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Old 23rd September 2014, 01:33 PM
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Default Re: HAL Management Trainee Exam Question Paper

Here is the list of few questions of HAL Management Trainee Exam paper which you are looking for .

1) What is the distance between the EHV lines?
a)8m b)11m c)4m d)14m
2) At present how many HVDC lines are there in india?
a)none b)one c)two d)more than two
3) Where is the nuclear located in following places?
ans: i dont remember the answers, but one of them is thalcher(orissa)
4) What is the approximate peak overshoot for a unity feedback system with damping factor 0.6?
a)10% b)5% c)15% d)20%
5) What is the distance between the EHV lines and earth?
a)8m b)11m c)18m d)15m
6) On no load in EHV lines what is the relation between receinving and sending end voltage?
ans: receiving end voltage > sending end voltage
7) What is the surge impedance loading of 400kv line?
ans: 4002/400ohms =400watts
8) similar question with surge impedance given as 160 ohms
ans: 1000watts
9) If both the juctions of transistor are forward biased, in wat region transistor works
ans: saturation region
10) Where is the hydel power plant located in following places?
ans: I dont remember the places
11) self GMD is used in the calculation of_______
a) inductance only
b) inductance and capacitance
c) capacitance only
d) none
12) What is the GMD if the distance between the lines are 6m,6m,12m?
ans: 7.058m( approx)
13) Zero sequence currents doesn't exist in the following fault
a) L-G
b) L-L
c) L-L-G
d) L-L-L-G
Ans: d
14) To avoid arcing connect sutable value of ________ in earthing.
a) capacitance
b) indunctance
c) resistance
d) susceptance
15)There are two to three questions based on Laplace and Inverse Laplace transforms
16)In the following type of conductors the corona is minimum
a) circular
b) stranded
c) helical
d) rectamgular
ans: c
17)When do two wattmeters show same value of opposite readings in two wattmeter method
a) 300 lag
b) 600 lag
c) between 600 and 900 lag
d) zpf lag
ans: d
18) Schering bridge is used to measure
a) frequency
b) inductance
c) capacitance
d) mutual inductance
and: c
19) What is the value of resistance when both length and diameter of the wire are doubled?
ans: halved
20) There is one questions asked on euler's formula..
21) What is the Laplace transform of unit ramp signal?
22) What happens to the value of inductance when self GMD is doubled?
23) At what frequency corona loss is more?
a) 50Hz
b) 60Hz
24) What is the largest rating of alternator manufactured in india?
a) 1000MW
b) 500MW
c) 1200MW
d) 250MW
25) The response of an RLC circuit for impuse input?
a) exponentially raising
b) sinusoidal
c) exponential falling
d) parabolic
ans: c
26) What is the easier method for finding no. of poles in the right half of s-plane?
a) Niquist plot
b) R-H criterion
c) Root-Locus method
d) Polor plot
ans: b
27) How many no of poles located in the right half of s-plane for the characteristic equation...
28) Burden of current transformers is measured in..
a) Watts
b) Volt Amperes
c) Ampere Hours
d) Joules
29)What is the gate used to get high output when all the inputs are low?
a) NOR
c) Ex-OR
d) Ex-NOR
ans: b
30) Large no of thyristors are used in HVDC transmission to improve______
a) current rating
b) voltage rating
c) Thyristers are available at high ratings
31) What is the line current of a circuit when the current transformer of 1000:5 rating measures
ans: 800A
32) If the time delay of relay with TMS setting 0.1 is 10 sec, then what is the time delaty when the
TMS setting is changed to 0.5
33) How many no of flip-flops are required to get 16 bit counter?
34) _________is connected to reduce frequency errors in ammeter.
a) shunt capacitor
b) series inductance
c) shunt inductance
35)What is the value of ripple factor in Half Wave Rectifier?
a) 1.11
b) 0.8
c) 1.21
36)The principle used in megger?
a) electrostatic effect
b) magnetic effect
c) Induction effect
37)In electrodynamometer type wattmeter the error is due to..
a) pressure coil inductance
b) pressure coil resistance
38) In the following locations where is hydal power plant is not located?
ans: i dont remember the places
39) In distribution lines_____
a) X/R<0.1
b) X/R>10
c) X/R>1
d) X/R<0.01
40) In EHV lines _____
a) X/R=10
b) X/R=100
41) What is the speed of 2 pole alternator at 50Hz frequency?
ans: 3000rpm
42) What is the equivalent decimal no of (624)8
43) What is the binary equivalent of 6.25
44) What is the value of A+AB+B¯ ( B bar)
ans: 1
45) What are the avg and rms values of full wave rectifier
ans: 2Vm/pie, Vm/21/2
46) There is one question based on rank of matrix
47) What is the equivalent of cos(wt+18.750)
a) sin(wt+71.250)
b) sin(wt-71.250)
c) sin(wt+18.250)
d) sin(wt-18.250)
48) The three harmonics will be in phace with each other?_____
a) 3,5,15
b) 2,4,6
ans: a
49) The line current will be equal to phase current in______
ans: delta connection
50) In windmills the frequent problems occur in______
a) mechanical system
b) blades
c) electrodynamic system
d) electric system
51) The machine used in windmills is______
a) alternator
b) induction generator
ans: b
52) Insulators in EHV lines are designed based on_____
a) switching voltages
b) peak voltages
c) corona
d) lightning voltages
ans: a
53) The value of restriking voltage depends on______
a) inductance of line
b) capacitance of line
c) both
d) none
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Old 29th October 2014, 02:55 PM
Default HAL Management Trainee Exam Question Paper

