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4th August 2015, 01:00 PM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Apr 2013
Re: COMEDK PGET-2013 Answer Keys Published

Hello friend here I am providing you Comedk PGET-2013 Answer Keys which was held on 03/02/2013.

This (<--) is correct answer:

1. In prolonged starvation the main energy source of brain is
a) Glucose
b) Ketone bodies<--
c) Fructose
d) Fatty acids

2. Multiple myeloma has been seen commonly after exposure to
a) Radioactive isotopes<--
b) gold
c) asbestos
d) organic dyes

3. Stain used to make the wetted area of filter paper
strip more visible is
a) Eosin stain
b) Haemotoxin stain
c) Ninhydrin stain<--
d) Blue stain

4. Which of these is NOT an oncogenic virus?
a) Human papillomavirus
b) Cytomegalovirus<--
c) Epstein-Barr virus
d) Hepatitis B virus

5. Learning disability is otherwise called as
a) Infantile psychosis
b) Minimal brain dysfuntion
c) Childhood schizophrenia
d) Attention deficit disorder<--

6. Ideal thickness of a free gingival graft obtained
from the palate is
a) 0.5-1 mm
b) 1-1.5 mm<--
c) 1.5-2.0 mm
d) 2.0-2.5 mm

7. Removal of parathyroid gland produces the following changes EXCEPT
a) Decline plasma calcium level
b) Decrease in plasma phosphate level<--
c) Neuromuscular hyperexcitability
d) Hypocalcemictetany

8. Trench mouth is caused by
a) Fusiform bacillus
b) Borelli Vincenti
c) Both (a) and (b)<--
d) None of the above

9. Patients with severe allergic reactions such asanaphylaxis require immediate therapy with
a) glucocorticoids
b) antihistamines
c) epinephrine<--
d) morphine

10.A nasal antrostomy following Caldwell-Luc procedure is created
a) Above the inferior turbinate
b) Beneath the superior turbinate
c) Above the superior turbinate
d) Beneath the inferior turbinate<--

11. Main objective of increasing the focal spot to film
distance in paralleling technique is to
a) Reduce the radiation dosage only
b) Reduce the image magnification & increase sharpness and resolution<--
c) Reduce the image magnification & reduce sharpness and resolution
d) Reduce the magnification and distortion

12. The granulomatous tissue that is responsible fordestruction of articular surfaces of TMJ in rheumatoid arthritis is known as
a) Pannus.<--
b) Pulse granuloma.
c) Baker's cyst.
d) Immune granuloma.

13. Pulp vitality test in a tooth with primary periodontal lesion will reveal pulp to be
a) Vital<--
b) Non-vital
c) May be vital or non-vital
d) None of the above

14. Multiple osteomas, odontomas, supernumerary
teeth and impacted teeth are seen in
a) McCune-Albright syndrome
b) Mafabraud's syndrome
c) Gardner syndrome<--
d) Down's syndrome

15.Who gave the term ECC (Early Childhood Caries)?
a) Davies<--
b) Moss
c) Winter
d) Dilley

16. Sjogren's Syndrome affects
a) exocrine glands<--
b) paracrine glands
c) endocrine glands
d) autocrine glands

17. The mineral having sparing action on vitamin E
a) Chromium
b) Iron
c) Iodine
d) Selenium<--

18. The urine sample of a patient has been sent tothe laboratory to look for Leptospira.The specimen is to be screened by use of the
a) Scanning microscope
b) Inverted microscope
c) Dark ground microscope<--
d)Electron microscope

19. The second heart sound is produced due to
a) Closure of semilunar valves<--
b) Closure of atrio-ventricular valves
c) Ventricular filling
d) Opening of semilunar valves

20. Activation of which one of the following coagulation factor is not essential for hemostasis
a) XII<--
b) XI
c) IX
d) X

21. Which one of the following is indicative of cardiac tamponade?
a) Pulsusparadoxus<--
b) Wide pulse pressure
c) Kussmaul's sign
d) Forceful apical impulse

22. Glossopharyngeal nerve passes through
a) Foramen ovale
b) Jugular foramen<--
c) Foramen rotundum
d) Foramen spinosum

23. The most reliable index for the determining thepresence of active periodontal disease is
a) halitosis
b) bleeding on probing<--
c)pocket formation
d) gingival recession

24. Following are the changes during accommodation EXCEPT
a) Constriction of pupil
b) Dilatation of pupil<--
c) Convergence of eye ball
d) Increase in the anterior curvature of lens

