with the flux d. Is in phase opposition to that of flux 20. Which motor will you choose which can operate in both lagging as well as leading power factors? a. Synchronous motor b. Squirrel cage motor c. DC shunt motor d. Wound rotor induction motor 21. What will be the voltage regulation of a full load and 0.80 power factor lagging load transformer when a two winding single phase transformer has a voltage regulation of 4.5% at full load and unity power factor? a. 4.5% or more b. Less that 4.5% c. 4.5% d. More than 4.5 % 22. What is the armature mmf in a D.C machine? a. Rotating w.r.t field b. Stationary w.r.t armature c. Rotating w.r.t brushes d. Stationary w.r.t field 23. What will be the output of a step – input is given to an op – amp integrator? a. Rectangular wave b. A ramp c. A sinusoidal wave d. A triangular wave with DC bias 24. What will be the output voltage of a transformer if it is primarily energised from a square wave voltage source? a. A pulse wave b. A square wave c. A sine wave d. A triangular wave |