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13th June 2015, 08:36 AM
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Central police forces (ac) exam. Answer key
I am about to appear in the Central Armed Police Forces (Assistant commandants) Exam . Will you please provide the Central Armed Police Forces (Assistant commandants) Exam solved question paper for practice ?
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#2
13th June 2015, 02:49 PM
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Re: Central police forces (ac) exam. Answer key
Here I am providing the list of few questions of Central Armed Police Forces Assistant commandants Exam solved question paper which you are looking for . Central Armed Police Forces Assistant commandants Exam solved question paper 1. Which of the following statements regarding Home Rule Leagues in India are correct? 1. The movement was led by the moderate Congress leaders. 2. There were two Home Rule Leagues. 3. The movement became strong, because other mass agitations could not be launched by the Congress during the World War. 4. The government was non-reactive to the movement. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2, 3 and 4 c) 1 and 4 only d) 2 and 3 only 2. Who among the following was not a painter in the Mughal period? a) Mir Sayyid Ali b) Abdus Samad c) Bishan Das d) Baz Bahadur 3. Which of the following statements about Sufism is/are correct? 1. Sufism was the mystical interpretation that developed within Islam. 2. Sufi philosophy highlighted the atmosphere of religious tolerance by speaking about the universal love in quest of the Almighty. 3. The Sufis developed a very complex philosophy and initiated very complicated practices unintelligible to the masses. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 and 2 b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 1 and 3 4. Which one among the following statements regarding Satavahanas is not correct? a) The Satavahanas are identified with the Andhras of the Puranas. b) The Satavahanas claimed Brahmana descent and followed Brahmanical Vedic tradition. c) Satavahanas and Shakas were involved in prolonged conflict. d) Vasishthiputra Satakarni defeated Shaka ruler Rudradaman I 5. If it is true that 'all pollutants are harmful', identity which of the following is invalid to infer from it? a) Pollutants constitute a subset of harmful things. b) No pollutants are non-harmful. c) If anything is harmful, it is a pollutant. d) Some pollutants are harmful. 6. If it is false that 'no person can operate an industrial plant for the purpose of any scheduled industry in an air pollution control area without the prior consent of the State Board', then, which of the following may be validly inferred? a) Some persons obtained the consent of the State Board but did not run a plant as industry in an air pollution control area. b) Someone did not obtain the consent of the State Board but ran a plant commercially in an air pollution control area. c) The State Board is the only authority to give authorisation for opening industry in restricted air pollution control area. d) Some areas are under the jurisdiction of the State Board. 7. A camel adapts easily in a desert due to a) hump with stored food as fats. b) water cells in stomach to store metabolic water. c) nucleated Red Blood Cells. d) hair growth near eyes and nostrils. 8. If a healthy freshwater fish is placed in saltwater, the fish a) becomes dehydrated and dies b) becomes bloated and dies c) suffers from microbial infection and dies d) experiences no problem. 9. Which one among the following pairs is not correctly matched? a) Lord Wellesley : Subsidiary Alliance b) Lord William Bentinck : English Education c) Warren Hastings : Local Self Government d) Lord Lytton : Vernacular Press Act 10. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? 1. Jamnalal Bajaj : Satyagraha Ashram 2. Dadabhai Naoroji : Bombay Association 3. Syed Ahmed Khan : MAO College 4. Lala Lajpat Rai : Anusilan Samiti Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 3 and 4 only d) 1, 2 and 3 11. Who among the following ministers in the eight-members council (Ashtapradhan) of Shivaji, held the charge of finance? a) Peshwa b) Amatya c) Sumant d) Pandit Rao 12. Consider the following events in the history of Indian freedom struggle: 1. Champaran Satyagraha 2. Bardoli Satyagraha 3. Ahmedabad Mill Workers Strike 4. Chauri-Chaura Incident Which one of the following is correct chronological sequence of the above events starting from the earliest? a) 1 - 3 - 2 - 4 b) 1 - 2- 4 - 3 c) 1 - 3 - 4 - 2 d) 3 - 1 - 2 - 4 13. The Indian military occupies a border village believed to be harbouring insurgents and asked the residents to vacate their houses in a night operation. Which one among the following statements is the correct interpretation of this incident? a) India is a democracy and no citizen can be asked to leave their home without a warrant. Hence, this act constitutes a human rights violation. b) The military operation does not constitute a human rights violation as it is operating in an insurgency-infested area. c) Under the Indian Constitution, every individual is entitled to basic fundamental rights and hence the military cannot ask anyone to leave their house on mere suspicion of supporting insurgents. Hence, this act by the military constitutes a human rights violation. d) Just mere suspicion of supporting insurgency cannot be used as a pretext to occupy a village. Hence, the military action constitutes a human rights violation. 