#1
29th January 2013, 01:03 PM
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FMGE Question Papers Download
Will you please give me the FMGE screening test Question Papers pattern & also give me the syllabus?
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#2
30th January 2013, 03:50 PM
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Re: FMGE Question Papers Download
You are looking for the FMGE screening test Question Papers pattern, I am giving here: Paper Pattern: There are 2 sittings in which there are 150 questions of 1 mark each, in each sitting. The candidate should get at least 50% marks to clear this screening test. There is no negative marking. Syllabus: Here I am forwarding a link from where you can get the FMGE screening test syllabus, that link is our own website, on where we have already uploaded that syllabus. The link is: FMGE exam question papers - 2013 StudyChaCha |
#3
10th October 2019, 01:15 PM
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Re: FMGE Question Papers Download
Hi buddy here I am looking for FMGE entrance exam Question Papers to do preparation of this exam so will you plz let me know from where I can do download its question paper ??
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#4
10th October 2019, 01:16 PM
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Re: FMGE Question Papers Download
As you are asking for FMGE entrance exam Question Papers to do preparation of this exam so on your demand : Anatomy Q 1. All the following are derivatives of the neural crest, except: A. Melanocyte B. Adrenal medulla C. Sympathetic ganglia D. Cauda equina Ans. D Q 2. Which of the following is true regarding gastrulation: A. Establishes all the three germ layers B. Occurs at the caudal end of the embryo prior to its cephalic end C. Involves the hypoblastic cells of inner cell mass D. Usually occurs at 4 weeks Ans. A Q 3. All the following features are seen in neurons from dorsal root ganglia, except: A. They have centrally located nuclei B. They are derived from neural crest cells C. They are multipolar D. They contain lipofuscin granules Ans. C Q 4. Elastic cartilage is found in: A. Auditory tube B. Nasal septum C. Articular cartilage D. Costal cartilage Ans. A Q 5. The weight of the upper limb is transmitted to the axial skeleton by: A. Coracoclavicular ligament B. Coracoacromial ligament C. Costoclavicular ligament D. Coracohumeral ligament Ans. A Q 6. The superficial external pudendal artery is a branch of: A. Femoral artery B. External iliac artery C. Internal iliac artery D. Aorta Ans. A Q 7. Diaphragmatic hernia can occur through all the following, except: A. Esophageal opening B. Costovertebral triangle C. Costal and sternal attachment of diaphragm D. Inferior vena cava opening Ans. D Q 8. Ureteric constriction is seen at all the following positions, except: A. Ureteropelvic junction B. Ureterovesicle junction C. Crossing of iliac artery D. Ischial spine Ans. D Q 9. All the following are true regarding blood supply to the kidney , except: A. Stellate veins drain superficial zone B. It is site of portosystemic anastomosis C. The renal artery divides into five segmental arteries before entering the hilum D. Its segmental arteries are end-arteries Ans. B Q 10. A patient with external hemorrhoids develops pain while passing stools. The nerve mediating this pain is: A. Hypogastric nerve B. Pudendal nerve C. Splachnic visceral nerve D. Sympathetic plexus Ans. B Q 11. Which of the following muscles is supplied by mandibular nerve: A. Masseter B. Buccinator C. Tensor veli palati D. Posterior belly of digastric Ans. C Q 12. The sensoy supply of the palate is through all of the following, except: A. Facial nerve B. Hypoglossal nerve C. Glossopharyngeal nerve D. Maxillary division of trigeminal nerve Ans. B Q 13. All of the following are features of large intestine, except: A. Large intestine secretes acidic mucus which helps in formation of stools B. It is a site of mucocutaneous junction C. Its epithelium contains globlets cells in large numbers D. Absorbs salt and water Ans. A Q 14. In flexion and abduction of shoulder all of the following structures are compressed except: A. Subacromial bursa B. Long head of biceps C. Suprascapular nerve D. Supraspinatus tendon Ans. C Physiology Q 15. SI unit for measuring blood pressure is: A. Torr B. mrnHg C. kPa D. Bar Ans. C Q 16. Glucose mediated insulin release is mediated through: A. ATP dependent K+ channels B. cAMP C. Carrier modulators D. Receptor phosphorylation Ans. A Q 17. Sudden decrease in serum calcium is associated with: A. Increased thyroxine and PTH secretion B. Increased phosphate C. Increased excitability of muscle and nerve D. Cardiac conduction abnormalities Ans. C Q 18. Ablation of the somatosensory area 1 of the cerebral cortex leads to: A. Total loss of pain sensation B. Total loss of touch sensation C. Loss of tactile localization but not of two point discrimination D. Loss of tactile localization and two point discrimination Ans. D Q 19. Non shivering thermogenesis in adults is due to: A. Thyroid hormone B. Brown fat between the shoulders C. Adrenaline from adrenal medulla D. Muscle metabolism Ans. C Q 20. In metabolic acidosis, which of the following changes are seen: A. Increased K+excretion B. Decreased K+ excretion C. Increased Na+ excretion