Can you give me the question paper for HAL management trainee exam as my friend is preparing for the exam and want it for preparation?
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Old 29th October 2014, 03:38 PM
Super Moderator
Join Date: Apr 2013
Default Re: HAL Management Trainee Exam Question Paper

Below I am listing some of the questions from the question paper only and for detailed question paper:
6. A graph with ”n” vertices and n-1 edges that is not a tree, is
a) Connected
b) Disconnected
c) Euler
d) A circuit
7. If a graph requires k different colours for its proper colouring,
then the chromatic number of the graph is
a) 1
b) k
c) k-1
d) k/2
8. A read bit can be read
a) and written by CPU
b) and written by peripheral
c) by pheripheral and written by CPU
d) by CPU and written by the peripheral
10. The term “aging” refers to
a) booting up the priority of a process in multi-level of queue without feedback.
b) gradually increasing the priority of jobs that wait in the system for a long time
to remedy infinite blocking.
c) keeping track of the following a page has been in memory for the purpose of
d) letting job reside in memory for a certain amount of time so that the number of
pages required can be estimated accurately.
11. Consider a set of n tasks with known runtimes r1, r2 ....... r to be run on a
unlprocessor machine. Which of the following processor scheduling algorithms
will result in the maximum throughput?
a) Round Robin
b) Shortest job first
c) Highest response ratio next
d) first cum first served
14. The principal of locality of reference justifies the use of
a) virtual memory
b) interrupts
c) main memory
d) cache memory
15. What is the value of I at the end of the pseudocode?
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7
16. The five items: A, B, C, D, and E are pushed in a stack, one after the other
starting from A. The stack is popped four times and each element Is inserted in a
queue. Then two elements are deleted from the queue and pushed back on the
stack. Now one item is popped from the stack. The popped item is
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
17. Round Robin scheduling is essentially the pre-emptive version of
b) Shortest Job First
c) shortest remaining time
d) Longest remaining time
18. The number of digit I present in the binary representation of
3 x 512 +7 x 64 + 5 x 8 +3 is
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 1O
(d) 12
19. Assume that each character code consists of 8 bits. The number of
characters that can be transmitted per second through an synchronous serial
line at 2400 baud rate, and with two stop bits is
(c) 218
20. If the bandwidth of a signal is 5 kHz and the lowest frequency is 52 kHz,
what is the highest frequency?
(a) 5 kHz
(b) 10 kHz
(C) 47 kHz
(d) 57 kHz
21. An Ethernet hub
(a) functions as a repeater
(b) connects to a digital PBX
(c) connects to a token-ring network
(d) functions as a gateway
22. Phase transition for each bit are used in
(a) Amplitude modulation
(b) Carrier modulation
(C) Manchester encoding
(d) NRZ encoding
23. Which of the following is printed as a result of the call demo (1234)?
a) 1441
b) 3443
C) 12344321
d) 43211234
24. Bit stuffing refers to
(a) inserting a ‘0’ in user stream to differentiate it with a flag
(b) inserting a ‘0’ in flag stream to avoid ambiguity
(C) appending a nibble to the flag sequence
(d ) appending a nibble to the use data stream
25. What is the name of the technique in which the operating system of a
computer executes several programs concurrently by switching back and forth
between them?
(a) Partitioning
(b) Multi tasking
(C) Windowing
(d) Paging
26. If there are five routers and six networks in an intranet using link state
routing, how many routing tables are there?
(a) 1
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 11
27. Virtual memory is
a) Part of Main Memory only used for swapping
b) A technique to allow a program, of size more than the size of the main
memory, town
C) Part of secondary storage used in program execution
d) None of these
28. The level of aggregation of information required for operational control is
(a) Detailed
(b) Aggregate
(C) Qualitative
(d) None of the above
30. 0.75 in decimal system is equivalent to _______ in octal system
a) 0.60
b) 0.52
C) 0.54
d) 0.50
31. In an SR latch made by cross coupling two NAND gates, if both S and R inputs
are set to 0, then it will result in
a) Q= 0, QO = 1
b) Q= 1,Q0 = 0
c) Q= 1,Q0 = 1
d) Indeterminate states
33. Company X shipped 5 computer chips, I of which was defective, and
Company Y shipped 4 computer chips, 2 of which were defective. One computer
chip is to be chosen uniformly at random from the 9 chips shipped by the
companies. If the chosen chip is found to be defective, what is the probability
that the chip came from Company Y?
a) 2/9
b) 4/9
c) 2/3
d) 1/2
34. Ring counter is analogous to
(a) Toggle Switch
(b) Latch
(C) Stepping Switch
(d) S-R flip flop
35. The output 0 and I level for TTL Logic family is approximately
a) 0.1 and5 V
b) 0.6 and 3.5 V
C) 0.9 and 1.75 V
d) —i.75 and O.9 V
37. In comparison with static RAM memory, the dynamic RAM memory has
a) lower bit density and higher power consumption
b) higher bit density and higher power consumption
C) lower bit density and lower power consumption
d) higher bit density and lower power consumption.
38 The Hexadecimal equivalent of 01111100110111100011 is
(a) CD73E
(b) ABD3F
(c) 7CDE3
(d) FA4CD
39. Disk requests are received by a disk drive for cylinder 5, 25, 18, 3, 39, 8 and
35 in that order. A seek takes 5 msec per cylinder moved. How much seek time
is needed to serve these requests for a Shortest Seek First (SSF) algorithm?
Assume that the arm is at cylinder ?,0 when the last of these requests is made
with none of the requests yet served
a) 125 msec
b) 295 msec
c) 575 msec
d) 750 msec
40. Consider a system having ‘m’ resources of the same type. The resources are
shared by 3 processes A,B,C which have peak time demands of 3,4,6
respectively. The minimum value of ‘m’ that ensures that deadlock will never
occur is
(a) 11
(b) 12
(c) 13
(d) 14
41. A task in a blocked state
a) is executable
b) is running
C) must still be placed in the run queues
d) Is waiting for some temporarily unavailable resources.