25. In Tarnow's technique, the method described fordenuded surface is
a) semilunarcoranally repositioned flap<--
b) split thickness coronally repositioned flap
c) free soft tissue autograft
d) subepithelial connective flap

26. The choice of retention for lower incisors following orthodontic correction is
a) Clip-on retainer
b) Spring retainer
c) Tooth Positioner
d) Bonded canine to canine retainer<--

27. Ligand for peroxisome proliferation activating receptor (PPAR) receptors, a group of nuclear hormone receptors that are involved in the regulation of genes related to glucose and lipid metabolism is
a) repaglinide
b) voglibose
c) exanatide
d) rosiglitazone<--

28. The antibacterial substance present in tears which acts by splitting Cell wall components is
a) Penicillin
b) Lysozyme
c) Beta lysine<--
d) Lactoperoxidase

29. Beginning of adolescent growth in boys is with
a) pubic hair growth.
b) feminine fat distribution.<--
c) facial hair on chin and lip.
d) facial hair on upper lip only.

30. Which of the following muscle is not a derivative of second pharyngeal arch?
a) Buccinator muscle
b) Stapedius
c) Platysma
d) Anterior belly of digastric<--

31. Apical third root fracture in a vital tooth aretreated by
a) Pulpotomy
b) Periapical surgery and removal of the fragment
c) Relieve from occlusion and observe<--
d) Pulpectomy

32. Critical pH of saliva below this pH.die inorganic material of the tooth may dissolve in caries. The critical pH value is
a) 6.5
b) 5.5<--
c) 7.5
d)6.0

33. Which one of the following is not a feature of long standing mouth breathing habit
a) Adenoid facies
b) Large nose<--
c) Upper anterior labial gingivitis
d) Frequent occurrence of tonsillitis, allergic rhinitis and otitis media

34. The danger of transmitting infections to the dental team or to the other patient particularly has athreat of:
a) Acquired immune deficiency svndrome (AIDS)
b) Hepatitis-B
c) Tuberculosis
d)All of the above<--

35. In root canal treatment, the canal orifices are located by
a) Endodontic excavator
b) DG-16 Endodontic explorer<--
c) C+file
d) H-file

36. The retromolar pad must be covered by the denture base because it aids in
a) Retention only
b) Retention and support<--
c) Stability only
d) Stability and Support

37. The most successful materials for soft liner applications have been
a) Impression plaster
b) Silicone rubbers<--
c) Waxes
d) Irreversible hydrocolloids

38. Carotid atheromas may appear radiographicallyas:
a) Nodular radio-opaque mass
b) Double vertical radio-opaque lines within the neck
c) Both of the above<--
d) None of the above

39. The commonly used root canal irrigant, whichwas used for irrigation wounds during world warI by Dakin is
a) Saline
b) Hydrogen Peroxide
c) Buffered sodium hypochlorite<--
d) Distilled water

40. The amino acid required for the sysnthesis ofhaem is
a) Glutamine
b) Glutamic acid
c) Glycine<--
d) Lysine

41. The tissue and pus aspirate is to be collected fordiagnosis of Gas gangrene. It should idealh Mtransported using
a) Buffered Glycerol saline
b) Todd - Hewitt broth
c) Robertson's Cooked Meat Medium<--
d) Hanks Balanced salt solution

42. Following antimicrobials are termed as type Icalcimimetics that mimic the stimulatory effectof calcium on the calcium sensing receptor toinhibit PTH secretion by the parathyroid glandEXCEPT
a) Streptomycin
b) Hamycin<--
c) neomycin
d) Gentamicin

43. Battle sign in head injury indicates fracture of
a) Orbital plate
b) Base of skull<--
c) Maxilla
d) Mandible

44. In a DNA molecule adenine always forms a link age with
a) Guanine
b) Cytosine
c) Thymine<--
d) Uracil

45. This condition is due to a defect in the normalkeratinization of the oral mucosa
a) Erythema Multiforme
b) White Sponge Nevus<--
c) IncontinentiaPigmenti
d) Systemic Sclerosis

46. The classic triad of single or multiple areas of'punched-out' bone destruction in the skull, unilateral or bilateral exopthalmus and diabetes insipidus is seen in
a) Letterer-Siwe disease
b) Eosinophilic granuloma
c) Langerhans cell histiocytosis
d) Hand-Schuller-Christian disease<--

47. The lactobacillus count test to assess caries activity was given by
a) Synder
b) Jay
c) Hadley<--
d) Edelstein

48. What are the cells that produce PGE2 in the Periodontium?
a) Macrophages
b) Fibroblasts
c) Neutrophils
d) a and b<--

49. Which of the following statement is FALSE?
a) The term 'pear shaped' pad was coined by Craddock
b) Mucosa overlying pear shaped pad is stippled
c) Retromolar pad lies posterior to pear shaped pad
d) Mucosa overlying pear shaped pad is not stippled<--

50. The most frequent direction in which the articular disc gets displaced is
a) Anterior and lateral direction.
b) Posterior and lateral direction.
c) Anterior and medial direction.<--
d) Posterior and medial direction.