D. Increased Na+ reabsorption Ans. B Q 21. Tropomyosin: A. Helps in the fusion of actin and myosin B. Covers myosin and prevents attachments of actin and myosin C. Slides over myosin D. Causes Ca2+ release Ans. B Q 22. TRH stimulation testing is useful in diagnosis of disorders of following hormones: A. Insulin B. ACTH C. Prolactin D. PTH Ans. C Q 23. During muscular exercise all are seen except: A. Increase in blood flow to muscles B. Stroke volume increases C. O2 dissociation curve shifts to left D. O2 consumption increases Ans. C Biochemistry Q 24. All enzymes are not proteins. This statement is justified by: A. All enzymes do not follow the Michaelis Menten hypothesis B. RNAs act as ribozymes C. Antibodies take part in the catalysis of many reactions D. Metals are involved in attachment to enzymes and catalysts Ans. B Q 25. Enzymes mediating transfer of one molecule to another are: A. Transferases B. Oxidases C. Lysases D. Peptidases Ans. A Q 26. In which of the following reactions is magnesium required: A. Na+K+ ATPase B. Dismutase C. Phosphatase D. Aldolase Ans. A Q 27. In oxidative phosphorylation, the ATP production and respiratory chain are linked by: A. Chemical methods B. Physical methods C. Chemiosmotic methods D. Conformational changes Q Ans. C Q 28. Thiamine level is best monitored by: A. Transketolase level in RBC B. Thiamine level in blood C. G-6-PD activity D. Reticulocytosis Ans. A Q 29. Vitamin B12 and folic acid supplementation in megaloblastic anemia leads to the improvement of anemia due to: A. Increased DNA synthesis in bone marrow B. Increased hemoglobin production C. Erythroid hyperplasia D. Increased iron absorption Ans. A Q 30. Nitric oxide synthase: A. Is inhibited by Ca++ B. Catalyses a dioxygenase reaction C. Accepts electrons from NADH D. Requires NADH, FAD, FMN & heme iron Ans. D Q 31. Phenylalanine is the precursor of all the following, except: A. Tyrosine B. Epinephrine C. Thyroxine D. Melatonin Ans. D Q 32. In a well fed state, acetyl CoA obtained from diet is least used in the synthesis of: A. Palmity CoA B. Citrate C. Acetoacetate D. Oxalosuccinate Ans. C Q 33. Substrate level phosphorylation in citric acid cycle is seen in the conversion of: -ketoglutaratea A. Acetoacetate to B. Succinyl CoA to succinate C. Fumarate to malate D. Succinate to fumarate Ans. B Q 34. Apo B48 and apo B100 are expressed as two different apo-proteins because of differe A. RNA editing B. RNA splicing C. Chromosomal loci D. Apo-B gene Ans. A Q 35. All the following can be used to detect mutation, except: A. Single strand conformational polymorphism B. Ligase chain reaction C. Polymerase chain reaction D. DNA sequencing Ans. B Q 36. Which of the following is true regarding hydroxy ethyl starch: A. It is an anesthetic agent B. It is a plasma expander C. It is a crystalloid D. Used as a nutritional agent Ans. B Q 37. Elasticity of the corneal layer of SKIN is due to the presence of: A. Histidine B. Keratin C. Lysine D. Cysteine Ans. B Q 38. In dividing cells, spindle is formed by: A. Ubiquitin B. Tubulin C. Laminin D. Keratin Ans. B Q 39. Entropy in a biological system is constant because: A. It is an open system B. It is a closed system C. It is a governed by vitalism D. Has exothermic-endothermic reactions Ans. D Q 40. Which of the following is true regarding a system which favours oscillatory responses: A. Has proportional component B. Has a greater gain C. Has a lesser gain D. Positive FEEDBACK system Ans. D Q 41. Highest binding of iron is seen with: A. Transferrin B. Ferritin C. Haemoglobin D. Ceruloplasmin Ans. C Pathology Q 42. The epitheloid cell and multinucleated gaint cells of granulomatous inflammation are derived from: A. Basophils B. Eosinophils C. CD4 T lymphocytes D. Monocytes-macrophages Ans. D Q 43. The following host tissue responses can be seen in acute infection, except: A. Exudation B. Vasodilation C. Margination D. Granuloma formation Ans. D Q 44. The following feature is common to both cytotoxic T cells and NK cells: A. Synthesize antibody B. Require antibodies to be present for action C. Effective against virus infected cells D. Recognize antigen in association with HLA class II markers Ans. C Q 45. In the intra-epithelial region of the mucosa of intestine the predominant cell population is that of: A. B cell B. T cells C. Plasma cells D. Basophils Ans. B Q 46. In primary tuberculosis, all of the following may be seen except: A. Cavitation B. Caseation C. Calcification D. Langerhan giant cell Ans. A Q 47. A mylocardial infarct showing early granulation tissue has most likely occurred: A. Less than 1 hours B. Within 24 hours C. Within 1 week D. Within 1 month Ans. D Q 48. A 10 year old boy, died of acute rheumatic fever. All the following can be expected at autopsy except: A. Ashoff nodules B. Rupture of chordae tendinae C. McCallum patch D. Fibrinous pericarditis Ans. B Q 49. All of the following are seen in asbestosis except: A. Diffuse alveolar damage B. Calcified pleural plaques C. Diffuse pulmonary interstitial fibrosis D. Mesotheliomas Ans. A Q 50. Macrophages containing large quantities of undigested and partial digested bacteria in intestine are seen in: A. Whipples disease B. Amyloidosis C. Immunoproliferative small instetinal disease D. Vibrio cholerae infection Ans. A |
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