2023 2024 Student Forum > Management Forum > Main Forum

29th July 2014, 01:58 PM
Food Corporation of India Limited Management Trainee (Accounts) last year papers

Will you please share with me the Food Corporation of India Limited Management Trainee (Accounts) last year papers?
Similar Threads
Food Corporation of India Management Trainee Exam Date
Food Corporation of India Hiring Management Trainee
Food Corporation of India Limited Management Trainee exam previous year question pape
Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited Management Trainee model papers
Oil and Natural Gas Corporation Limited HR Management Trainee last year papers
Food Corporation of India syllabus of Management Trainee of (General and Depot) posts
Coal India Limited Management Trainee Exam previous year papers of EE
Coal India Limited Management Trainee exam last year papers of Mining Engineering
Food Corporation of India Limited Management Trainee exam pattern
Engineer India Limited Management Trainee Exam previous year question papers
Food Corporation of India (FCI) Management Trainee Model Question Paper
Last year papers of Oil and Natural Gas Corporation Limited Management Trainee in HR
Food Corporation of India Limited Management Trainee exam previous year question pape
Food Corporation of India Limited Technician grade I previous year question papers
Food Corporation of India Limited Management Trainee exam last year papers
Food Corporation of India Limited Management Trainee preparation tips
Food Corporation of India Limited Assistant grade 3 previous year question papers
Food Corporation of India Limited Management Trainee exam last year question paper
Food Corporation of India Management Trainee previous year question papers
Food Corporation of India Limited Management Trainee reference books
30th July 2014, 01:11 PM
Super Moderator
Join Date: Apr 2013
Re: Food Corporation of India Limited Management Trainee (Accounts) last year papers

As you want to get the Food Corporation of India Limited Management Trainee (Accounts) last year papers so here it is for you:

