General Banking Officer Exam Question Papers

I want to give IBPS General Banking Officer Exam so please give all details including previous year question paper and syllabus for preparation?

[Arun Vats]

IBPS (Institute of Banking Personal Selection) conduct General Banking Officer Exam every year. The selection is based on written test followed by Interview.

IBPS Exam consists of following five sections.

1. Reasoning Section
2. Quantitative Aptitude Section
3. English language section
4. General awareness
5. Computer knowledge

IBPS Officer Syllabus (General Banking):

Paper will be of 200 Marks and there are 200 questions. The entire question will be multiple choices. Questions are based on Reasoning, Quantitative Aptitude & Data Interpretation, Financial Awareness, Hindi or English Language & Computer Knowledge.

IBPS Exam Pattern:
1. Reasoning -50 marks
2. Quantitative aptitude-50 marks
3. English language-40 marks
4. General knowledge with special reference to banking industry-40 marks
5. Computer knowledge-20 marks

Time of exam:

For Office Assistants and Officer scale II specialist cadre- total time-3 hours
For all others - Total time of exam- 2 hrs. 30 minutes

Now, I am providing you PDF of Previous year question papers for preparation.

Directions (1-5): Study the following information to answer the given questions.
L, M, N, O, P, Q and R are sitting around a circle facing the centre. O is sitting
between L and R. Q is second to the right of R and P is second to the right of Q. N
is not an immediate neighbor of R.
1. Which of the following is not correct?
1) R is second to the right of L 2) M is second to the left of N
3) L sits exactly between O and P 4) P and N are immediate neighbors
5) P sits to the opposite of N
2. How many persons are seated between L and Q if we count anti-clockwise
from L to Q?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four 5) More than four
3. Who is the immediate left of P?
1) L 2) N 3) M 4) O 5) None of these
Directions (Q. 4-5): Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their
seating positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one
that does not belong to the group?
4. 1) QPN 2) MOR 3) LRO 4) RQM 5) ROL
5. 1) LP 2) RM 3) MQ 4) NP 5) OR
Directions (Q. 6-10): Study the following information to answer the given questions.
In a certain code,
‘829’ means ‘how art thou’,
‘953’ means ‘thou art good’ and
‘15873’ means ‘thy good and thou bad’.
6. What may be the possible code for ‘thy’?
1) 1 or 4 2) 7 3) 3 4) 5 5) None of these

7. What is the code for ‘thou’?
1) 9 2) 6 3) 2 4) 5 5) None of these
8. What is the code for ‘how’?
1) 5 2) 8 3) 2 4) 9 5) None of these
9. Which of the following may possibly be the code for ‘thou no good’?
1) 508 2) 780 3) 507 4) 870 5) None of these
10. What is the code for ‘how good thou art’?
1) 7589 2) 8295 3) 7183
4) 8795 5) cannot be determined
Directions (Q. 11-15): Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences
which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage? You have to examine each
inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth
or falsity.
Mark answer (1): if the inference is “definitely true”, i.e., it properly follows from
the statement of facts given.
Mark answer (2): if the inference is “probably true” though not “definitely true” in
the light of the facts given.
Mark answer (3): if the “data is inadequate”, i.e., from the facts given, you cannot
say whether the inference is likely to be true or false.
Mark answer (4): if the inference is “probably false” though not “definitely false”
in the light of the facts given.
Mark answer (5): if the inference is “definitely false”, i.e., it cannot possibly be
drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the given facts.
Note: Each of the five questions has only one distinct answer, i.e., no two questions can have
the same answer. If you get the same answer for more than one question, consider both
again and decide which one of the two would more definitely be that answer and in the
same way review the others also.
Cardiovascular disease is so prevalent that virtually all businesses are likely to have
employees who suffer from, or may develop, this condition. Research shows that
between 50-80% of all people who suffer a heart attack are able to return to work.
However, this may not be possible if they have previously been involved in heavy
physical work. In such cases, it may be possible to more the employee to lighter
duties, with appropriate retraining where necessary. Similarly, high pressure,

stressful work, even where it does not involve physical activity, should also be
avoided. Human resource managers should be aware of the implications of job rules
for employees with a cardiac condition.
11. Employees who suffer from cardiovascular diseases are mostly unable to
return to work.
12. Employees suffering from cardiovascular diseases are unable to handle
stressful situations.
13. Employees above the age of 50 are found to suffer from cardiovascular
diseases.
14. Physical and stressful work definitely leads to a heart attack.
15. Heart disease can affect employee in any type of business.
Directions (Q. 16-20): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two
statements numbered I and II given below. You have to decide whether the data
provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions. Read both the
statements and
Give answer (1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the
question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the
question.
Give answer (2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the
question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the
question.
Give answer (3) if the data either in statement I or in statement II alone are
sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (4) if the data even in both statements I and II together are not
sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (5) if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to
answer the question.
16. Who is oldest among Peter Kevin, Joseph and Jason?
I. Jason is older than Peter and Joseph.
II. Kevin is younger than Joseph.
17. How is ‘happy’ written in a code language?
I. ‘I happy today’ is written as ‘ke ne que’ and ‘today happy day’ is written as ‘ke
joi ke’.
II. ‘I play’ is written as ‘qua pa’.