Partha Sarkar, Feb 11, 2013
#1
Neha Gupta
Neha Gupta
Active Member

51. Maxillary sinus is lined by which type of epithelium
a) Pseudostratified, ciliated columnar mucus secreting epithelium<--
b) Pseudostratified, ciliated columnar serous secreting epithelium
c) Stratified, ciliated columnar mucus secreting epithelium
d) Stratified, ciliated cuboidal serous secreting epithelium

52. Implantation cyst i s formed due to
a) Persistence of epithelial cells after wound healing
b) Excessive wound contraction
c) Brustingopen of wound
d) All of the above<--

53. Serum alkaline phosphatase level is elevated in
a) Paget's disease<--
b) Infantile cortical hyperostosis
c) Cleidocranial dysplasia
d) Pierre "Robin Syndrome

54. In a patient with unerupted and impacted maxillary canine the following radiographic techniqueswill be ideal for localization
a) IOPA and PNS view
b) Maxillary anterior occlusal view and IOPA<--
c) Bitewing and occlusal view
d) IOPA and occlusal view

55. A 25 year old male patient complains of missing27 with no distal abutment and prefers a fixedform of prosthetic treatment. An abutment thatis present only at one end of the edentulous spanis called
a) Cantilever abutment<--
b) Pier abutment
c) Mesially tilted abutment
d) Distally tilted abutment

56. Criterion to distinguish between Miller class II
and III recession is
a) Interdental bone<--
b) Malpositioning of the tooth
c) Extension of recession
d) Consistency of gingival

57. The mandibular labial frenum is a fibrous bandthat can be influenced by
a) incisivus
b) orbicularisoris
c) caninus and incisivus
d) incisivus and orbicularis oris<--

58. Which of the following is not a mouth temperature wax
a) Adaptol
b) Korrecta type 1<--
c) HL Physiologic paste
d) Iowa wax

59. A Cerebrospinal fluid of a 2 year old child hasbeen sent to the laboratory to detect the presence of a capsulated yeast. The staining technique most commonly employed for the purpose is
a) India ink preparation<--
b) Methanamine silver stain
c) Ziehl-Neelsen stain
d) Phyte - ferraco stain

60. The hard palate is covered by
a) Non-keratinized mucosa
b) Keratinized mucosa
c) Orthokeratinised mucosa<--
d) Para keratinized mucosa

61. Mesiolingual developmental groove is seen in
a) Mandibular first premolar<--
b) Mandibular second premolar
c) Maxillary first premolar
d) Maxillary second premolar

62. Adjunctive orthodontics refers to
a) corrective orthodontics in mild to moderate dental-skeletal disharmony
b) mild-moderate orthodontic corrections in patients with periodontal and/or restorative needs<--
c) moderate - severe malocclusions which re-quires a combination of orthodontics and orthognathic surgery
d) Orthodontics in patients with TMJ dysfunction

63. The medial confluence of stress lines on themedial surface of the ramus that represents the arcial growth of surface of the mandible is known as
a) XiPoint
b) PmPoint
c) Mepoint
d) Eva point<--

64. Normal intrapulp pressure is
a) 10mm Hg<--
b) 5mm Hg
c) 7mm Hg
d) 15mmHg

65. The Lorothidol added in Non Eugenol paste has
the function of
a) Bacteriostatic
b) Fungicide<--
c) Accelerator
d) Preservative

66. Interleukin-1 (IL-1) gene cluster is responsible for
a) Dental Caries
b) Periodontal diseases<--
c) Supernumerary teeth
d) Peg laterals

67. The sugar implicated in the aetiology of dental caries is
a) Glucose
b) Fructose
c) Maltose
d) Sucrose<--

68. The most common site of dentin hypersensitivity is
a) Incisal
b) Cervical<--
c) Proximal
d) Occlusal

69. Andreason Appliance is also known as
a) Activator<--
b) Bionator
c) Oral Screen
d) Lip Bumper

70. Dentist participating in the delta dental planerspaid 90th percentile where asnon participatingdentists are paid
a) 15th Percentile
b) 30th percentile
c) 100th percentile
d) 50th percentile<--


71. A 25 year old male comes with a complaint ofthrobbing pain in the upper part of the cheek or entire side of face, heavy feeling in the face, which exacerbates on bending down and with associated pyrexia. The most probable diagnosis is
a) Acute dento alveolar abscess in relation to upper first molar
b) Irreversible pulpitis in relation to upper 2nd molar
c) Acute maxillary sinusitis<--
d) Acute periodontal abscess in relation to upper 1 st molar.

