ESIC staff nurse entrance exam sample paper

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ESIC staff nurse entrance exam model question paper

Nursing Aptitude Test Free Sample Questions
1. Which of the following set is the evidence of evolution?
(a) Homologous and vestigial organs
(b) Analogous and vestigial organs
(c) Homologous and analogous organs
(d) All of the above
Ans. (a)

2. Of the following anatomical structures, which is homologous to the wing of a bat?
(a) The arm of a human
(b) The wing of a butterfly
(c) The tail of a fish
(d) The dorsal fin of a shark
Ans. (a)

3. Which one of the following sets of structures includes only analogous organs?
(a) Wings of butterfly, housefly and bat
(b) Hind legs of horse
(c) Hands of man, monkey and kangaroo
(d) Mandibles of cockroach, mosquito and honeybee
Ans. (a)

4. Which of the following set represents all vestigial structures in the human body?
(a) Vermiform appendix, body hair and cochlea
(b) Wisdom teeth, coccyx and patella
(c) Coccyx, vermiform appendix and muscles of ear pinna
(d) Body hair, muscles of ear pinna and atlas vertebra
Ans. (c)

5. The earliest animal to have been domesticated by man most likely the
(a) Horse
(b) Pig
(c) Dog
(d) Cow
Ans. (c)

6. Presence of gill slits in the embryo of all vertebrates supports the theory of
(a) Organic evolution
(b) Recapitulation
(c) Metamorphosis
(d) Biogenesis
Ans. (b)

7. Appearance of ancestral characters in the new borne, such as tail, multiple mammae, etc., are known as
(a) Homologous
(b) Analogous
(c) Atavistic
(d) Vestigial
Ans. (c)

8. Evolution is defined as
(a) History of race
(b) Development of race
(c) History and development of race with variations
(d) Progressive history of race
Ans. (c)

9. The book named “Philosophic zoologique” was published in 1809 and was written by:
(a) Mendel
(b) Darwin
(c) De Vries
(d) Lamarck
Ans. (d)

10. Penguin is a bird that lost the use of its wings by not flying. Such a statement would express the views of
(a) Darwin
(b) Wallace
(c) Lamarck
(d) Huxley
Ans. (c)

11. A scientist kept 80 generations of Drosophila in darkness, even after that the flies had normal eyes. This disapproves law of
(a) Natural selection
(b) Acquired characters
(c) Use and disuse
(d) Synthetic theory
Ans. (b)

12. Weismann cut off tails of mice generation after generation but tails neither disappeared nor shortened showing that
(a) Darwin was correct
(b) Tail is an essential organ
(c) Mutation theory is wrong
(d) Lamarckism was wrong in inheritance of acquired characters
Ans. (d)

13. What did CHARLES DARWIN publish in 1859?
(a) Origin of Species by Natural selection
(b) Species plantarum
(c) Philosophie Zoologique
(d) De Naturien Familien
Ans. (a)

14. The book ‘Descent of Man and Selection in Relation to Sex’ was written by:
(a) Charles Darwin
(b) J.B. Lamarck and C. Darwin
(c) F.B. Sumner and E. Darwin
(d) Robert Brown
Ans. (a)

15. Darwin worked on Galapagos finches. The number of species of these finches is
(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 14
(d) 11
Ans. (c)

16. Which one of the following evolutionists proposed the theory of evolution similar to
Charles Darwin’s?
(a) Alfred Russell Wallace
(b) Erasmus Darwin
(c) Thomas Godfrey
(d) Thomas Robert Malthus
Ans. (a)

17. The ultimate source of organic variation is
(a) natural selection
(b) sexual reproduction
(c) hormonal action
(d) mutations
Ans. (d)

18. World environment day is
(a) 5th June
(b) 28th February
(c) 5th August
(d) 28th April
Ans. (a)

19. Tendon connects
(a) Cartilage with muscles
(b) Bone with muscles
(c) Ligament with muscles
(d) Bone with bone
Ans. (b)

20. Sewage infection of water will be demonstrated by cysts of
(a) Entamoeba
(b) Escherichia coli
(c) Pseudomonas
(d) Leishmania
Ans. (a)

21. Which type of tissue forms glands?
(a) Epithelial
(b) Connective
(c) Nervous
(d) Muscle
Ans. (a)

22. Eutrophication leads to death of fish due to
(a) Increased O2 content
(b) increased algae content
(c) decreased algae content
(d) Decreased O2 content
Ans. (d)

23. Sebaceous glands are found in
(a) Dermis of skin of mammals
(b) Epithelium of stomach of frog
(c) Epithelium of intestine of frog
(d) Epidermis of skin of mammals
Ans. (a)

24. Minamata disease is a pollution-related disease, which results from
(a) Release of human organic waste into drinking water
(b) Accumulation of arsenic into atmosphere
(c) Release of industrial waste mercury into fishing water
(d) Oil spills into sea
Ans. (c)

25. Which type of tissue forms the framework of the external ear?
(a) Epithelial
(b) Connective
(c) Muscle
(d) Nervous
Ans. (b)

ESI Nursing job exam questions

1. The most common pathogenic mechanism of acute pancreatitis is –

Auto digestion of the pancreas.

2. What does the nurse monitors for, in a patient with Acute Renal Failure?

Pulmonary edema and ECG changes.

3. A disease caused by Treponema pallidum is –

Syphilis.

