#1
25th July 2015, 11:23 AM
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Entrance Exam Papers for NIFT
I want to appear in the National Institute of Fashion Technology entrance exam . Provide the NIFT entrance exam paper for practice .
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#2
27th July 2015, 11:16 AM
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Re: Entrance Exam Papers for NIFT
Here I am providing list of few questions of National Institute of Fashion Technology entrance exam question paper which you are looking for . Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar idiom or syntax. Identify part and mark it as the answer. 1. Sunit is more talkative than 2. any boy in the class because 3. he is not afraid of the teacher 4. since he is his brother Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar idiom or syntax. Identify part and mark it as the answer. 1. Lawyers these days can practice 2. civil law, criminal law 3. or the law of the Constitution 4. or all of them together Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar idiom or syntax. Identify part and mark it as the answer 1. She was wearing a wig that was 2. far more attractive than 3. the other women who had 4. their natural hair Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar idiom or syntax. Identify part and mark it as the answer 1. the only persons in the theatre 2. on that stormy night 3. were the staff of the theatre 4. and me Question 5 of 100 Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar idiom or syntax. Identify part and mark it as the answer. 1. After finding the problem 2. the mechanic cleaned the carburetor 3. started the engine 4. and found it working smoothly For the question paper , here is the attachment National Institute of Fashion Technology entrance exam question paper 2007 NIFT Question paper Test Details: Section Name : NIFT - 1 No of questions : 100 Time(minutes) : 120 This paper is up to 40 questions only. Mark for revision | Unmark Question 1 of 100 Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar idiom or syntax. Identify part and mark it as the answer. 1. Sunit is more talkative than 2. any boy in the class because 3. he is not afraid of the teacher 4. since he is his brother Mark for revision | Unmark Question 2 of 100 Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar idiom or syntax. Identify part and mark it as the answer. 1. Lawyers these days can practice 2. civil law, criminal law 3. or the law of the Constitution 4. or all of them together Mark for revision | Unmark Question 3 of 100 Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar idiom or syntax. Identify part and mark it as the answer 1. She was wearing a wig that was 2. far more attractive than 3. the other women who had 4. their natural hair Mark for revision | Unmark Question 4 of 100 Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar idiom or syntax. Identify part and mark it as the answer 1. The only persons in the theatre 2. on that stormy night 3. were the staff of the theatre 4. and me Mark for revision | Unmark Question 5 of 100 Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar idiom or syntax. Identify part and mark it as the answer. 1. After finding the problem 2. the mechanic cleaned the carburetor 3. started the engine 4. and found it working smoothly Mark for revision | Unmark Question 6 of 100 Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar idiom or syntax. Identify part and mark it as the answer. 1. If one reads the newspaper regularly 2. you will be surprised at the improvement 3. in your overall reading skills 4. from day to day Mark for revision | Unmark Question 7 of 100 Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar idiom or syntax. Identify part and mark it as the answer 1. She was as pretty 2. if not prettier than 3. any other girl who had come 4. to participate in the meeting Mark for revision | Unmark Question 8 of 100 The average of 6 numbers is 19. The average of 5 of these is 20. What is the sixth number? 1. 24 2. 38 3. 119 4. 14 Mark for revision | Unmark Question 9 of 100 Two poles of heights 35 m and 20 m stand on a plane surface. If the distance between their feet is 20 m, what is the distance between their tops? 1. 50 m 2. 25 m 3. 40 m 4. 55 m Mark for revision | Unmark Question 10 of 100 of of of a number is 8. What is the number? 1. 72 2. 68 3. 84 4. 