42. Semaphores
a) synchronize critical resources to prevent deadlock
b) synchronize critical resources to prevent contention
C) are used to do I/O
d) are used for memory management.
43. On a system using non-preemptive scheduling, processes with expected run
times of 5, 18, 9 and 12 are in the ready queue. In what order should they be
run to minimize wait time?
(a) 5, 12, 9, 18
(b) 5, 9, 12,18
(C )12,18, 9, 5
(d) 9, 12, 18, 5
44. The number of page frames that must be allocated to a running process in a
virtual memory environment is determined by
a) the instruction set architecture
b) page size
c) number of processes in memory
d) physical memory size
46 Consider a small 2-way set-associative cache memory, consisting of four
blocks. For choosing the block to be replaced, use the least recently (LRU)
scheme. The number of cache misses for the following sequence of block
addresses is 8,12,0,12,8
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
47. Which commands are used to control access over objects in relational
d) None of these
48. Which of the following is aggregate function in SQL?
a) Avg
b) Select
c) Ordered by
d) distinct
49. One approach to handling fuzzy logic data might be to design a computer
using ternary (base..3) logic so that data could be stored as “true,” “false,” and
“unknown.” if each ternary logic element is called a flit, how many flits are
required to represent at least 256 different values?
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7
50. A view of a database that appears to an application program is known as
a) Schema
b) Subschema
c) Virtual table
d) None of these
51 Armstrong’s inference rule doesn’t determine
a) Reflexivity
b) Augmentation
C) Transitivity
d) Mutual dependency
52. Which operation is used to extract specified columns from a table?
a) Project
b) Join
C) Extract
d) Substitute
53. In the Big- Endian system, the computer stores
a) MSB of data in the lowest memory address of data unit
b) LSB of data in the lowest memory address of data unit
C) MSB of data in the highest memory address of data unit
d) LSB of data in the highest memory address of data unit
54. BCNF is not used for cases where a relation has
a) Two (or more) candidate keys
b) Two candidate keys and composite
c) The candidate key overlap
d) Two mutually exclusive foreign keys
55. Selection sort algorithm design technique Is an example of
a) Greedy method
b) Divide-and-conquer
C) Dynamic Programming
d) Backtracking
56. Which of the following RAID level provides the highest Data Transfer Rate
(Read / Write)
a) RAID 1
b) RAID 3
d) RAID 5
57. Which of the following programming language(s) provides garbage
collection automatically
a) Lisp
b) C++
c) Fortran
d) C
60. Which of the following is correct with respect to Two phase commit
(a) Ensures serializability
(b) Prevents Deadlock
(C) Detects Deadlock
(d) Recover from Deadlock
61 The Fibonacci sequence is the sequence of integers
a) 1,3,5,7,9,11,13
b) 0,1,1,2,3,5,8,13,21,54
c) 0, 1, 3, 4, 7, 11, 18, 29, 47
d) 0,1,3,7,15
62 Let X be the adjacency matrix of a graph G with no self loops. The entries
along the principal diagonal of X are
(a) all zeros
(b) all ones
(C) both zeros and ones
(d) different
63 Which of these is not a feature of WAP 2.0
(a) Push & Pull Model
(b) Interface to a storage device
(c) Multimedia messaging
(d) Hashing
64 Feedback queues
(a) are very simple to implement
(b) dispatch tasks according to execution characteristics
(C) are used to favour real time tasks
(d) require manual intervention to implement properly
65 Which of the following is not a UML DIAGRAM?
(a) Use Case
(b) Class Diagram
(c) Analysis Diagram
(d) Swimlane Diagram
66 Silly Window Syndrome is related to
(a) Error during transmission
(b) File transfer protocol
(c) Degrade in TCP performance
(d) Interlace problem
67 To execute all loops at their boundaries and within their operational bounds
an example of
(a) Black Box Testing
(b) Alpha Testing
(c) Recovery Testing
(d) White Box Testing
68 SSL is not responsible for
(a) Mutual authentication of client & server
(b) Secret communication
(C) Data Integrity protection
(d) Error detection & correction
69 A rule in a limited entry decision table is a
(a) row of the table consisting of condition entries
(b) row of the table consisting of action entries
(C) column of the table consisting of condition entries and the corresponding
action entries
(d) columns of the table consisting of conditions of the stub
70 The standard for certificates used on internet is
a) X.25
b) X.301
c) X.409
d) X.509
71 Hashed message is signed by a sender using
a) his public key
b) his private key
C) receivers public key
d) receivers private key
72 An email contains a textual birthday greeting, a picture of a cake, and a song.
The order is not important. What is the content-type?
a) Multipart / mixed
b) Multipart / parallel
c) Multipart / digest
d) Multipart / alternative
73 Range of IP Address from to are
a) Reserved for Loopback
b) Reserved for broadcast
C) Used for muticast packets
d) Reserved for future addressing
74 IEEE 802.11 is standard for
a) Ethernet
b) Bluetooth
C) Broadband Wireless
d) Wireless LANs
75 When a host on network A sends a message to a host on network B, which
address does the router look at?
a) Port
b) IP
C) Physical
d) Subnet mask
76 Which of the following is not an approach to Software Process Assessment?
a) SPICE (ISO/IECI 5504)
b) Standard CMMI Assessment Method for process improvement
C) ISO 9001 : 2000
d) IEEE 2000:2001
77 A physical DFD specifies
a) what processes will be used
b) who generates data and who processes it
c) what each person in an organization does
d) which data will be generated
78 In UML diagram of a class
a) state of object cannot be represented
b) state is irrelevant
c) state is represented as an attribute
d) state is represented as a result of an operation
79 Which of the following models is used for software reliability?
a) Waterfall
b) Musa
d) Rayleigh
80 Djikstra’s algorithm is used to
a) Create LSAs
b) Flood an internet with information
C) Calculate the routing tables
d) Create a link state database Ans.
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Old 14th November 2014, 02:57 PM
Default HAL Management Trainee Exam Question Paper