72. Which of the following causes exogenous pigmentation
a) haemoglobin
b) chromogenic bacteria<--
c) melanin
d) Hemosiderin

73. Following factors delay the wound healing EXCEPT
a) Vitamin C deficiency
b) Infection
c) Anemia
d) Immobilization<--

74. Maxillary sinus is described as a four sided pyramid containing base, apex, roof and floor. The apex of maxillary sinus extends
a)Laterally into zygomatic process of maxilla<--
b) Medially into zygomatic process of maxilla
c) Laterally into lateral nasal wall
d) Superiorly into floor of orbit

75. An ideal location to attach a sprue for a posterior cast restoration is
a) Central fossa
b) Cusp tips<--
c) Marginal ridge
d) Contact point

76. In a pericoronalabcess related to distoangularimpacted third molar, the infection may spread to
a) Sub masseteric space<--
b) Buccal space
c) Sublingual space
d) Sub mental space

77. To view the zygomatic arches, the following projection is very commonly used,
a) Lateral cephalometric projection
b) Lateral oblique view of mandible
c) Underexposed submentovertex view<--
d) Overexposed submentovertex view

78. The process of recesses formation in maxillary sinus is most frequently seen with
a) Zygomatic process
b) Frontal process
c) Alveolar process<--
d) Palatine process

79. The cells of the enamel organ which differentiate into future ameloblasts are
a) Cells of inner enamel epithelium<--
b) Cells of outer enamel epithelium
c) Cells of stellate reticulum
d) Cells of stratum intermedium

80. In adults seeking orthodontic treatment with esthetic applications as the following may b choices
EXCEPT
a) Lingual orthodorr
b) ceramic brackets
c) clear aligner the:
d) titanium brackets<--

81. Child of an over protective indulgentmother shows
a) Shy, Submissive behaviour<--
b) Evasive and dawdling behaviour
c) Demanding and aggressive behaviour
d) Stoic behaviour

82. Following is not a mucogingival surgery to increase zone of attached gingiva
a) gingivalautograft
b) connective tissue graft
c) laterally displaced flap
d) apically displaced flap
All are correct<--

83. Soil, Seed and Sower is one of the principles of health education. In this principle, seed is:
a) Mind of the participant.
b) Health educator.
c) Health education.<--
d) Transmitting media.

84. Linear coefficient of thermal expansion of metal used for metal ceramic restoration range from
a) 11.5-12.5xl0-6/0C
b) 10.5-11.5xl0-6/0C
c) 13.5-14.5xl0-6/0C<--
d) 16.5-17.5xl0-6/0C

85. Following are the branches of external carotid artery EXCEPT
a) Facial artery
b) Lingual artery
c) Occipital artery
d) Middle meningeal artery<--

86. Toxic optic neuropathy can be caused by all of the following EXCEPT
a) Ethambutol
b) Ethylene glycol
c) Ciprofloxacin<--
d) Tetracycline

87. A salivary gland tumour which histologically shows a double layer of epithelial cells based on a reactive lymphoid stroma is
a) Pleomorphic adenoma
b) Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
c) Acinic cell tumour
d) Warthin tumour<--

88. The feature of lower motor neuron lesion is
a) Hypertonia
b) Hyperactive stretch reflex
c) Muscular atrophy<--
d) Abnormal plantar extensor reflex (Babinski's sign)

89. During casting procedures creation of a "Hot-
spot" means
a) The presence of reservoir resulting in delayed solidification of metal.
b) Sprue former is attached at right angle creating a localized lingering of molten metal after casting has solidified.<--
c) The length of Sprue is too long resulting in ready flow of molten metal.
d) Use of too high temperature resulting in localized disintegration of metal.

