DU LLB LLM Entrance Exam Question Paper

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1. According to Constitution (Seventy-third) Amendment Act, 1992, in the event of dissolution
of Panchayati Raj institutions election for the new body should be compulsorily held
within
(A) 2 months (B) 4 months
(C) 6 months (D) 8 months

2. Article 144 of the Constitution mandates that all authorities, civil and judicial, in the
territory of India shall act in aid of the
(A) President (B) Supreme Court
(C) Prime Minister (D) Parliament

3. Is there a presumption in favour of the constitutionality of statutes ?
(A) Yes (B) No
(C) Depends (D) Not in all cases

4. The minimum age for the membership of the Legislative Council is
(A) 45 years (B) 30 years
(C) 35 years (D) 21 years

5. Which Schedule of the Constitution deals with the Forms of Oaths or Affirmations ?
(A) Third Schedule (B) Fourth Schedule
(C) Seventh Schedule (D) Ninth Schedule

6. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court rule that the principle of sovereign
immunity will not apply to a proceedings for award of compensation for violation of
fundamental rights
(A) Bhim Singh v. State of Punjab (B) Kasturi Lal v. State of U.P.
(C) Rudal Sah v. State of Bihar (D) Nilabeti Behara v. State of Orissa

7. The Supreme Court has ruled that a person belonging to the non-reserved class
transplanted by adoption or marriage or conversion or any other voluntary act to family
belonging to the reserved class does not become eligible to benefit or reservation either
under Article 5(4) or Article 16(4) of the Constitution in
(A) Indra Sawhney v. UOI
(B) Km. Madhuri Patel v. Addl Commissioner, Tribal Development
(C) Valsamma Paul v. Cochin University
(D) M.D. Kasekar v. Vishnath Pander Barde.

8. The UPSC has to serve only
(A) Selected States (B) Union Territories
(C) Entire Nation (D) Depends on President’s Will

9. Under Article 11 of the Constitution the Parliament passed the Citizenship (Amendment)
Act, 2003 which provides the overseas citizenship to the People of Indian Origin in
(A) 12 specified countries (B) 16 specified countries
(C) 18 specified countries (D) 20 specified countries

10. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
(A) The Constitution gives more importance to the society as a whole
(B) The Constitution is individual centric or individual oriented
(C) The Constitution is social-economic pattern of the society but ignores the individual
(D) The Constitution has not ignored individual but has endeavoured to harmonise the individual
interest with permanant interest of the community.

11. Assertion (A) : An accused person cannot be compelled to give his thumb impression
Reason (R) : An accused person cannot be compelled to be witness against himself
(A) Both A and R are true (B) Both A and R are false
(C) A is true but R is false (D) A is false but R is true

12. A telephonic conversation of the accused with his friend was secretly tapped by the police.
Can this lay basis for raising the issue that :
(A) It infringes the fundamental right against testimonial compulsion under Article 20 (3) of the
Constitution
(B) It infringes the fundamental right to privacy under Article 19 of the Constitution
(C) It infringes the fundamental right guaranteed in Article 21 relating to personal liberty
(D) There is no constitutional bar to the prosecution of such accused.

13. While a proclamation of emergency is in operation in the country under Article 352
(A) The Parliament is empowered under Article 250 to legislate with respect to any matter in
the State List
(B) The power of the State Legislature to make a law which is entitled to make a law under the
Constitution is suspended
(C) A law passed by the Parliament may be amended by a State Legislature with the prior
permission of the President
(D) Parliament can delegate some of its powers to the State Legislatures.

14. The Speaker is the presiding officer of Lok Sabha :
(A) He is a master of the House and not its servant
(B) He can exercise all and every powers of the House
(C) He is not above party politics
(D) He occupies a position of an umpire and must see that all sections of the House are given
proper opportunity to participate in the proceedings of the House

15. The term ‘law’ includes every branch of law. Yet there is difference between Constitutional
law made in exercise of sovereign powers and the other laws made in exercise of normal
legislative power. Hence amendment is not covered within the definition of ‘law’ provided
in Article 13(2) and (3) of the Constitution of India. This was observed by Supreme Court
in
(A) Sankari Prasad v. UOI (B) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
(C) Keshavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (D) Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain

16. Which is the most highlighted Constitution (Amendment) Bill of recent times ?
(A) Constitution (93rd Amendment) Bill (B) Constitution (101st Amendment) Bill
(C) Constitution (108th Amendment) Bill (D) Constitution (73rd Amendment) Bill

17. During the emergency proclaimed under Article 352, the President of India has a power
to suspend the fundamental rights enshrined in Part-III of the Constitution. The rights
contained in which of the following Articles could not be suspended even during
emergency ?
(A) 20 and 21 (B) 19 and 20
(C) 21 and 22 (D) 19, 20 and 21