Will you please provide the question paper of HAL Management Trainee Exam ?
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Old 14th November 2014, 03:25 PM
Super Moderator
Join Date: Apr 2013
Default Re: HAL Management Trainee Exam Question Paper

Here is the list of few questions of HAL Management Trainee Exam Question Paper which you are looking for.....
1. If the following numbers are rewritten by interchanging the digits in
ten’s place and hundred’s place and then arranging them in the descending
order. What will be the second digit of the newly formed fifth number
from your right ?
479, 736, 895, 978, 389, 675
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
Ans : (C)
2. P is 60 m South-East of Q. R is 60 m North-East of Q. Then R is in
which direction of P ?
(A) North
(B) North-East
(C) South
(D) South-East
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 3–5) Read the following information for answering the
questions that follow—
On a playing ground A, B, C, D and E are standing as described below
facing the North.
(i) B is 50 metres to the right of D.
(ii) A is 60 metres to the South of B
(iii) C is 40 metres to the West of D.
(iv) E is 80 metres to the North of A.
3. If a boy walks from C, meets D followed by B, A and then E, how many
metres has he walked if he has travelled the straight distance all
through ?
(A) 120
(B) 150
(C) 170
(D) 230
Ans : (D)
4. What is the minimum distance (in metre approximately) between C and E
(A) 53
(B) 78
(C) 92
(D) 120
Ans : (C)
5. Who is to the South-East of the person who is to the left of D ?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) E
Ans : (A)
6. A man was walking in the evening just before the sun set. His wife
said that, his shadow fell on his right. If the wife was walking in the
opposite direction of the man, then which direction the wife was facing ?
(A) North
(B) West
(C) South
(D) East
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 7–11) In each of the following questions choose the set of
numbers from the four alternative sets that is similar to the given set.
7. Given set : (4, 9, 18)
(A) (8, 14, 22)
(B) (10, 15, 25)
(C) (6, 12, 23)
(D) (12, 17, 26)
Ans : (D)
8. Given set : (10, 14, 17)
(A) (4, 11, 14)
(B) (9, 12, 15)
(C) (8, 13, 18)
(D) (6, 9, 12)
Ans : (A)
9. Given set : (7, 27, 55)
(A) (21, 35, 52)
(B) (18, 42, 65)
(C) (16, 40, 72)
(D) (13, 30, 58)
Ans : (C)
10. Given set : (39, 28, 19)
(A) (84, 67, 52)
(B) (52, 25, 17)
(C) (70, 49, 36)
(D) (65, 45, 21)
Ans : (A)
11. Given set : (246, 257, 358)
(A) (233, 343, 345)
(B) (273, 365, 367)
(C) (143, 226, 237)
(D) (145, 235, 325)
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 12–16) Each question contains six or seven statements
followed by four sets of combinations of three. Choose the set in which
the statements are logically related.
12. (1) All books are having pages.
(2) All kings are having pages.
(3) All kings are books.
(4) Some heavy things are having pages.
(5) Some heavy things are books.
(6) Some books are heavy.
(7) Some heavy things are having pages.
(A) 1, 2, 3
(B) 6, 1, 4
(C) 4, 6, 1
(D) 1, 5, 7
Ans : (D)
13. (1) No athletes are vegetarians.
(2) All cricket players are athletes.
(3) Some athletes play cricket.
(4) Some cricket players are vegetarians.
(5) No cricket player is a vegetarian.
(6) All athletes are vegetarians.
(A) 1, 2, 5
(B) 3, 4, 1
(C) 1, 5, 2
(D) 2, 5, 6
Ans : (A)
14. (1) All grandmothers cook well.
(2) No man is a grandmother.
(3) Some men do not cook well.
(4) All those who cook well are men.
(5) No one who cooks well is a man.
(6) All those who cook well are grandmothers.
(7) Some men are not grandmothers.
(A) 2, 6, 5
(B) 2, 5, 6
(C) 1, 4, 2
(D) 6, 4, 7
Ans : (B)
15. (1) Looting is a crime.
(2) Some crooked people are criminals.
(3) All those involved in looting are criminals.
(4) Some crooked people are involved in looting.
(5) All criminals are looked down in society.
(6) Some crooked people are not criminals.
(A) 1, 4, 6
(B) 3, 6, 2
(C) 1, 2, 6
(D) 3, 4, 2
Ans : (D)
16. (1) Some women are those who are successful in life.
(2) Some men are those who have patience.
(3) No man is a woman.
(4) All those who have patience are successful in life.
(5) Some who are successful in life are men.
(6) Some men are not those are successful in life.
(A) 1, 3, 6
(B) 4, 2, 6
(C) 1, 5, 3
(D) 2, 4, 5
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 17–21) Each of the questions below consists of a question
and two statements numbered (I) and (II). You have to decide whether the
data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
Give answers—
(A) If the data in statement (I) alone are sufficient to answer the
question, while the data in statement (II) alone are not sufficient to
answer the question;
(B) If the data in statement (II) alone are sufficient to answer the
question, while the data in statement (I) alone are not sufficient to
answer the questions;
(C) If the data even in both statements (I) and (II) together are not
sufficient to answer the question;
(D) If the data in both statement (I) and (II) together are necessary to
answer the question.
17. In which direction is Mahatmaji’s statue facing ?
I. The statue is towards the northern end of the city.
II. The statue’s shadow falls towards East at 5 O’clock in the evening.
Ans : (C)
18. What is the total number of pupils in the final year class ?
I. The number of boys in the final year class is twice as much as the
number of girls in that class.
II. The sum of the ages of all the pupils in the class is 399 years and
their average age is 19 years.
Ans : (B)
19. Who is the tallest among A, B, C and D ?
I. A is taller than C.
II. B is taller than C and D.
Ans : (C)
20. How many Sundays are there in a particular month of a particular year
I. The month begins on Monday.
II. The month ends on Wednesday.
Ans : (D)
21. What is the total number of pages in this book ?
I. I counted 132 pages from the beginning of this book.
II. My wife counted 138 pages starting from the end of the same book.
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 22–26) In each of the questions given below, there is a
statement followed by three assumptions numbered I, II and III. An
assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to
consider the statement and assumptions and then decide, which of the
assumption(s) is/are implicit in the statement.
22. Statement : During pre-harvest kharif seasons, the government has
decided to release vast quantity of foodgrains from FCI.
Assumptions :I. There may be a shortage of foodgrains in the market
during this season.
II. The kharif crop may be able to replenish the stock of FCI.
III. There may be a demand from the farmers to procure kharif crop
immediately after harvest.
(A) None is implicit