90. The strength of association between suspectedcause and effect in a cohort study is measured by:
a) Attributable risk
b) Odds ratio
c) Biological risk
d) Relative risk<--

91. What is incorporated in porcelain during firing
a) Argon
b) Helium<--
c) Hydrogen
d) Oxygen

92. Bruxism is___________during sleep
a) walking
b) enuresis
c) grinding of teeth<--
d) apneic episodes

93. The protein found in the amyloid deposits in senile systemic amyloidosis is
a) AL protein
b) a2microglobulin
c) a-amyloid protein
d)Transthyretin<--

94. According to Weine's classification of root canal configuration, a single canal from pulp chamber to apex can be
a) Type IV
b) Type II
c) Type III
d) Type I<--

95. Which radiographic technique is employed tocorrectly determine the buccal or palatal placement of impacted maxillary canine?
a) SLOB or Clark's Rule<--
b) Paralleling technique
c) Bisecting angle technique
d) Right angle technique

96. Functional disorders of salivary glands are best
imaged using
a) Intraoral and extraoral radiographs
b) Scintigraphy and sialography<--
c) Computed tomography
d) MRI

97. The orthodontic diagnosis focuses on
a) full smile.
b) emotional smile.
c) social smile.<--
d) gummy smile only.

98. Following the premature loss of a deciduous
tooth, space closure
a) Occurs predominantly from the anterior in the maxillary arch and predominantly from the posterior in the mandibular arch
b) Is more rapid 6 months after the loss of the tooth
c) Occurs more rapidly in the maxillary arch than in the mandibular arch<--
d) Inversely proportional to the time the deciduous tooth has been missing

99. The technique used for defluoridation is __________technique.
a) Knutson's
b) Brudevold's
c) Nalgonda<--
d) Nalanda

100. The embrasure areas in the following areas are continuous
a) Labial and Lingual<--
b) Lingual and Occlusal
c) Incisal and Occlusal
d) Labial and Occlusal

101. Identify the material used in maxillo-facial prosthesis:
a) Polyurethane elastomers<--
b) Polycarbonate
c) Autopolymerizing acrylic resin
d) Polyvinyl chloride

102. Glass ionomer cement is used as a barrier overguttapercha filling before bleaching an endodontically treated discolored tooth
a) To prevent bleaching agent from dissolving the guttapercha<--
b) To prevent percolation of the bleaching agent into the apical area
c) To prevent contamination of bleaching agent
d) To prevent discoloration of tooth from obturating material.

103. During an attempted extraction of upper posterior teeth, to determine the position of the roots displaced intoantrum, ideal radiograph would be,
a) Bitewing radiography of maxillary posteriors
b) IOPA of mandibular posterior teeth
c) Upper oblique occlusal radiograph<--
d) Lateral oblique view of mandibular posteriors

104. Colour code used for segregation of infected human anatomical waste is
a) Yellow<--
b) Red
c) Black
d) Green

105. All the following cranial nerves transmit taste sensation to the brain EXCEPT
a) facial nerve
b glossopharyngeal nerve
c) vagus nerve
d) hypoglossal nerve<--

106. Pigmentation of the permanent teeth may developif tetracyclines are given between the ages of
a) 5 and 7years
b) 0.2 and 5 years<--
c)6 and 10 years
d) 10 and 12years

107. Normal cerebrospinal fluid glucose levels are seen in:
a) Pyogenic meningitis
b) Viral meningitis<--
c) Fungal meningitis
d) Tuberculous meningitis

108. The cement filling material which has the most severe injurious effect on pulp is
a) Copper cement
b)Zinc oxyphoshphate cement
c) Silicate cement<--
d) Calcium hydroxide

109. Universally used method of behavior manage ment in pediatric dentistry for both cooperative and uncooperative children is
a) Voice control
b) Behaviour shaping
c) Implosion Therapy
d) Communication<--

110. Chronic hyper plastic pulpits is a type of
a) Acute irreversible pulpits
b) Chronic irreversible pulpits<--
c) Acute reversible Pulpits
d) Chronic reversible pulpits

111. Hardness of fully mineralized cementum is
a) Less than dentin<--
b) more than dentin
c) Equal dentin
d) none of the above

112. Fibroma combined with glandular tissue is
a) Neurofibroma
b) Fibroadenoma<--
c) Fibrolipoma
d) Fibromyoma

113. When a dentist says " I cannot fix your teeth if
you do not open your mouth wide", he is employing
a) Problem ownership<--
b) Voice control
c) Tolerance
d) Flexibility

114. The following drugs induces gingival enlargement EXCEPT
a) Dilantin sodium
b) Cyclosporine
c) Nifidipine
d) Amoxycillin<--

115. The Alma-Ata declaration on 'primary health care' was made in the year:
a) 1980
b) 1978<--
c) 1982
d) 1977

116. Pier abutment is a
a) Lone standing abutment<--
b) Free end abutment
c) Mesially tilted abutment
d) Distally tilted abutment