1. According to the concept of conservation, the stock in trade is valued at—
(A) Cost price
(B) Market price
(C) Cost or market price which ever is higher
(D) Cost or market price which ever is lower
Ans. (D)
2. The concept of conservation will have the effect of—
(A) Over statement of assets
(B) Understatement of assets
(C) Understatement of liabilities
(D) Understatement of provision for bad and doubtful debts
Ans. (B)
3. Non-financial information is not recorded in accounts due to—
(A) Accrual concept
(B) Entity concept
(C) Dual aspect concept
(D) Money measurement concept
Ans. (D)
4. Balance in ‘Nazrana’s A/C’ in the books of lessee is shown in—
(A) Landlords a/c
(B) P&L a/c
(C) Balance sheet assets side
(D) Balance sheet liabilities side
Ans. (C)
5. The hire-buyer charges depreciation on—
(A) Cash price of the asset
(B) Hire purchase price of the asset
(C) Higher of the two
(D) Lower of the two
Ans. (A)
6. In hire-purchase system, hire-buyer can maintain his accounts under—
(A) Asset accrued method
(B) Total cash price method
(C) Any of the two methods
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)
7. If the rate of gross profit for department X is 25% of cost, the amount of gross profit on sales of Rs. 100000 will be-—
(A) Rs. 16667
(B) Rs. 20000
(C) Rs. 25000
(D) Rs. 33333
Ans. (B)
8. Provision for bad debts of a foreign branch is converted at—
(A) Opening rate of exchange
(B) Closing rate of exchange
(C) Average rate of exchange
(D) Rate applicable to debtors
Ans. (B)
9. If goods are transferred from ‘X’ department to ‘Y’ department at cost +25%, the amount of stock reserve on closing stock of Rs. 20000 in ‘Y’ department will be—
(A) Rs. 4000
(B) Rs. 5000
(C) Rs. 6000
(D) Rs. 3333
Ans. (A)
10. If out of the bills of Rs. 10000 discounted by the insolvent bills of Rs. 4000 are likely be dishonoured, unsecured creditors will include in respect of them an amount of—
(A) Rs. 10000
(B) Rs.6000
(C) Rs. 4000
(D) None of the above
Ans. (C)
11. Partnership firm engaged in banking business can have maximum—
(A) 5 partners
(B) 10 partners
(C) 20 partners
(D) Any number of partners
Ans. (B)
12. Suppose, the partnership deed provides for a salary of Rs. 5000 p.m. to partner ‘X’. If ‘X’ withdraws only Rs. 3000 in a month, the remaining Rs. 2000 will be—
(A) Debited to his capital a/c
(B) Credited to his drawing a/c
(C) Credited to his current a/c
(D) Credited to P & L adjustment a/c
Ans. (A)
13. In absence of any provisions in the partnership agreement, partners can charge on the loans given by them to the firm—
(A) Interest at 6% p.a.
(B) Interest at 12% p.a.
(C) Interest at 15% p.a.
(D) No interest
Ans. (A)
14. A, B and C are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio 4 : 3 : 2 D is admitted for 1/10th share, the new ratio will be—
(A) 4 : 4 : 3 : 2
(B) 4: 3 : 2: 1
(C) 5 : 4 : 3 : 2
(D) None of the above
Ans. (B)
15. A and B shared profit in the ratio of 3 : 2 C was admitted as a partner for 1/5th share. He acquires 3/20th from A and 1/20th from B. The new profit sharing ratio would be—
(A) 10:6:4
(B) 6:10:4
(C) 8:8:4
(D) 9:7:4
Ans. (D)
16. Goodwill of a firm of A and B is valued at Rs. 60000. Goodwill appears in the books at Rs. 24000. C is admitted for 1/4th share. He will be required to bring for goodwill—
(A) Rs.21000
(B) Rs.9000
(C) Rs. 15000
(D) Rs. 6000
Ans. (D)
17. A plant worth Rs. 800000 has been insured for Rs. 600000. The loss on account of fire is Rs. 500000. The insurance company under average clause will bear the loss to extent of—
(A) Rs. 500000
(C) Rs. 800000
(B) Rs.600000
(D) Rs. 375000
Ans. (A)
18. It is not an item of Income with reference to a voyage a/c—
(A) Passage money
(B) Freight
(C) Primage
(D) Address commission
Ans. (D)
19. The formats of the profit and loss account and Balance sheet in the case of a banking company have been revised w.e.f.—
(A) 1st April 1949
(B) 1st April 1991
(C) 1st April 1992
(D) 1st April 1956
Ans. (C)
20. If accured outstanding premium is given in the trial balance of a general insurance company, then it will be shown in—
(A) Revenue Account
(B) Balance Sheet
(C) Both revenue Account & Balance Sheet
(D) None of the above
Ans. (B)
21. Inventory is valued at lower of the cost or net realisable value on account of the accounting principle of—
(A) Realisation
(B) Consistency
(C) Conservatism
(D) None of the above
Ans. (A)
22. In the period of rising prices, LIFO method may result in—
(A) Lowering the profit
(B) Raising the profit
(C) Raising the tax liability