18. H is the mother of J. How is J related to V?
I. V is the only daughter of H.
II. V is the sister of J.
19. What is the colour of white snow in a colour code?
I. ‘Green’ is called ‘Black’, ‘Black’ is called Blue, and ‘Blue’ is called ‘Red’.
II. ‘Red’ is called ‘White’ and ‘White’ is called ‘Orange’.
20. Six people P, Q, R, S, T and U are seated around a circular table and are
equidistant from each other. Who is second to the right of T?
I. P is to the immediate left of Q and Q sits opposite R.
II. S is to the immediate left of U.
Directions (Q. 21-27): Study the following information to answer the given questions.
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and
numbers rearranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration
of input and rearrangement. (Single digit numbers are preceded by a zero. All other
numbers are two digit numbers.)
Input: when 19 will you 07 be 40 coming 62 home 100 89
Step I: be when 19 will you 07 40 coming 62 home 100 89
Step II: be 07 when 19 will you 40 coming 62 home 100 89
Step III: be 07 coming when 19 will you 40 62 home 100 89
Step IV: be 07 coming 19 when will you 40 62 home 100 89
Step V: be 07 coming 19 home when will you 40 62 100 89
Step VI: be 07 coming 19 home 40 when will you 62 100 89
Step VII: be 07 coming 19 home 40 when 62 will you 100 89
Step VIII: be 07 coming 19 home 40 when 62 will 89 you 100
Step VIII is the last step of the arrangement of the above input as the intended
arrangement is obtained. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in
each of the following questions the appropriate steps for the given input.
Directions (Q. 21-24): Input: next 57 problem 82 14 trend 02 purchase growth 41
21. How many steps would be needed to complete the arrangement?
1) V 2) VI 3) VIII
4) VII 5) cannot be determined

22. Which of the following would be the final arrangement?
1) Growth 02 next 14 problem 41 purchases 57 82 trend
2) Growth next problem purchase trend 02 14 41 57 82
3) Growth 02 next 14 problem 41 purchase 57 trend 82
4) Growth 82 next 57 purchase 41 problem 14 next 02
5) None of the above
23. Which of the following would be step I?
1) 41 purchase 02 trend 14 82 problem 57 next growth
2) Growth 02 next 57 problem 82 14 trend purchase 41
3) 41 growth next 57 problem 82 14 trend 02 purchase
4) Growth next 57 problem 82 14 trend 02 purchase 41
5) Growth next 57 purchase 82 14 trend 02 problem 41
24. Which word/number would be the sixth position from the left end in step III?
1) purchase 2) 14 3) problem 4) 41 5) trend
Directions (Q. 25-27): Input: just 14 and value 22 time 5 15
25. Which word/number would be at position 5 from the right end in step III?
1) and 2) 15 3) just 4) 14 5) time
26. Which of the following would be step II of the arrangement?
1) and just value 14 22 time 5 15
2) and just value 14 value 22 time 15
3) and 5 just 14 time 15 22 value
4) and just value time 14 22 3 15
5) None of the above
27. How many steps would be needed to complete the arrangement and which
would be the last step?
1) Step IV: and 5 just 14 time 15 value 22
2) Step V: and 5 just 14 time 15 value 22
3) Step V: 22 and 15 just 14 time 5 just
4) Step VI: and 5 just 14 time 15 value 22
5) None of the above

Directions (Q. 28-29): In these questions, relationship between different elements is
shown in the statements. These statements are followed by two conclusions.
Mark answer
1) if only conclusion I follows 2) if only conclusion II follows
3) if either conclusion I or II follows 4) if neither conclusion I nor III follows
5) if both conclusion I and II follow
28. Statement: E < F ≤ G = H > S
Conclusions: I. G > S
II. F ≤ H
29. Statement: P ≤ Q < W = L
Conclusions: I. L > P
II. Q ≤ L
Directions (Q. 30-35): Study the following information to answer the given questions.
Six lectures are scheduled in a week starting from Monday and ending on Sunday of
the same week. Computer Science is not on Tuesday or Saturday. Psychology is
immediately after Organizational Behaviour. Statistics is not on Friday and there is
one day gap between Statistics and Research Methods. One day prior to the
schedule of Economics there is no lecture. (As that day is the ‘off’ day and Monday
is not the off day.)
30. Which of the following is the last lecture scheduled?
1) Statistics 2) Research Methods
3) Psychology 4) Cannot be determined
5) None of these
31. If Wednesday is the ‘off day, the code would be 2 – 4, if Thursday was the ‘off
day, the code would be 3 – 3. Taking into account the ‘off’ day which of the
following code is correct?
1) 2 – 4 2) 3 – 3 3) 4 – 2
4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these
32. Which lecture is scheduled on Friday?
1) Economics 2) Psychology
3) Computer Science 4) Cannot be determined
5) None of these

33. How many lectures were scheduled between Economics and Psychology?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three
4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these
34. Which day is Computer Science scheduled?
1) Monday 2) Wednesday 3) Thursday
4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these
35. Which day is the ‘off’ day?
1) Tuesday 2) Wednesday 3) Friday
4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these