18. In which Indian case it has been quoted that “A man’s liberty of movement is regarded so
highly by the law of England that it is not to be hindered or prevented except on the
surest grounds” :
(A) Maneka Gandhi case
(B) Joginder Kumar case
(C) Amarawati case
(D) Parkash Singh case

19. For the purpose of fundamental rights an authority must come within the definition of
‘State’. Which of the following is not a State ?
(A) ONGC (B) Industrial and Finance Corporation
(C) NCERT (D) Kerala Legislative Assembly

20. In relation to affiliation of educational institutions with a University, the Supreme Court
has pointed out that :
(A) Grant of affiliation is purely a discretionary power of the State
(B) Affiliation being a Fundamental Right cannot be denied
(C) If an institution fulfils the condition of affiliation, the same must be given and there cannot be
any discrimination
(D) If policy of the Government does not permit affiliation, the same may be refused

21. Who amongst the following was appointed as the first Chairperson of Unique Identification
Authority of India ?
(A) Ratan Tata (B) Azim Premji
(C) Nandan Nilekani (D) Montek Singh Ahluwalia

22. Who is the author of the book ‘Freedom Behind Bars’ ?
(A) Nelson Mandela (B) Kiran Bedi
(C) Jawahar Lal Nehru (D) Sonia Gandhi

23. Who among the following was awarded by the title of ‘Living Legend of Law’ by the
International Bar Association in 1995 in recognition of outstanding service to the legal
profession internationally and for commitment to the Rule of Law ?
(A) Justice H.R. Khanna (B) Justice Krishna Iyer
(C) Justice M.N. Venkatachalayya (D) Justice Anand

24. In 1980, an inmate of the Tihar Jail managed to send a scribbled piece of paper to Justice
Krishna Iyer of the Supreme Court narrating physical torture of the prisoners. The judge
got it converted into a petition :
(A) Charles Shobhraj vs. Delhi Admin. (B) Sunil Batra vs. Delhi Admin.
(C) Keshavananda Bharati case (D) D.K. Basu vs. State of West Bengal

25. The South African Lawyer who was elected as the United Nations independent expert to
tackle violence against women
(A) Asma Jahangir (B) Rashida Manjoo
(C) Fatima Mir (D) Soli Sohrabji

26. The committee which studied the social, economical and educational status of Muslims
(A) Kuldeep Nayyar Committee (B) Shivanandan Menon Committee
(C) Rajinder Sachar Committee (D) Verma Committee

27. Justice Sudha Mishra is the only woman Chief Justice of High Court in India now. She is
the Chief Justice of which High Court ?
(A) Jharkhand (B) Chhattisgarh
(C) Karnataka (D) Madhya Pradesh

28. The International Criminal Police Organization (INTERPOL) has its headquarters at
(A) London (B) Paris
(C) Bonn (D) Hague

29. Who among the following was conferred with Mahatma Gandhi International Award of
Peace and Justice 2009 ?
(A) Aung San Suu Kyi (B) Sheikh Hasina
(C) Benazir Bhutto (D) Hilary Clinton

30. The mascot of 2010 Commonwealth Games to be held in October in Delhi is
(A) Tiger (B) Panda
(C) A red-tailed black cuckoo (D) Peacock

31. The provision of personation at elections under Section 171D of IPC
(A) Shall apply to a person who has been authorized to vote as proxy for an elector under any
law in force
(B) Shall not apply to a person who has been authorized to vote as proxy for an elector under
any law in force
(C) Does not lead to any restriction under any law in force
(D) Shall not apply to a public servant on election duty

32. Section 73 of IPC provides for the maximum limit of solitary confinement to be
(A) one year (B) two years
(C) three months (D) six months

33. A hangman who hangs a convict pursuant to the order of the court is exempt from criminal
liability by virtue of
(A) Section 77 of IPC (B) Section 78 of IPC
(C) Section 79 of IPC (D) Section 76 of IPC

34. X ordered his employee Y to beat Z. Y refused to do so. Now
(A) X has committed abetment & Y has committed assault
(B) X has committed abetment & Y has committed no offence
(C) X & Y both have committed no offence
(D) X has committed no offence but Y has committed offence of subordination

35. ‘A’ knows that ‘B’ is suffering from a disease in his head and also knows that if a fist blow
is given to ‘B’ on his head, it is likely to cause his death. Knowing it ‘A’ gives a fist blow
to B on his head and causes death of ‘B’. ‘A’ is
(A) Guilty of culpable homicide not amounting to murder since he does not think that his act is
likely to cause death
(B) Guilty of murder since he had knowledge that in all probability it is likely to cause death of
‘B’
(C) Guilty of no offence since the blow is not sufficient to cause the death of a person of normal
health
(D) Guilty of causing hurt only.