(D) None of the above
Ans. (B)
23. Given,
Total assets turnover 4
Net Profits 10%
Total Assets Rs. 50000
Net profit will be—
(A) Rs. 15000
(B) Rs. 10000
(C) Rs. 25000
(D) Rs.20000
Ans. (D)
24. A company auditor addresses his audit report to-
(A) Board of directors
(B) Members
(C) Managing director
(D) Company secretary
Ans. (B)
25. Bonus shares means shares issued to—
(A) Workers
(B) Existing equity shareholders
(C) Preferential shareholders in lieu of dividend
(D) Debenture holders in lieu of interest
Ans. (B)
26. Which of the following does not call for physical verification?
(A) Stock
(B) Plant
(C) Loose tools
(D) Goodwill
Ans. (D)
27. Cash from operations is equal to—
(A) Net profit + increase in current assets
(B) Net profit + decrease in current liabilities
(C) Profit from operation ± Adjustment of increase and decrease in current assets and liabilities
(D) Fund from operation ± Adjustment of increase and decrease in current assets and current liabilities
Ans. (C)
28. Average profit of a firm is Rs. 9000 Firm’s capital is Rs. 60000 and normal return on business is expected at 10%. The goodwill by capitalisation method will be-
(A) Rs. 30000
(B) Rs. 20000
(C) Rs. 25000
(D) Rs. 40000
Ans. (A)
29. Which of the following is not a current liability?
(A) Bank overdraft
(B) Redeemable debentures
(C) Account payable
(D) Provision for bad debts
Ans. (B)
30. Amount of under writing commission payable on the issue of debentures is limited to—
(A) 2%
(B) 2.5%
(C) 3%
(D) 5%
Ans. (B)
31. Which of the following acid test ratio can be said to be satisfactory?
(A) 2: 1
(C) 1: 1
(B) 1: 2
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)
32. The two factor theory of motivation was propounded by—
(A) Peter Drucker
(B) Herzberg
(C) McGregor
(D) Maslow
Ans. (B)
33. Which of the following leadership styles is most commonly found now a day?
(A) Autocratic
(B) Democratic
(C) Free rein
(D) Participative
Ans. (B)
34. Deciding in advance what is to be done in future is called—
(A) Management
(B) Coordination
(C) Planning
(D) Decision-making
Ans. (C)
35. The organisation structure where there is direct vertical relationship is called—
(A) Line organisation
(B) Chain organisation
(C) Command organisation
(D) All the above
Ans. (D)
36. When managers devote their attention only to those events where results are highly deviated from normal; ft is called—
(A) Management by objective
(B) Management by exception
(C) Management by crisis
(D) Management by choice
Ans. (B)
37. Under delegation of authority—
(A) Authority is given to subordinates
(B) Authority flows from top to bottom
(C) Delegator of authority is not received of accountability
(D) All the above happens
Ans. (D)
38. The process of determining by observation and study and reporting pertinent information relating to the nature of specific job is called—
(A) Job specification
(B) Job evaluation
(C) Job analysis
(D) Job description
Ans. (C)
39. In case of a private company—
(A) There is restriction on the right to transfer of shares
(B) The number of members is restricted
(C) Invitation to public for the subscription of shares is prohibited
(D) All of the above
Ans. (D)
40. A person at anyone time can not be DIRECT of more than—
(A) 1 Company
(B) 7 Companies
(C) 15 Companies
(D) 20 Companies
Ans. (C)
41. Certificate of commencement of business is not required by a—
(A) Public company
(B) Any type of company
(C) Private company
(D) Private company subsidiary to a public company
Ans. (C)
42. Henry Fayol is known for—
(A) Scientific management
(B) Rationalisation
(C) Industrial psychology
(D) Principles of managements
Ans. (D)
43. The principle of unity of command’ implies—
(A) Unity of thought and action
(B) Unity amongst subordinates
(C) Instructions from staff authority
(D) Instructions from line authority
Ans. (D)
44. A company has equity capital of Rs. 200000. Preference capital of Rs. 100000, 12% debentures of Rs. 100000, long term loan of Rs. 200000 and short term loan of Rs. 100000. The capital gearing ratio will be—
(A) 1:1
(B) 0.5: 1
(C) 0.4: 1
(D) None of the above
Ans. (C)
45. In case of a company, total assets less outside liabilities is called—
(A) Net working capital
(B) Gross working capital
(C) Deferred liabilities
(D) Net worth
Ans. (D)
46. If opening sales is Rs. 10000 purchases Rs. 30000 direct expenses Rs. 4000 and closing stock Rs. 5000 the costs of goods is sold would be—
(A) Rs. 39000
(B) Rs. 40000
(C) Rs.41000
(D) Rs. 44000
Ans. (A)
47. Premium on issue of shares is shown in balance sheet as—