70 Mark for revision | Unmark Question 11 of 100 If 3x = , x = ? 1. 3 2. 9 3. – 3 4. ? 9 Mark for revision | Unmark Question 12 of 100 25% of a number is greater than the other number by 5. If sum of the numbers is 70, what is the ratio of the larger number to the smaller number? 1. 6 : 1 2. 3 : 1 3. 5 : 1 4. 4 : 1 Mark for revision | Unmark Question 13 of 100 The third proportional of (X2 – Y2) and (x – y) is ________. 1. 2. 3. (x + y)2 4. x3 ? y3 Mark for revision | Unmark Question 14 of 100 A sum of Rs. 1560 is to be distributed amongst A, B and C in the proportion of : : . What is the share of A? 1. Rs.780 2. Rs.640 3. Rs.720 4. Rs.840 Mark for revision | Unmark Question 15 of 100 Which of the following is the smallest number which when divided by 20, 25, 35 and 40 leaves the remainders as 12, 17, 27 and 32 respectively? 1. 1200 2. 1400 3. 1408 4. 1392 Mark for revision | Unmark Question 16 of 100 The floor of the rectangular room of size 10 m (length) x 8.5 m (width) x 8.5 m (height) is to be carpeted so as to leave a margin of 1.25 m from all sides. What would be the area of the carpet required? 1. 45 sq.m. 2. 40 sq.m 3. 60 sq.m 4. 90 sq.m Mark for revision | Unmark Question 17 of 100 6 examiners working 5 hours a day can check 750 answer books in 8 days. At the same rate of checking, in what period of time can 4 examiners examine 800 answer books, working 8 hours a day? 1. 4 days 2. 8 days 3. 9 days 4. 12 days Mark for revision | Unmark Question 18 of 100 Two railway stations A and B are 300 km apart. In what time will two trains, starting from the opposite ends and travelling towards each other with equal speeds, meet each other? 1. 4 hrs 2. 1 hr. 3. 2 hrs 4. Cannot be determined Mark for revision | Unmark Question 19 of 100 A sailor travels in a boat 8 km downstream in 40 minutes and returns back to the same point in 1 hour. What is the speed of the boat in still water? 1. 6 kmph 2. 12 kmph 3. 9 kmph 4. 10 kmph Mark for revision | Unmark Question 20 of 100 The average age of a couple was 26 years at the time of their marriage. After 11 years of marriage, the average age of the family with 3 children becomes 19 years. What is the average age of the children? 1. 8yrs 2. 6 yrs 3. 7 yrs 4. 11 yrs Mark for revision | Unmark Question 21 of 100 Milk and water are mixed in the ratio 4 : 1 to form solution A and in the ratio of 3 : 2 to form solution B. A man takes equal quantities of solutions A and B and mixes them together. What is the ratio of quantities of milk to that of water in the mixture so formed ? 1. 7 : 3 2. 1 : 1 3. 3 : 7 4. 3 : 2 Mark for revision | Unmark Question 22 of 100 What is the ratio of side of a square to the radius of a circle, both with equal perimeters? 1. 1 : II 2. 2 : II 3. II : 1 4. II : 2 Mark for revision | Unmark Question 23 of 100 Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar idiom or syntax. Identify part and mark it as the answer. 1. There is only the plantain 2. and one apple in the refrigerator 3. so let us go to the market 4. and buy some more fruits Mark for revision | Unmark Question 24 of 100 Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar idiom or syntax. Identify part and mark it as the answer 1. Like his brother who did not wear his helmet 2. and was injured in the accident 3. Rajan was always careful 4. and wore his helmet without fail Mark for revision | Unmark Question 25 of 100 Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar idiom or syntax. Identify part and mark it as the answer 1. It is futile to discuss this further 2. since neither him nor you 3. is going to agree 4. with the other on this issue Mark for revision | Unmark Question 26 of 100 Direction: In the following question four words or phrases have been underlined. Only one underlined part in each sentence is not acceptable in standard English. Pick up the part (A), (B), (C) or (D). I have seen (A) as bed or worse scenes of (B) disorder at the English fair (C) than in (D) any other fair. 1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (D) Mark for revision | Unmark Question 27 of 100 Direction: In the following question four words or phrases have been underlined. Only one underlined part in each sentence is not acceptable in standard English. Pick up the part (A), (B), (C) or (D). This is the third (A) communication we have (B) sent and(C) we are very surprised that we have received (D) no answer 1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (D) Mark for revision | Unmark Question 28 of 100 Direction: In the following question four words or phrases have been underlined. Only one underlined part in each sentence is not acceptable in standard English. Pick up the part (A), (B), (C) or (D). The officers are (A) now (B) perfectly happy fishing, boating, shooting, (C) playing cricket and (D) other sport. 