(B) Only I and II are implicit
(C) Only II and III are implicit
(D) All are implicit
Ans : (D)
23. Statement : To improve the employment situation in India, there is a
need to recast the present educational system towards implementation of
scientific discoveries in daily life.
Assumptions :I. The students after completing such education may be able
to earn their livelihood.
II. This may bring meaning of education in the minds of the youth.
III. The state may earn more revenue as more and more people will engage
themselves in self employment.
(A) Only I and II are implicit
(B) Only III is implicit
(C) Only I and III are implicit
(D) None is implicit
Ans : (A)
24. Statement : To increase profit, the oil exporting countries decided
to reduce the production of crude by 5 million barrels per day.
Assumptions :I. The price of crude may increase due to less production.
II. The demand of crude may remain same in future.
III. Other countries may continue buying crude from these countries.
(A) All are implicit
(B) Only II and III are implicit
(C) Only I and II are implicit
(D) None is implicit
Ans : (C)
25. Statement : “We do not want you to see our product on newspaper,
visit our shop to get a full view.” – an advertisement.
Assumptions :I. People generally decide to purchase any product after
seeing the name in the advertisement.
II. Uncommon appeal may attract the customers.
III. People may come to see the product.
(A) All are implicit
(B) None is implicit
(C) Only II and III are implicit
(D) Only I and II are implicit
Ans : (A)
26. Statement : The Reserve Bank of India has directed the banks to
refuse fresh loans to major defaulters.
Assumptions :I. The banks may still give loans to the defaulters.
II. The defaulters may repay the earlier loan to get fresh loan.
III. The banks may recover the bad loans through such harsh measures.
(A) All are implicit
(B) None is implicit
(C) Both II and III are implicit
(D) Both I and II are implicit
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 27–31) In questions given below, statements 1 and 2 are
followed by conclusions I and II. Taking the statements to be right
although they may seem at variance with commonly accepted facts, mark
your answers as under—
(A) If only conclusion I follows.
(B) If only conclusion II follows.
(C) If both I and II follows.
(D) Neither I nor II follows.
27. Statements :1. All hands are machines.
2. All machines are wheels.
Conclusions :I. All wheels are hands.
II. All hands are wheels.
Ans : (B)
28. Statements :1. Some buds are leaves.
2. Some leaves are red.
Conclusions :
I. Some buds are red.
II. Some leaves are not buds.
Ans : (B)
29. Statements :
1. Some stones are shells.
2. All shells are pearls.
Conclusions :I. Some stones are pearls.
II. All pearls are shells.
Ans : (A)
30. Statements :1. Brown is red and blue is green.
2. Green is pink and yellow is red.
Conclusions :
I. Yellow is brown.
II. Pink is blue.
Ans : (C)
31. Statements :
1. Merchants who do not own cars do not have bicycles either.
2. Those who do not have bicycles have tricycles.
Conclusions :I. Some merchants have only tricycles.
II. No one has both, the car and the tricycles.
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 32–36) A number arrangement machine, when given a
particular input, rearranges it following a particular rule. The
following is the illustration of the input and the stages of arrangement.
Input : 245, 316, 436, 519, 868, 710, 689
Step I : 710, 316, 436, 519, 868, 245, 689
Step II : 710, 316, 245, 519, 868, 436, 689
Step III : 710, 316, 245, 436, 868, 519, 689
Step IV : 710, 316, 245, 436, 519, 868, 689
Step IV is the last step of input.
32. If 655, 436, 764, 799, 977, 572, 333 is the input which of the
following steps will be ‘333, 436, 572, 655, 977, 764, 799’ ?
(A) II
(C) IV
(D) I
Ans : (B)
33. How many steps will be required to get the final output from the
following input ?
Input : 544, 653, 325, 688, 461, 231, 857
(A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 6
Ans : (A)
34. For the given input, which of the following will be third step ?
Input : 236, 522, 824, 765, 622, 463, 358
(A) 522, 236, 765, 824, 622, 463, 358
(B) 522, 622, 236, 824, 765, 463, 358
(C) 522, 622, 236, 765, 824, 463, 358
(D) 522, 622, 236, 463, 824, 765, 358
Ans : (C)
35. If following is the second step for an input, what will be the fourth
step ?
Step II : 620, 415, 344, 537, 787, 634, 977
(A) 620, 415, 344, 537, 634, 787, 977
(B) 620, 415, 344, 634, 537, 787, 977
(C) 620, 415, 344, 634, 787, 537, 977
(D) Can’t be determined
Ans : (B)
36. Which of the following is the last step for the following input ?
Input : 473, 442, 735, 542, 367, 234, 549
(A) 234, 442, 542, 473, 735, 367, 549
(B) 234, 442, 542, 735, 473, 367, 549
(C) 234, 442, 542, 473, 367, 735, 549
(D) 234, 442, 542, 735, 367, 473, 549
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 37–41) Read the following information carefully and answer
the questions given below it—
(1) There is a group of six persons A, B, C, D, E and F in a family. They
are Psychologist, Manager, Lawyer, Jeweller, Doctor and Engineer.
(2) The doctor is the grandfather of F, who is a Psychologist.
(3) The Manager D is married to A.
(4) C, the Jeweller, is married to the Lawyer.
(5) B is the mother of F and E.
(6) There are two married couples in the family.
(7) The Psychologist is a female while Engineer is a male.
37. What is the profession of E ?
(A) Doctor
(B) Engineer
(C) Manager
(D) Psychologist
Ans : (B)
38. How is A related to E ?
(A) Brother
(B) Uncle
(C) Father
(D) Grandfather
Ans : (D)
39. How many male numbers are there in the family ?
(A) One
(B) Three
(C) Four
(D) Two
Ans : (B)
40. What is the profession of A ?
(A) Doctor
(B) Lawyer
(C) Jeweller
(D) Manager
Ans : (A)
41. Which of the following is one of the pairs of couples in the family ?
(A) AB
(B) AC
(C) AD
(D) AE
Ans : (C)
42. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a
group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Papaya
(B) Mango
(C) Jackfruit
(D) Watermelon
Ans : (C)
43. Three of the following four are similar in relation to their
positions in the English alphabet and hence form a group. Which one does
not belong to that group ?
Ans : (B)
44. Three of the following four groups of letters are alike in some way
while one is different. Find out which one is different ?
Ans : (A)
45. Four groups of letters are given below. Three of them are alike in a
certain way while one is different. Choose the odd one.
Ans : (C)
46. Four pairs of words are given below out of which the words in all
pairs except one, bear a certain common relationship. Choose the pair in
which the words are differently related.
(A) Watt : Power
(B) Ampere : Current
(C) Pascal : Pressure
(D) Radian : Degree