14. There is a growing tension on the India- China border in the eastern sector with media reports of incursions by the Chinese military into the Indian side of the Line of Actual Control (LAC). In this context, which of the following Indian reponse(s) is/ are the most likely 1. India lodges a diplomatic protest with the Chinese embassy. 2. India utilises the framework of the India-China border talks and the " special representatives" forum to address these issues. 3. India strengthens troops presence in the border. 4. India lodges a complaint against China at the UN. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 and 2 b) 4 only c) 2 and 3 d) 3 only 15. The UN Security Council mandates military intervention in Libya by NATO forces in March 2011 in order to pervent Muhammad Gaddafi from engaging in human rights violations against civilians. Which among the following statements is/ are correct with regard to India's response to the crisis? 1. India supports UNSC Resolution 1973 imposing "no fly zone" in Libya. 2. India joins in the military intervention in Libya. 3. India sends clandestine support to the rebel forces in Libya. 4. India abstains from voting for UNSC Resolution 1973 on Libya. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 and 2 b) 4 only c) 3 only d) 3 and 4 16. There is a growing internal financial crisis in the US with the possibility that there will be de-valuation of the dollar. Which amongst the following countries is/are most affected? a) India b) China c) European Union d) Japan 17. Which of the following statements is true with regard to the 'Malabar 07-2' military exercise? a) It was a five nation naval exercise held in the Bay of Bengal between India, the US, Australia, Japan and Singapore b) It was an anti-piracy operation conducted by the Indian Navy in the Indian Ocean c) It was a joint military exercise between india, Indonesia and Philippines d) It was a joint India- China naval exercise in the Malacca Straits against piracy 18. Which of the following statements is true with regard to the J-10 fighter aircraft? a) It is a Russian multi- role single engine improved version of the su- 30 MK1 fighter aircraft b) It is an Israeli multi -role fifth generation fighter aircraft c) It is a multi- role single engine next generation Chinese fighter aircraft d) It is a Pakistani indigenous multi- role fighter aircraft 19. There is an emerging dispute in the South China Sea with China aggressively laying claim to the entire area including the islands by threatening other Southeast Asian claimants with coercive power. Which among the following is/ are the best conflict resolution mechanism(s) in this situation? 1. The US Pacific Command should military counter Chinese agression 2. The US should sign military pacts with other Southeast Asian nations against China. 3. The dispute should be resolved by utilising the ASEAN 2002 Declaration on the Conduct of Parties in the South China Sea in a peaceful manner. 4. The UN Security Council should declare China's aggressive posture as a threat to international peace and security and invoke UN Chapter VII. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 3 only v) 2 and 3 d) 1 and 4 20. The US military forces are existing Afghanistan in 2012. In this situation, which among the following is/ are the most feasible options for India to ensure that there is no take-over of the Afghan government by the Taliban and the country remains stable? 1. India Should send in its military to Afghanistan. 2. India and Pakistan should sign a joint framework of cooperation to monitor the Taliban in Afghanistan 3. India should continue to build roads and schools in Afghanistan. 4. India should train the Afghan armed forces. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 4 only b) 1, 2 and 3 c) 2 and 4 d) 3 and 4 21. The Khilafat Movement received support from both Hindus and Muslims and it was led from the front by Gandhiji. Inspite of this, the movements lost momentum. Why? a) Office of Khalifa was abolished in Turkey itself and better terms offered to Turkey b) Muslim League's opposition to the Indian National Congress c) Special concessions given to the Muslims by the British government d) Internal frictions between the Congress and the Muslim League 22. Which of the following statements about Theosophical Society are correct? 