117. The volumetric shrinkage exhibited by heat polymerized denture resin polymerized mass is
a) 0.07 %
b) 0.7 %
c) 7%<--
d) 70%

118. Intra Oral pleomorphicadenoma usually occurs
in
a) Buccal mucosa
b) Upper lip
c) Floor of the mouth
d) Palate<--

119. Localisation of parathyroids in hyperparathyroidism is done best with
a) X ray neck
b) USG neck
c) I 131 scan
d) Technetium 99 labelled sestamibi scan<--

120. Chemical cauterization for odontogenickeratocyst is done by
a) 10%Ethanol
b) Hydrogen peroxide
c) Carnoys solution<--
d) 10% Formalin

121. Commonest tumour of parotid salivary gland is
a) Pleomorphic adenoma<--
b) Warthintumor
c) Acinic cell carcinoma
d) Mucoepiderrrioid carcinoma

122.Demineralisation of enamel occurs in the pH range of
a) 4.0 to 4.5
b) 5.0 to 5.5<--
c) 6.0 to 6.5
d) 7.0 to 7.5

123. As a general rule in borderline crowding cases of a broad facial type
a) an expansion treatment should be carried out.<--
b) extraction therapy should be considered.
c) no treatment required.
d) only surgical treatment required.

124. The range of level of fluoride secreted by the glands into the mouth is
a) 0.004-0.005 <--snip-->
b) 0.006-0.007 <--snip-->
c) 0.007-0.05 <--snip--><--
d) 0.007-0.08 <--snip-->

125. The assessment or measurement of the quality of care and the implementation of any necessary changes to either maintain or improve the quality of care rendered is
a) Quality Assessment<--
b) Quality Assurance
c) Quality Planning
d) Guidelines

126. Rough surface of elastomeric Impression results from:
a) Inadequate mixing
b) Air bubbles
c) Too rapid polymerization
d) Incomplete polymerization caused by premature removal from mouth<--

127. A 13 year old boy presents with a large mixedlytic and blastic mass in the metaphyseal region of the lower end of femur. The most likely diagnosis is
a) Ewing's sarcoma
b) Osteosarcoma<--
c) Chondrosarcoma
d) Giant cell tumour

128. Direct pulp capping has a favourable prognosis if the exposure is around
a) 1 mm<--
b) 1.5 mm
c) 0.5 mm
d) 2 mm

129. Oroantral fistula is most commonly caused by
the manipulation of maxillary
a) Canine
b) First molar<--
c) Second molar
d) First premolar

130. Protein making up the bulk of keratohyaline granules in stratum granulosum of keratinized epithelium is
a) Involucrin
b) Vinculin
c) Filaggrin<--
d) Nectin

131. Vertical malocclusions include
a) lateral deep bite.
b) complex deep bite.
c) gingivally supported deep bite.<--
d) gingivally supported open bite.

132. Neural tube formation occurs on
a)18 to 23 days post fertilization and is the second stage of craniofacial development<--
b) 28 to 38 days post fertilization and is the third stage of craniofacial development
c) 42 to 55 days post fertilization and is the fourth stage of craniofacial development
d) 17th day post fertilization and is the first stage of craniofacial development

133. Approximate length of junctional epithelium is
a) One mm<--
b) Two mm
c) Three mm
d) Four mm

134. Ameloblastic cells are ectodermal in origin which
lay down
a) Enamel<--
b) Dentine
c) Cement
d) Pulp cavity

135. A patient with hereditary fructose intolerance is
deficient in which of the follwing enzymes?
a) Aldolase B<--
b) Fructokinase
c) Triokinase
d) All of above

136. An individual has a fasting blood glucose concentration of 115 mg/dL on three occasions. What
is your conclusion?
a) He is normal
b) He is diabetic
c) He has impaired glucose tolerance<--
d) He needs further evaluation by other bio-chemical tests

137. Small packets of acetylcholine released randomly
from the nerve cell membrane at rest produces
a) End plate potential
b) Miniature end plate potential<--
c) Action potential
d) Inhibitory post synaptic potential

138. Secondary haemorrhage occours within
a) 0-24 hrs
b) 48-72 hrs
c) 1-2 wks<--
d) During surgery

139. Enlargement of crown at the expense of root is
called
a) Microdontia
b) Dens evaginatus
c) Taurodontism<--
d) Dens invaginatus