36. A makes an attempt to steal some jewels by breaking open a box and finds after so
opening the box, that there is no jewel in it.
(A) A has done an act towards the commission of crime therefore he is liable U/S 511
(B) A has not done an act towards the commission of crime therefore he is not liable U/S 511
(C) It is impossible to steal anything from an empty box therefore A is not liable
(D) Both (B) & (C) are true

37. Right of private defence is not available
(A) Against an insane
(B) Against a child
(C) When there is a time to recourse the public authorities
(D) Against a public servant

38. Indian government proposes to privatize sick government sector and liberalize import-export policy of
India. B criticizes this policy and mentions its supposed bad impact. After going through this article
various labour and student unions, organize peaceful processions against it :
(A) B is liable U/S 124A because he excites disaffection against the Government of India
(B) B is not liable U/S 124A, because he simply expresses his disapprobation towards the policy
(C) B is liable because his article results in public disorder
(D) B is not liable U/S 124A, because requisite publication of seditious matter is lacking in the case.

39. A contracts with a gas company for supplying him gas and agrees to pay according to meter. He
intentionally makes some alternation in the meter reading to pay less charges
(A) A is guilty of theft (B) A is not guilty of theft
(C) A is guilty of criminal breach of trust (D) A is guilty of extortion

40. Which of the following statements is true ?
(A) Maxim, actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea has no application to the offences under the penal code in
its purely technical sense because the definitions of various offences contain propositions as to the statement
of offences
(B) Maxim has no application and is barred in absolute sense
(C) In cases of absolute liability this maxim has no application
(D) (A) and (C) both are true

41. What is the difference between law making treaty and treaty contracts ?
(A) In law making treaty there should be more than 50 participants while in treaty contracts more than 100
(B) Treaty contracts are entered among neighbouring states and law making treaty may include any two countries
(C) There is no difference between the two, as far as nature is concerned
(D) Law making treaty lays down rules of universal or general application, while treaty contract means, a treaty
between two or only a few states, on a special matter concerning these states exclusively.

42. What does jus cognes imply ?
(A) No derogation is permitted from it
(B) Treaty or an agreement is void to the extent of inconsistency with this principle
(C) It can be modified only by a subsequent norm of general International law
(D) It can be modified by General Assembly Resolution.

43. “A state is and becomes an international person through recognition only and exclusively.” Who stated
this ?
(A) L. Oppenheim (B) Hobbes
(C) Fenwick (D) Starke

44. General Assembly adopted the definition of word aggression through
(A) Resolution 3314 XXIX in 1974 (B) Resolution 3312 XXXIX in 1973
(C) Resolution 2213 in 1982 (D) Resolution 2214 in 1992

45. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
(A) The decisions of the International Court of Justice have binding force on all the members of United Nations
(B) The decisions of the International Court of Justice have binding force on all states of the world
(C) The decisions of the International Court of Justice shall not have a binding force except upon the parties to
a dispute and only in respect of a particular dispute between them
(D) The decisions of ICJ, shall not have any binding force on any members as its decisions are only subsidiary
means for determining rules of International law.

46. The ‘Pigeon hole’ theory is related to
(A) Law of torts (B) Law of tort
(C) Law of Tortious tort (D) Law of negligence and nuisance

47. The maxim qui facit per alium facit per se means
(A) He who does an act through another is deemed in law to do it himself
(B) He who acts negligently is deemed as wrong does in law
(C) He who violates the legal rights of other must pay for that
(D) He who injures other either directly or indirectly must pay for the same

48. A an independent contractor withdrew the support from C’s land. This work was given to A
by B.
(A) B is not liable vicariously for the act of A because A is acting independently
(B) B is liable vicariously even if the work was done by independent contractor
(C) B is liable only if C could prove presence of B at the time of withdrawal of support
(D) B is liable if C could prove that B carried on the work even after contrary express instructions by C.

49. A has grown a tree on his land. The branches of the tree are overhanging on the land of B. Under the
law, B is entitled to
(A) Enter into the land of A without his permission and cut the tree
(B) Forcibly enter into A’s land and chop off the branches
(C) Chop off the branches from his own land and take away the branches
(D) Chop off the overhanging branches while remaining on his land and inform A about the same.

50. De minimi’s non curat lex means
(A) Law does not take account of every trifling matter
(B) Plaintiff must present the damage in minimum degree
(C) Your behavior should not hamper the work of others
(D) You must not withdraw the support of the land of others