1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (D) Mark for revision | Unmark Question 29 of 100 Direction: In the following question four words or phrases have been underlined. Only one underlined part in each sentence is not acceptable in standard English. Pick up the part (A), (B), (C) or (D). While in conversation(A) with a high ranking military officer (B) he told me that (C) at the head-quarters nothing (D) was known 1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (D) Mark for revision | Unmark Question 30 of 100 Direction: In the following question four words or phrases have been underlined. Only one underlined part in each sentence is not acceptable in standard English. Pick up the part (A), (B), (C) or (D) (A) The fear of an (B) impending invasion has more to do (C) than even the debasing of the coinage with the (D) financial difficulties 1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (D) Mark for revision | Unmark Question 31 of 100 Directions: Select the correct word or phrase to complete a grammatical and idiomatic sentence The patient was cheered --- by the news that she was likely to be discharged in a day or two. 1. on 2. up 3. out 4. down Mark for revision | Unmark Question 32 of 100 Directions: Select the correct word or phrase to complete a grammatical and idiomatic sentence The thieves had driven ten miles before the police caught – them 1. on with 2. upon 3. up to 4. up with Mark for revision | Unmark Question 33 of 100 Directions: Select the correct word or phrase to complete a grammatical and idiomatic sentence As soon as the visitors dishonest purpose was discovered, he was --- the door 1. show with 2. shown to 3. shown 4. shown out of Mark for revision | Unmark Question 34 of 100 Directions: Select the correct word or phrase to complete a grammatical and idiomatic sentence As soon as my attention was --- the dangerous state of the staircase, I got it repaired. 1. drawn for 2. drawn upon 3. drawn near 4. drawn to Mark for revision | Unmark Question 35 of 100 Directions: Select the correct word or phrase to complete a grammatical and idiomatic sentence. ---- pompous, he was an entertaining companion 1. Before 2. Never 3. Though 4. Despite Mark for revision | Unmark Question 36 of 100 Directions: Choose a word or phrase which is opposite in meaning to the key word. Esteem 1. veneration 2. revere 3. mighty 4. disdain Mark for revision | Unmark Question 37 of 100 Directions: Choose a word or phrase which is opposite in meaning to the key word. Eternal 1. permanent 2. perpetual 3. transitory 4. active Mark for revision | Unmark Question 38 of 100 Directions: Choose a word or phrase which is opposite in meaning to the key word Eulogistic 1. pretty 2. critical 3. brief 4. stern Mark for revision | Unmark Question 39 of 100 Directions: Choose a word or phrase which is opposite in meaning to the key word Euphonious 1. strident 2. lethargic 3. literary 4. significant Mark for revision | Unmark Question 40 of 100 Directions: Choose a word or phrase which is opposite in meaning to the key word Evitable 1. unavoidable 2. eatable 3. half-baked 4. crisp |
#3
16th April 2020, 01:49 PM
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Re: Entrance Exam Papers for NIFT
1) A person had deposited Rs 2500 in a bank on Ist January and withdrew Rs 1000 from the bank at the end of 9 months. If the rate of interest is 4% p.a., then the total interest payable to him at the end of the year is: (a) Rs 80 (b) Rs 84 (c) Rs 105 (d) Rs 90 2) A shopkeeper bought pens at the rate of 12 pens for Rs 150 and sold them at the rate of 10pens for Rs 130. The number of pens he should sell to earn a net profit of Rs 20 is: (a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 30 (d) 40 3) The population of a town was 2, 00000. If the number of males increased by 10% and the number of females decreased by 6%, the total population would have remained unchanged. The number of males is: (a) 80,000 (b) 72,000 (c) 75,000 (d) 90,000 4) In a certain examination there are