140. The free gingival graft is placed on
a) on the periosteum<--
b) bone
c) gingiva
d) periodontal pocket

141. Tissue conditioning materials are
a) Elastomers
b) Elastopolymers<--
c) Polymers
d) Impression plaster

142. Prevalence of diseases is
a) Rate
b) Ratio
c) Proportion<--
d) Deviation

143. According ToMisch Bone Density Classification D2 Is
a) > 1250 HOUNSFIELD UNITS
b)350 - 850 HOUNSFIELD UNITS
c) 850 - 1250 HOUNSFIELD UNITS<--
d) 150-350 HOUNSFIELD UNITS

144. Edge of tuberculous ulcer is
a) Sloping
b) Undermined<--
c) Punched out
d) Everted

145. A surgical obturator has to be inserted
a) One day prior to the surgery
b) On the day of the surgery<--
c) 14 days after the surgery
d) 30 days after the surgery

146. Specificity can be calculated as
a) True positive
_________________________
True positive + False Negative
b) True positive
________________________
True positive + False positive
c) False positive
________________________
True positive + True Negative
d) True Negative
________________________ <--
True Negative + False positive

147. The optimum crown root ratio is
a) 3:2
b) 2:3<--
c) 1:2
d) 2:1

148. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic feature of allosteric enzymes?
a) They are multienzyme complexes
b) Follow Michaelis-Mentem kinetics<--
c) Presence of ModulgidrMte
d) Give sigmoid shaped curve

149. The efficacy of the moist-heat sterilization technique commonly used to sterilize laboratory ware and Culture media is tested by using
a) Clostridium tetani spores
b) T-Even-Bacteriophages
c) Bacillus stearothermophilus spores<--
d) Browne's tubes

150. Odontalgia that is occasionally typical in hypertensive patients is a result of
a) Headache radiating to the teeth.
b) Nervous tension and worry.
c) Hyperaemia of pulp resulting from increased blood pressure.<--
d) Abnormal stimulation of the sympathetic nerve system.


For Questions 151-154

A 20yr old patient reports with multiple swellings of the jaws. Clinical examination reveals multiple hard swellings involving the jaws and intra orally several missing teeth are noticed. Panoramic radiograph reveals multiple radio opaque lesions in the maxilla and the mandible with multiple impacted teeth and supernumerary teeth, indicative of Gardeners' syndrome.

151. The above mentioned condition is
a) Inherited autosomal dominant disease<--
b) Autosomal recessive disorder
c) X-linked disease
d) A syndrome of unknown cause.

152. One of the following is also a manifestation in the above mentioned condition.
a) Cafe-au-lait pigmentation of the skin
b) Multiple epidermoid or sebaceous cyst of the skin<--
c) Basal cell carcinoma of the skin
d) Perioral dermatitis.

153. One of the following manifestations in Gardener's syndrome has a risk of malignant transformation.
a) Multiple polyposis of large intestine<--
b) Osteomas of the jaws
c) Desmoids tumors of the skin
d) Epidermal and trichilemmal cysts.

154. Multiple impacted teeth as seen in Gardner's syndrome may also is seen in one of the following.
a) Tricho-dento-osseous syndrome<--
b) Hereditary intestinal polyposis
c) Cowden's syndrome
d) Rubinstein- Taybi syndrome

For Questions 155 - 157

A10 yr old child comes to you with exarticulaton of 11.

155. This condition is called as
a) Avulsion<--
b) Intrusion
c) Fracture with enemas
d) Dilaceration

156. Treatment of choice for the above condition is
a) Extraction
b) Replantation<--
c) Re-vascularisation
d) Composite Restoration

157. Choice of transport medium is
a) Patients Blood
b) Hot Water
c) Milk<--
d) None of the above


For Questions 158 - 161
An 18yr old male patient reported with chief complaint of pain and swelling in the right lower jaw and mild difficulty in opening mouth since one week. A general examination revealed fever and increased pulse rate.

158. Intra-oral examination showed signs of inflammation around the gingiva of partially impacted third molar, tender on palpation with opposing tooth impinging. The most likely diagnosis is
a) Necrotising ulcerative gingivitis
b) Localised aggressive periodontitis
c) Acute herpetic gingivostomatitis
d) Pericoronitis<--

159. What is the microbial etiology of this condition is?
a) Klebsiella
b) E Coli
c) Streptococci and anaerobic bacteria<--
d) Actinomycosis

160. What would be the ideal management of this case?
a) Antibiotics and Analgesics.
b) Removal of partially impacted lower molar immediately.
c) Irrigation, antibiotics and analgesics.<--
d) Hospitilisation, Irrigation, antibiotics and analgesics and immediate removal of opposing tooth.