Ans : (D)
47. Number of letters skipped in between adjacent letters of the series
starting from behind are increased by one. Which of the following series
observes this rule ?
Ans : (C)
48. If the letters of the word ‘PROTECTION’ which are at odd numbered
position in the English alphabet are picked up and are arranged in
alphabetical order from left and if they are now substituted by Z, Y, X
and so on, beginning from left which letter will get substituted by X ?
(A) E
(B) O
(C) T
(D) I
Ans : (D)
49. How many pairs of letters are there in the word OPERATION in which
the difference between them is the same as in the English alphabet ?
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 9
Ans : (C)
50. Arrange the given words in order in which they occur in the
dictionary and then choose the correct sequence.
(1) Dissipate
(2) Dissuade
(3) Disseminate
(4) Distract
(5) Dissociate
(6) Dissect
(A) 6, 3, 1, 5, 2, 4
(B) 1, 6, 3, 2, 4, 5
(C) 3, 6, 1, 2, 5, 4
(D) 4, 6, 3, 1, 5, 2
Ans : (A)
51. The letters skipped in between the adjacent letters in the series are
followed by equal space. Which of the following series observes this rule
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 52–56) In a certain code, letters of English alphabet are
coded as given for some words. The numeric code for each letter is given
in bracket under coded form and corresponds to the letter in the word in
the same serial order, study the coded forms of the given words and find
out the rules for their classification. Applying those rules find out the
code for the words given in capital letters in the questions that follow—
Word Codes FormATE (0) (5) (0)
NONE (5) (25) (5) (25)
UNIT (30) (5) (30) (5)
PIN (5) (10) (5)
PAGE (5) (25) (5) (25)
OPEN (30) (5) (30) (5)
ONE (0) (5) (0)
CUT (5) (10) (5)
SEAT (5) (15) (15) (5)
DEEP (5) (20) (20) (5)
52. VINA
(A) (5) (0) (5) (15)
(B) (5) (25) (5) (25)
(C) (5) (30) (5) (30)
(D) (5) (10) (5) (30)
Ans : (B)
53. AGE
(A) (0) (15) (0)
(B) (15) (15) (15)
(C) (0) (10) (10)
(D) (0) (5) (0)
Ans : (D)
54. PEAR
(A) (5) (15) (15) (5)
(B) (5) (25) (5) (25)
(C) (5) (10) (5) (10)
(D) (5) (30) (5) (30)
Ans : (A)
55. TIN
(A) (0) (5) (0)
(B) (5) (0) (5)
(C) (0) (10) (0)
(D) (5) (10) (5)
Ans : (D)
56. UNIT
(A) (5) (30) (5) (30)
(B) (5) (10) (30) (10)
(C) (30) (5) (30) (5)
(D) (15) (10) (10) (15)
Ans : (C)
57. If the first and second digits in the squence 7 9 8 4 5 3 6 7 8 3 4 5
are interchanged, also the third and fourth digits, the fifth and sixth
digits and so on which digit would be the sixth counting from your right
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 8
Ans : (C)
58. The letter I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T in their order are
substituted by twelve numbers but not in that oder. 3 is assigned to R.
The difference between R and M is 7. The difference between K and M is 2.
What number is assigned to K ?
(A) 8
(B) 12
(C) 7
(D) 11
Ans : (B)
59. Below are given six three-character numbers. The characters comprise
of digits and letters. The letter stands for one less than its serial
order in the English alphabet. What will be the middle character of the
3rd number when the numbers are arranged in the decending order ?
8G6, 3DJ, F4C, 7HB, 4E6, B8I
(A) 7
(B) 8
(C) 6
(D) 4
Ans : (D)
60. Which of the following will be the third digit of the fourth number
after the following numbers are arranged in descending order after
reversing the positions of the digits within each number ?
645, 869, 458, 347, 981, 792
(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 9
Ans : (A)
1. Which of the following stars lies nearest to our solar system ?
(A) Barnard’s Star
(B) Sirius A
(C) Alpha Centauri A
(D) Proxima Centauri
Ans : (D)
2. Of the total water on the earth, fresh water reserves constitute
(A) 5•8%
(B) 4•5%
(C) 2•59%
(D) 1•2%
Ans : (C)
3. The term ‘Bishop’ in sports is related to—
(A) Chess
(B) Hockey
(C) Badminton
(D) Bridge
Ans : (A)
4. Yakshagan is the famous dance form of the State of—
(A) Orissa
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Karnataka
Ans : (D)
5. Balance of Payments means—
(A) Difference between export and imports
(B) Balance to be paid to the exporters
(C) Balance to be paid to the industrialists
(D) Balance coming in allocation of funds for States
Ans : (A)
6. A light year is equivalent to about—
(A) 365 days
(B) Six million miles
(C) Six billion miles
(D) Six trillion miles
Ans : (D)
7. Denmark, Iceland, Norway, Sweden and Finland are together called—
(A) Slovakia
(B) Scandinavia
(C) Netherlands
(D) Australasia
Ans : (B)
8. The device used for locating submerged objects under sea is—
(A) Sonar
(B) Radar
(C) Laser
(D) Maser
Ans : (A)
9. Which article of the Constitution provides the Parliament the power to
ammend Constitution ?
(A) 376
(B) 370
(C) 368
(D) 390
Ans : (C)
10. What is the name of the first successfully cloned deer ?
(A) Dawn
(B) Deluxe
(C) Demor
(D) Dewey
Ans : (D)
11. The idea of motion pictures was propounded by—
(A) N. R. Finsen
(B) T. A. Edison
(C) J. L. Baird
(D) Berliner
Ans : (B)
12. In Greek mythology, Apollo is the god of which of the following ?
(A) Love
(B) Peace
(C) Prophecy
(D) Medicine
Ans : (C)
13. NASA’s new space telescope is—
(A) Wise
(B) Rise
(C) Barack
(D) Telle
Ans : (A)
14. Bull fighting is the national game of—
(A) Italy
(B) Poland
(C) Spain
(D) Sudan
Ans : (C)
15. In a rare recognition, the Government of Mauritius decides to
introduce a book written by Uttarakhand Chief Minister Ramesh Pokhriyal
Nishank in the School Syllabus of the island nation, what is the name of
the book ?
(A) Sound of Hills
(B) Sparsh Ganga
(C) Heaven
(D) Amrit
Ans : (B)
16. Who has been selected for the ‘Niwano Peace Prize, 2010’ for her
contribution to the uplift of poor women in India ?
(A) Ela Bhatt
(B) Jhumpa Lahiri
(C) Punam Suri
(D) Mandakni Apte
Ans : (A)
17. On which of the following dates in 2010 did the safeguard agreement
with regard to civilian nuclear facilities between India and the
International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) come into force ?
(A) February 28
(B) February 21
(C) February 11
(D) February 4
Ans : (D)
18. The tax which the kings used to collect from the people in the Vedic
period was called—
(A) Bali
(B) Vidatha
(C) Varman
(D) Kara
Ans : (B)
19. The cells which are responsible for the production of antibodies are—
(A) Red blood cells
(B) Neutrophils
(C) Lymphocytes
(D) Platelets
Ans : (C)
20. Correct expansion of the term ‘http’ in Internet address is—
(A) Hybrid text transfer protocol
(B) Hyper text transfer protocol
(C) Higher transfer text protocol
(D) Higher text transfer protocol
Ans : (B)
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Old 5th December 2014, 09:49 AM
Default HAL Management Trainee Exam Question Paper