three papers and it is necessary for a candidate to get 36% of the total marks to pass. In one paper a candidate obtained 62 out of 120 and in the second paper he obtained 35 out of 150. To just qualify for pass he must obtain out of 180 in the 3rd paper. (a) 35 (b) 45 (c) 55 (d) 65 5) If 45 students can consume a stock of food in 2 months,find for how many days the same stock of food will last for 27 students. (a) 100 (b)120 (c) 85 (d) 110 6) A pot full of water weighs 9.5 kg. When half-filled with water the pot weighs 5.5 kg. The weight of the empty pot is (in kg): (a) 4 (b) 1.5 (c) 2 (d) 3.5 7) Of the four numbers p, q, r, s, the ratio of the first number to the second is 2: 3, that of the second to the third is 5: 6 and that of the third to the fourth is 8: 9. The continued ratio of the four numbers is: (a) 40 : 60 : 72 : 81 (b) 4 : 6 : 7 : 8 (c) 1 : 2 : 3 : 4 (d) 42 : 65 : 70 : 91 8) A man swimming in a stream which flows 1.5 km per hour finds that in a given time he can swim twice as far with the stream as he can against it. The rate at which he swims is: (a) 4.5 km per hour (b) 4 km per hour (c) 3 km per hour (d) 3.5 km per hour 9) A person had deposited Rs 2500 in a bank on Ist January and withdrew Rs 1000 from the bank at the end of 9 months. If the rate of interest is 4% p.a., then the total interest payable to him at the end of the year is: (a) Rs 80 (b) Rs 84 (c) Rs 105 (d) Rs 90 The question below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer: (1) If the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question. (2) If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question. (3) If the data either in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. (4) If the data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question. (5) If the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question. 10) How many sisters does P have? I. T & V are only sisters of D. II. D is brother of P. (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (e) 5 11) How is ‘over’ written in a code language? I. ‘Over and again’ written as ‘Ka ja ha’ in that code language. II. ‘Come and go’ is written as ‘ja pa na’ in that code language. (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (e) 5 12) Who is to the immediate right of Mohan when Mohan, Salil, Bhushan, Suresh and jayesh are sitting around a circle facing at the centre? I. Salil is third to the left of Mohan. II. Bhushan is between Salil and Jayesh. (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (e) 5 Choose the exact meaning of the idioms/phrases from the given alternatives. 13) Against the grain (a) Contrary to one’s nature or inclination (b) Against the law of nature (c) Trying very hard to achieve something impossible (d) Against the will of others. 14) Hook, line and sinker (a) Elaborately (b) Judiciously (c) Willful preparation (d) Completely Choose one of the alternatives which will replace the underlined part of the sentences in these questions, so as to make them most effective and meaningfully correct 15) The easiest of the thing to do is to ask the address from the postman. (a) of the things to do (b) among the things to do (c) of the things to be done (d) of all the things done 16) The chemist had not hardly any of these kind of medicines. (a) had hardly any of those kinds (b) had hardly not any of those kinds (c) had scarcely any of those kind (d) had hardly any of those kind 17) In the question below there are three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements. STATEMENTS: 1. All dogs are birds 2. Some birds are trees. 3. No house is tree CONCLUSIONS: I. Some houses are dogs. II. Some birds are dogs. III. Some trees are dogs. (a) Only I follows. (b) Only III follows. (c) Only II follows. (d) Only II and III follows. (e) None of these. 18) Who among the following is not a fashion designer: (a) Ritu Kumar (b) Shiv Kumar Sharma (c) Tarun Tahiliani (d) Rahul Khanna 19) National Gallery of Modern Art is located at: (a) Mumbai (b) Kolkata (c) New Delhi (d) Lucknow 20) Which of the following is not a system of colour notation? (a) Ostwald (b) Rocky (c) Munsell (d) Prang Answer Key Q1. Ans: (d) Q2. Ans: (d) Q3. Ans: (c) Q4. Ans: (d) Q5. Ans: (a) Q6. Ans: (b) Q7. Ans: (a) Q8. Ans: (a) Q9. Ans: (d) Q10. Ans: (e) Q11. Ans: (d) Q12. Ans: (e) Q13. Ans: (a) Q14. Ans: (d) Q15. Ans: (a) Q16. Ans: (d) Q17. Ans: (c) Q18. Ans: (b) Q19. Ans: (c) Q20. Ans: (b) |