(A) An asset
(B) A liability
(C) An expense
(D) A revenue
Ans. (B)
48. Which of the following is known as ‘backbone of auditing’?
(A) Verification of assets
(B) Internal check
(C) Vouching
(D) Internal audit
Ans. (C)
49. A limited company? 100 shares of Rs. 10/- cash fully called up on which Rs. 4/- per share was paid up. The company reissued 50 shares at the rates of Rs. 8/- each. The amount transferred to capital reserve will be—
(A) Rs. 500
(B) Rs.200
(C) Rs. 250
(D) Rs. 100
Ans. (D)
50. Sale of long term investments indicates—
(A) A change in current assets
(B) Application of funds
(C) Increase in working capital
(D) Source of funds
Ans. (D)
51. Net working capital refers to—
(A) Current assets
(B) Current assets minus current liabilities
(C) Equity share capital minus fixed assets
(D) Retired earnings.
Ans. (B)
52. If sales Rs. 6000 gross profit is 1/3 on cost, purchases are R. 4900 and the closing stock is Rs. 900, the opening stock will be—
(A) Rs.400
(B) Rs.500
(C) Rs. 1100
(D) Rs. 2000
Ans. (B)
53. The primary objective of audit is—
(A) Detection and prevention of frauds
(B) Detection and prevention of errors
(C) Detection of frauds and errors
(D) To ensure the final accounts and statements exhibit true and fair position of business
Ans. (D)
54. ‘An auditor is a watch dog and not a blood hound’. This was observed in case of—
(A) London oil storage company
(B) Kingston cotton Mills Limited
(C) London General Bank
(D) Delightful Cigarette Company Ltd.
Ans. (B)
55. If two or more sugar mills combine together, it is known—
(A) Horizontal combination
(B) Vertical combination
(C) Lateral combination
(D) None of the above
Ans. (A)
56. Surrender value is related to—
(A) Marine insurance
(B) General insurance
(C) Life insurance
(D) Fire insurance
Ans. (C)
57. Over capitalisation refer to—
(A) Excess of capital
(B) Excess rate of dividend payment, on shares
(C) Over estimation of rate of capitalisation
(D) Raising more capital than is warranted by its earning power
Ans. (D)
58. Motivation refers to—
(A) Coordinate the people
(B) Guide the working people
(C) Terrorise the people
(D) Inducing people to work willing by
Ans. (D)
59. Which of the following is not a barrier in communication—
(A) Fear and distrust
(B) Affection
(C) Perception
(D) Noise
Ans. (B)
60. “Management is an art of getting things done through and with formally organised group.” This definition has been by—
(A) Peter Drucker
(B) Henry Fayol
(C) Harod Koontz
(D) F. W. Taylor
Ans. (C)
61. Foreign exchange for import of goods is sanctioned by—
(A) Exim Bank
(B) Reserve Bank of India
(C) State Bank
(D) Ministry of commerce
Ans. (B)
62. The cost of a machine having a span of life of 5 years is Rs. 10000. It has a scrap value of Rs. 1000. The amount of depreciation in the first year under the sum of year’s digit method will be—
(A) Rs. 1600
(B) Rs. 1800
(C) Rs. 2000
(D) Rs. 3000
Ans. (D)
63. Given:
Gross profit Rs. 60000
Gross profit ratio: 20%
Debtor’s velocity 2 months
The amount of debtors will be—
(A) Rs. 30000
(B) Rs. 50000
(C) Rs. 120000
(D) Rs.200000
Ans. (B)
64. Premium on issue of shares can be used for—
(A) Issue of Bonus shares
(B) Payment of Dividends
(C) Payment of operating expenses
(D) Redemption of debentures
Ans. (A)
65. If current ratio is 25, quick ratio (1) 5 and net working capital Rs. 15000. This value of inventory will be—
(A) Rs. 10000
(B) Rs. 15000
(C) Rs. 37500
(D) Rs. 52500
Ans. (A)
66. Unclaimed dividend is shown on the liability side of the balance sheet under the heading—
(A) Revenue and surplus
(B) Provisions
(C) Current liabilities
(D) Miscellaneous items
Ans. (C)
67. Accounting standards in India are prescribed by—
(A) Company Law Board
(B) Institute of charted accountants of India
(C) Institute of coat and works accountants of India
(D) Indian standard Board
Ans. (B)
68. Which of the following is not correct—
(A) Purchase + Opening stock—Cost of goods sold = Closing stock
(B) Opening stock + Purchases — Closing stock = Cost of goods sold
(C) Closing stock + Cost of goods sold — Purchases = Opening stock
(D) Cost of goods sold — Closing stock + Purchases = Opening stock
Ans. (D)
69. A company bought assets worth Rs. 360000 and in lieu issued debentures of Rs. 100 each at a discount of 10%. The number of debentures issued will be—
(A) 3000
(B) 3600
(C) 3960
(D) 400
Ans. (D)
70. A person got insured his goods worth Rs. 10000 for Rs.80QO against fire. Loss by fire to him was Rs. 9000. He can claim—
(A) Rs. 8000
(B) Rs. 9000