161. The ideal surgical management of this condition once the signs and symptoms subside would be
a) Operculectomy.
b) Delaying the removal of teeth to next episode.
c) Removal of tooth under local anaesthesia.<--
d) No treatment.


For Questions 162 - 164
A 30 year old male patient reports with the swelling at the angle of the mandible with a duration of 6 months. Radiograph showed an impacted third molar with a pericoronal radiolucency

162. Protein content of aspirated fluid was greater than 4.0 gms per 100 ml. The lesion is likely to be
a) Odontogenickeratocyst
b) Dentigerous cyst<--
c) Traumatic bone cyst
d) Stafne's bone cyst

163. Appropriate treatment option for this lesion is
a) Enucleation<--
b) Marginal mandibulectomy
c) Segmental resection
d) Hemimandibulectomy

164. The most likely tumor to develop from this lesion is
a) Ossifying fibroma
b) Ameloblastoma<--
c) Squamous cell carcinoma
d) Central giant cell granuloma

For Questions 165 - 167
A 40-year-old male patient reported to the restorative dentist with the chief complaint of missing back teeth in the upper jaw, and desired replacement of the same. On clinical examination revealed missing 14,15,16,17,18,24,25,26,27& 28.

165. What is the Kennedy's classification for the given clinical scenario
a) Class II
b) Class III
c) Class VI
d) Class I<--

166. Special design feature to be included in the above given clinical situation is
a) Broad occlusal table
b) Minimal extension of denture base
c) Indirect retainer<--
d) Tube teeth.

167. One of the special impression methods to be employed for class-I situation is
a) Closed mouth impression technique
b) Open mouth technique
c) Corrected cast technique<--
d) Mucocompressive technique


For Questions 168 - 170
A young female patient reports to the dental office with complaint of small gaps between her teeth.

168. The most feasible and economic treatment option for such a situation would be
a) Porcelain veneers
b) Porcelain jacket crown
c) Orthodontic Tooth movement
d) Diastema closure using composite<--

169. Shade selection for such a treatment should be carried out under the
a) Natural day light<--
b) Fluorescent light
c) After placement of rubber dam
d) When the teeth are dry

170. If a proper placement technique is not followed, it would result in
a) Tooth sensitivity<--
b) Wear of opposing teeth
c) Debonded restoration
d) Healthy gingiva.


For Questions 171 - 173
A 21 year old male healthy patient reported with a prognatic mandible, intraorally he has anterior crossbite and class III molar relationship, cephalometrically has an SNA of 78 degrees, SNB of 89 degrees.

171. What would be the treatment of choice for the adult Class III skeletal Malocclusion with a prominent
a) Functional Appliance
b) Fixed Orthodontics
c) Functional jaw orthopedic correction
d) Surgical Orthodontics<--

172. The presurgical orthodontic procedures involves
a) Decompensation<--
b) Compensation
c) Settling elastics
d) Immobilization

173. The surgical procedure of choice for correction of mandibular excessive prognathism is
a) Le Fort I osteotomy
b) Bilateral sagittal split osteotomy<--
c) Caldwell-luc surgery
d) Ramal distraction osteogenesis


For Questions 174 - 177
A twenty year old female patient comes to the clinic with discoloration of the upper right cenjral incisor .The tooth was intact and otherwise asymptomatic.

174. The most likely cause for the discoloration in this patient would be
a) Pulp necrosis<--
b) Dental fluorosis
c) Internal resorption
d) Microleakage

175. The treatment most often employed for managing discoloration in a non vital teeth is
a) Microabrasion
b) Walking bleach<--
c) Over the counter bleaching
d) Veneer

176. The common sequlae following bleaching non vital teeth are
a) Ankylosis
b) Peridontal pathology
c) External cervical resorption<--
d) Reinfection

177. Bleaching is indicated in which of the following clinical situations
a) Dentin discolorations<--
b) Teeth with discolored composites
c) Tooth discoloration due to caries
d) Teeth with superficial enamel discolorations


For Questions 178 - 180
A 45 year old female patient reports to the clinic with a history of pain with tooth 37. The tooth appears normal on clinical and radiographic examination except for the fact that pain occurs on biting on a hard object and then releasing the bite.

178. The most probable cause for the pain may be
a) Occult caries
b) Periodontitis
c) Cracked tooth<--
d) Maxillary sinusitis

179 The various other means of diagnosing such a lesion include:
a) Methylene blue staining
b) Tooth slooth
c) Transillumination
d) All of the above<--

180. Immediate treatment of such a tooth involves
a) Stabilization with orthodontic band
b) Extraction
c) Relief from occlusion<--
d) Full coverage crown


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