Will you please provide the sample Question Paper of HAL Management Trainee exam ?
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Old 5th December 2014, 10:58 AM
Super Moderator
Join Date: Apr 2013
Default Re: HAL Management Trainee Exam Question Paper

Here is the list of few questions of HAL Management Trainee Exam Question Paper which you are looking for .
HAL Management Trainee exam paper
(Quantitative Aptitude)
1. In a division sum, the divisor is 10 times the quotient and 5 times
the remainder. If the remainder is 46, the dividend is:
(1) 4236 (2) 4306
(3) 4336 (4) 5336
2. If 1.5 x= 0.04 y, then the value of (y-x) (y+x) is:
(1) 730/77 (2) 73/77
(3) 7.3/77 (4) 703/77
3. An employee may claim Rs. 7.00 for each km when he travels by taxi and
Rs. 6.00 for each km if he drives his own car. If in one week he claimed
Rs. 595 for traveling km. How many kms did he travel by taxi?
(1) 55 (2) 65
(3) 62 (4) 70
4. The square root of 3 + “5 is :
(1) “3 /2 + 1/”2 (2) “3 /2 - 1/”2
(3) “5 /2 - 1/”2 (4) “(5/2) + “(1/2)
5. The mean temperature of Monday to Wednesday was 370C and of Tuesday to
Thursday was 340C, if the temperature on Thursday was 4/5th that of
Monday, then what was the temperature on Thursday?
(1) 36.50C (2) 360C
(3) 35.50C (4) 340C
6. A certain number of two digits is three times the sum of its digits.
If 45 be added to it, the digits are reversed. The number is:
(1) 72 (2) 32
(3) 27 (4) 23
7. Three years ago the average age of A and B was 18 years. While C
joining them now, the average becomes 22 years. How old (in years) is C
(1) 24 (2) 27
(3) 28 (4) 30
8. If 2^(2x-1) = 8^(3-x), then the value of x is:
(1) -1 (2) -2
(3) 2 (4) 3
9. A man’s basic pay for a 40 hours’ week is Rs. 200. Overtimes is paid
at 25% above the basic rate. In a certain week, he worked overtime and
his total was Rs. 300. He therefore, worked for a total of (in hours):
(1) 52 (2) 56
(3) 58 (4) 62
10. On a Rs. 10, 000 payment order, a person has choice between 3
successive discounts of 10%, 10% and 30% and 3 successive discounts of
40%, 5% and 5%. By choosing the better one he can save (in Rupees):
(1) 200 (2) 255
(3) 400 (4) 433
11. Rs. 600 are divided among A, B, C so that Rs. 40 more than 2/5 th of
A’s share, Rs. 20 more that 2/7 th of B’s share and Rs. 10 more than 9/17
th of C’s may all be equal. What is A’s share (in Rupees)?
(1) 150 (2) 170
(3) 200 (4) 280
12. A, B, C started a business with their investment in the ratio 1 : 3 :
5. After 4 months, A invested the same amount as before and B as well as
C withdrew half of their investments. The ratio of their profits at the
end of the year was:
(1) 5 : 6 : 10 (2) 6 : 5 :10
(3) 10 : 5 : 6 (4) 4 : 3 : 5
13. If 9 men working 71/2 hours a day can finish a piece of work in 20
days, then how many days will be taken by 12 men, working 6 hours a day
to finish the work? It is being given that 2 men of latter type work as
much as 3 men of the former type?
(1) 91/2 (2) 11
(3) 121/2 (4) 13
14. Three pipes A, B and C can fill a cistern in 6 hours. After working
at it together for 2 hours, C is closed and A and B can fill the
remaining part in 7 hours. The number of hours taken by C alone to fill
the cistern is:
(1) 12 (2) 14
(3) 16 (4) 18
15. A train B speeding with 120 kmph crosses another train C running in
the same direction, in 2 minutes. If the lengths of the trains B and C be
100 m and 200 m respectively, what is the speed (in kmph) of the train C?
(1) 111 (2) 123
(3) 127 (4) 129
16. River is running at 2 kmph. It took a man twice as long to row up as
to row down the river. The rate (in km/hr) of the man in still water is:
(1) 8 (2) 10
(3) 4 (4) 6
17. A merchant has 1000 kg of sugar, part of which he sells at 8% profit
and the rest at 18% profit. He gains 14% on the whole. The quantity (in
kg.) sold at 18% profit is:
(1) 560 (2) 600
(3) 400 (4) 640
18. A sum of money becomes Rs. 13, 380 after 3 years and Rs. 20, 070
after 6 years on compound interest. The sum (in Rupees) is:
(1) 8800 (2) 8890
(3) 8920 (4) 9040
19. A well with 14 m inside diameter is dug 10 m deep. Earth taken out of
it, has been evenly spread all around it to a width of 21m to form an
embankment. The height (in metres) of the embankment is:
(1) 1/2 (2) 2/3
(3) 3/4 (4) 3/5
20. A rectangular carpet has an area of 120 sq metres and a perimeter of
46 metres. The length of its diagonal (in metres) is:
(1) 11 (2) 13
(3) 15 (4) 17
1. (4), 2. (2), 3. (1), 4. (4), 5. (2) 6. (3), 7. (1), 8. (3), 9. (2),
10. (2) 11. (1), 12. (1), 13. (3), 14. (2), 15. (1) 16. (4), 17. (2), 18.
(3), 19. (2), 20. (4)
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Old 28th February 2015, 04:54 PM
Default Re: HAL Management Trainee Exam Question Paper