(C) Rs. 10000
(D) Rs. 7200
Ans. (D)
71. The data obtained from a newspaper are—
(A) Primary data
(B) Secondary data
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Ans. (B)
72. Current Ratio of a firm is 3: 1 and working capital is Rs. 60000. What will be the amount of current Assets—
(A) Rs. 30000
(B) Rs90000
(C) Rs. 120000
(D) Rs. 180000
Ans. (B)
73. The income from that house property is taxable under the head “Income from House property”.
(A) The assessee has ownership on that house
(B) The assessee uses that house for his business
(C) The assessee himself lives in that house
(D) The assessee has let out that house on rent for residence
Ans. (A)
74. Following is the deduction in respect of repair under the head of income from house property—
(A) 25% of Annual Value
(B) 30% of Net Annual Value
(C) 1/5 of Annual Value
(D) 1/5 of Net Annual Value
Ans. (B)
75. Single entry system can not be maintained by—
(A) Sole proprietorship
(B) Partnership concerns
(C) Joint stock company
(D) All of these
Ans. (D)
76. Cash account will not be affected by—
(A) Cash paid to creditors
(B) Discount received
(C) Cash sales
(D) Cash received from debtors
Ans. (B)
77. Maximum standard Deduction for employees getting gross salary not more than Rs.100000 is allowed—
(A) Rs. 20000
(B) Rs. 25000
(C) Rs. 30000
(D) Rs. 33000
Ans. (C)
78. Tax audit is compulsory in case of a person carrying on business whose gross receipt) turnover/sales and exceeds—
(A) Rs. 50 Lakhs
(B) Rs. 40 Lakhs
(C) Rs. l0 Lakhs
(D) Rs. 25 Lakhs
Ans. (B)
79. Mr. Rastogi of Meerut was declared insolvent. One of his liabilities related to one months rent due to his landlord. This liability will be treated as—
(A) Preferential Creditor
(B) Partly Secured Creditor
(C) Fully Secured Creditor
(D) Unsecured Creditor
Ans. (A)
80. When two or more companies liquidate to form a new company. It is called—
(A) Amalgamation
(B) Absorption
(C) Reconstruction
(D) Purchase of Business
Ans. (A)
81. A, B and C are partners in a firm. If D is to be admitted to the firm as a new partner—
(A) Old firm has to be dissolved
(B) Old partnership has to be dissolved
(C) Both the old firm and the old partnership have to be dissolved
(D) No need to dissolve either firm or the partnership
Ans. (D)
82. Remington sold one typewriter to Ramesh Chandra under installment purchase system on 1st January 1996, payment for which was to be made as under—
On 01.01.1996 - Rs. 3000
On 31.12.1996 - Rs. 1700
On 31.12.1997 - Rs. 3600
On 31.12.1998 - Rs. 2300
On 31.12.1999 - Rs. 1100
Interest at 10% p.a. is included in each installment. The total interest charged amount to-
(A) Rs.2100
(B) Rs. 1950
(C) Rs. 1800
(D) Rs. 1700
Ans. (B)
83. The liquidator of a company is entit1edio a remuneration of 2% on assets realised, and 3% on the amount distributed to unsecured creditors. The assets realised Rs. 100000 including cash balance of Rs. 3000. Amount available for distribution to unsecured creditors before paying liquidators remui4eration was Rs. 46350 liquidator’s remuneration will be—
(A) Rs.3100
(C) Rs. 3290
(B) Rs.3140
(D) Rs. 3350
Ans. (C)
84. EXIM Bank was established on—
(A) 1st Dec 1984
(B) 1st June 1985
(C) 1st Jan 1982
(D) 1st July 1980
Ans. (C)
85. For capital gain being long term capital gain, an asses see should retain the assets for a period of—
(A) 40 months
(B) 36 months
(C) More than 36 months
(D) Less than 36 months
Ans. (C)
86. The salary received by a member of parliament is—
(A) Exempt from Tax
(B) Taxable under the head of salary
(C) Taxable under the head of other sources
(D) Taxable under the lead of business
Ans. (C)
87. For the purpose of income tax it is necessary for agriculture income that—
(A) Land should be used for agricultural activities
(B) Land should be used for godown
(C) Land should be used for irrigation
(D) None of above
Ans. (A)
88. Depreciation is allowed on—
(A) Tangible Assets
(B) Current Assets
(C) Fixed Assets
(D) Intangible Assets
Ans. (C)
89. When shares are forfeited, the share capital account is debited by—
(A) Nominal value of forfeited shares
(B) Paid up amount of forfeited shares
(C) Called up amount on forfeited shares
(D) Forfeited amount of shares
Ans. (C)
90. The term ‘POIM’ for the four functions of management. Planning, organisation, integration and measuring was given by.—
(A) F.W. Taylor
(B) Harold Smiddy
(C) Tanon Brown
(D) Peter F. Drucker
Ans. (B)
7th December 2015, 12:54 PM
Re: Food Corporation of India Limited Management Trainee (Accounts) last year papers