4. Which of the following is an important nursing intervention for a patient with Cushing Syndrome?

(a) Left Middle Cerebral Artery (b) Observe for hypotension

(c) Protect from infection (d) Restrict carbohydrate intake.

Ans: Protect from infection.

5. Involvement of which of the following structures will lead to right-sided hemiplegia and aphasia?

(a) Left Middle Cerebral Artery (b) Vertebral Artery (c) Brain stem

(d)Right Middle Cerebral Artery.

Ans: Left Middle Cerebral Artery

6. Which one of the following is a common response expected in a patient with stroke, to the change in body image?

(a)Denial (b) Dis association (c) Delusion (d) Depression.

Ans: Depression.

7. A patient with early osteoporosis must be advised to-

Stop smoking

8. For doing nasotracheal suctioning, during which of the following patient activities, the catheter should be inserted?

(a)Swallowing (b) Inhaling (c) Exhaling (d) Retching

Ans: Inhaling

9. The simple most effective method for reducing the risks of stasis of pulmonary secretions is-

Two hourly position change.

10. What is cyanosis?

Blue discoloration of skin.

11. The period from conception to birth is denoted as –

Prenatal

12. Role of nursing is “having charge of somebody’s health” Whose vision is this?

Florence Nightingale

13. Which of the following developmental stage corresponds to infancy?

(A) Trust Vs Mistrust (b) Autonomy Vs Shame (c) Initiative Vs Guilt (d) Industry Vs Inferiority.

Ans: Trust Vs Mistrust

14. Who proposed the nursing theory of self-care deficit?

Dorothea orem

15. The head circumference of a normal infant is –

33-35 cm

16. The leading cause of death in adolescence is –

Accidents

17. The legal definition of ‘death’ that facilitates organ donation is, cessation of –

Function of brain

18. The body temperature at which tissues and cells can best function is –

36-38o C

19. Men have a higher Basal Metabolic Rate because, their body contains more-Testosterone

20. The mechanism by which body loses heat to the environment, without having direct contact is --?

Radiation

21. Which of the following structures controls heat loss?

(a) Anterior pituitary (b) Posterior pituitary (c) Posterior hypothalamus (d) Anterior hypothalamus

22. Exposure of the body to subnormal temperature can lead to …

Frost-bite

23. What is the effect of an antipyretic?

Reduce fever

24. The volume of blood pumped by the heart during one minute is called….

Cardiac output

25. What is the normal pulse rate of an infant?

120-160

26. The phase of respiration in which gases move in and out of the lungs is ….

Ventilation

27. What is the normal partial pressure of carbon dioxide in arterial blood? (mm Hg)

35-45

28. What is the equipment that indirectly measures arterial oxygen saturation?

Pulse Oximeter

29. What is the term used to denote regular, abnormally slow respirations?

Bradypnea

30. What technique of assessment helps to determine ketoacidosis?

Olfaction

31. Inflammation of skin at base of nail is?

Paronychia

32. The condition in which both eyes do not focus on an object simultaneously is known as?

Strabismus

33. The most effective way to break the chain of infection is by?

Hand hygiene

34. How many drops in a standard drip set makes one ml.?

15

35. The prescription orders 0.125 mg digoxin orally. Tablets containing 0.25 mg is available. How many tablets will you administer?

1/2

36. A patient who is receiving intravenous fluids develops tenderness, warmth, erythema and pain at the infusion site. Which of the following conditions will you suspect?

(a) Sepsis (b) Infiltration (c) Fluid overload (d) Phlebitis

Phlebitis

37. When providing oral hygiene to an unconscious patient, care must be taken to prevent?

Aspiration

38. What is the intrinsic rate of the normal A-V node?

40-60 per minute

39. Which of the following structures is the pacemaker of the heart?

(a) S-A node (b) Septum (c) A-V node (d) Bundle of His

Ans: S-A node

40. The prescription is for two tablespoons of milk of magnesia. How many ml. will you give?

30 ml

41. Which of the following is intravascular fluid?

(a) Lymph (b) Pleural fluid (c) Plasma (d) Synovial fluid_Ans: Plasma

42. If the serum potassium level is less than normal, the condition is known as –

Hypokalemia

43. What electrolyte abnormality is likely to develop in a patient with vomiting?

Hypokalemia

44. How much sodium is normally present in the extra cellular fluid? (in MEq/L).

135-145

45. What is the primary cause of hyperkalemia?

Renal failure

46. Which of the following is an isotonic solution?

(a)Lactated Ringers (b) Half –Normal Saline (c) One-third Normal Saline

(d) Mannitol

Ans: Lactated Ringers

47. Thousand ml. of Normal Saline is to be infused in 8 hours. What should be the rate of flow per minute?

30 drops

48. A patient admitted with vomiting, has the following arterial blood gas levels-pH 7.30; PaCO2 36 mm Hg; Pa O2 92mm Hg; and HCO3 18; what is the acid-base imbalance that is present?

Metabolic acidosis

49. Which of the following is a first-line drug used for pain management?

(a)Acetaminophen (b) Clonidine (c) Morphine (d) Ketamine

Ans: Acetaminophen

50. Which of the following is the organism that causes peptic ulcer disease?

(a) Staphylococcus (b) Coryne bacterium (c) Helicobacter pylori

(d) Streptococcus.

Ans: Helicobacter pylori


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