Please provide me details and Previous Years Question Papers of HAL Management Trainee Exam so please provide me the same?
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Old 28th February 2015, 05:04 PM
Super Moderator
Join Date: Apr 2013
Default Re: HAL Management Trainee Exam Question Paper

HAL MT Exam is conducted by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited here I am providing you details and Previous Years Question Papers of HAL Management Trainee Exam.

Name of The posts:
Management Trainee (Technical):
• Aeronautical
• Computer Science
• Electrical
• Electronics
• Mechanical
• Metallurgy
• Production
• Management Trainee (IMM)
• Management Trainee (Marketing)
• Management Trainee (HR)
• Management Trainee (Legal)
• Management Trainee (Civil)
• Management Trainee (Architecture)

Selection process:
All-India based Online Selection Test and the Interviews.

Paper Pattern:
Part – I will consist of 20 MCQs on General Awareness.
Part – II will consist of 40 MCQs on English & Reasoning.
Part – III will consist of 100 MCQs on the concerned discipline of Engineering / Marketing / HR / Legal.

Previous Years Question Papers of HAL MT Exam:

HAL MT Exam Question Paper 1

HAL MT Exam Question Paper 2

HAL MT Exam Question Paper 3
Attached Files
File Type: pdf HAL MT Exam Question Paper 1.pdf (411.8 KB, 52 views)
File Type: pdf HAL MT Exam Question Paper 2.pdf (52.4 KB, 43 views)
File Type: pdf HAL MT Exam Question Paper 3.pdf (92.6 KB, 31 views)
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