Hello, I want to give the Food Corporation of India Limited Management Trainee (Accounts) paper and I want the last year papers.
7th December 2015, 01:03 PM
Super Moderator
Join Date: Apr 2013
Re: Food Corporation of India Limited Management Trainee (Accounts) last year papers

Hello, here I am providing you some of the sample questions asked in the Food Corporation of India Limited Management Trainee (Accounts) as under:

DIRECTIONS: (Question No. 1 to5) Answer the questions on
the basis of information given below?
A tournament is organized among five teams Ahmadabad,
Bombay, Calcutta, Delhi and England. This is a round robin
league tournament where each team has to play every other
team exactly once. For any team, three points are awarded
for a win, one point for a draw and no point for a loss.
The following table is incomplete even after the end of the
TEAM W D L P (Total Point)
Ahmadabad 7
Bombay 2
Calcutta 1
Delhi 10
England 7
W = Number of matches won
L = Number of matches lost
D = Number of matches drawn
P = Total Points
1. Which team/s did Ahmadabad beat?
(1) Only Delhi and England
(2) Only Delhi
(3) Only Bombay and Calcutta
(4) Only Bombay and England

2. Which team/s drew the match with Bombay?
(1) Only Ahmadabad (2) Only Calcutta and Delhi
(3) Only Delhi and England (4) Only England

3. Which team had the highest number of draw?
(1) Bombay (2) Ahmadabad
(3) Calcutta (4) Delhi

4. Which of the following team/s did team England beat?
(1) Only Delhi
(2) Only Bombay and Calcutta
(3) Only Ahmadabad and Delhi
(4) Only Ahmadabad and Bombay

5. Team England drew match with?
(1) Only Calcutta and Delhi
(2) Only Ahmadabad
(3) Only Bombay
(4) Only Bombay and Calcutta

6. If A = 1, FAT = 27 then FAINT = ?
(1) 44 (2) 42
(3) 41 (4) 50

7. P, Q, R are educated; P, R & S are hard working; R, S,
& T are employed; P, Q, S, & T are polite. Who is
educated, hard working polite but not employed.
(1) P (2) Q
(3) R (4) T

DIRECTIONS: (Question No. 8 to 10) These questions are to be
answered on the basis of the following table giving some data
about cricket matches between India and New Zeland
India vs New Zeland :
Played : 42
won by India : 24
won by New Zeland : 18
Highest innings total :
India 289 – 3 (50) Delhi 1994–95,NewZeland 348 (50) Nagpur
Lowest innings total :
India 113 (44.2) Perth 1985–86, New Zeland 126 (35) Bombay
Highest match aggregates : 597 (89.3)
New Zeland 348–8 (50)
India 249 – (39.3) at Nagpur 1995–96
Lowest match aggregates : 228 (84.3)
New Zeland 115–7 (40.1)
India 113 – (44.2) at Perth 1985–86
Centuries for India
117 S.R. Tendulkar – 14-5-97
115 S.R. Tendulkar – 28-10-94
108 M. Azharrudin – 17-12-88
103 S.M. Gavaskar – 31-10-87
102 M. Amarnath – 27-03-88
Centuries for New Zeland
114 G.M. Twiner – 14-6-75
114 N.J. Astle – 26-11-95
108 K.R. Rutherford – 28-10-94
107 M.D. Crowe – 15-11-95
104 M.D. Crowe – 01-03-90
103 C.L. Cairne – 24.11.95
8. If the number of matches won by either side was to be
shown on the pie chart, what would be the angle
subtended at the center by the sector used to
represent the number of matches won by New Zeland?
(1) 120° (2) 180°
(3) 154° (4) 130°

9. In the same pie chart the angle for India (to represent
the number of matches won) would be:
(1) 206°
(2) 230°
(3) 240°
(4) 180°

10. The ratio of the number of matches in which centuries
were made to the number of matches won by India is:
(1) 2/7
(2) 5/24
(3) 3/8
(4) 1/5
Food Corporation of India Limited Management Trainee (Accounts) last year papers

Here I am providing you some of more papers as under:

Quick Reply
Your Username: Click here to log in


Thread Tools Search this Thread

All times are GMT +5. The time now is 03:38 AM.

Powered by vBulletin® Version 3.8.11
Copyright ©2000 - 2024, vBulletin Solutions Inc.
SEO by vBSEO 3.6.0 PL2

1 2 3 4