1. Its fouders were non- Indians. 2. Its advocates were in fovour of the revival of Hinduism. 3. It advocated for the adoption of rational and Scientific approach based on western ideas. 4. It helped people to overcome the sense of false pride. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2, 3 and 4 c) 1, 3 and 4 d) 1 and 2 only 23. Which of the following processes would explain ozone losses in the atmosphere? When ozone is exposed to 1. CFCs and UV radiation 2. long winter circumpolar winds to form ice crystals 3. singlest oxygen atom and chlorine monoxide Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2 and 3 c) 1 and 2 only d) 1 and 3 only 24. Which one among the following phenomena includes processes, such as production, predation, nutrient transformation, and the influx and efflux of energy and materials? a) Ecological function b) Ecosystem function c) Ecosystem structure d) Biogeochemical cycles 25. The name of the particle 'Boson' is asociated with the name of a) J.C Bose b) S.N. Bose c) Isaac Newton d) Albert Einstein 26. Which one of the following consequeneces will happen if large quantities of domestic sewage are Continuously discharged in a stream? a) Increase in the algal bloom of the stream water b) Increase in the temperature level of the stream water c) Reduction in the carbon dioxide level of the stream water d) Reduction in the dissolved oxygen level of the stream water 27. Father and mother having A and B blood group respectively a) Cannot give birth to child with AB blood group b) cannot give birth to child with O blood group c) can give birth to child with O blood group d) cannot give birth to twin child with B blood group 28. The shape of the population pyramid reflects the characteristics of the population. The shape of the Pyramid in India is a) bell- shaped and tapered towards the top b) narrow base and a tapered top c) broad base and a tapered top d) narrow base and narrow top 29. The retreating monsoons occur during the months of a) January - February b) March - April c) June- July d) October- November 30. The chief racial groups constituting India's population are the Dravidian, Aryans, and Mongoloids. Where do the Mongoloids live? a) Western India b) Southern India c) North- Eastern India d) South- western India 31. Which one among the following cell organelles in a Eukaryotic cell is acquired during the process of evolution by entrapment or engulfment of Bacterial cells? a) Peroxisomes b) Vacuoles c) Chloroplasts d) Mitochondria 32. In which of the following types of economy are factors of production owned individually? a) Capitalist b) Socialist c) Mixed d) Both socialist and capitalist 33. Relative humidity a) increases with increased temperature b) decreases with increased temperature c) decreases with decreased temperature d) has no relation with increase or decrease of temperature 34. The process by which heat is transmitted from the Sun to the Earth is called. a) Conduction b) convection c) Radiation d) Cosmic disturbances 35. In July, 2011 Eurozone's 17 member countries agreed to give Greece a massive financial bailout worth more than 150 billion dollars to try to rescue Greece's shaken economy. In this respect, which of the following statements is/ are correct? 1. This is for the first time Greece has been given financial bailout by other European countries. 2. Private lenders including banks are also pledging support which will give Greece easier repayment terms. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 36. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I List II (Plant) (Biofertilizer) A. Soyabean 1. Anabaena B. Azolla 2. Rhizobium C. Pine 3. Azospirillum D. Maize 4. Mycorrhiza Code: A B C D A B C D a) 3 4 1 2 b) 2 1 4 3 c) 2 4 1 3 d) 3 1 4 2 Directions: The next seven (07) items are based on the following diagram: 37. What is the number of school teachers living in the cities and who have two children, but are neither science graduates nor women? a) 18 b) 24 c) 38 d) 42 38. What is the number of city dwelling women science graduates who are school teachers and have two children? a) 65 b) 51 c) 38 d) 37 39. The total number of non-women science graduates living in the urban areas is a) 11 b) 37 c) 65 d) 76 40. What is the number of women school teachers living in the urban areas who have two children? a) 38 b) 39 c) 51 d) 89 41. What is the number of male science graduates who are not living in the urban areas? a) 22 b) 23 c) 45 d) 46 42. What is the number of male science graduates who are not school teachers and do not live in the urban areas, but have two children? a) 20 b) 21 c) 22 d) 23 43. What is the number of males living in urban areas who are not school teachers by profession, not science graduates, and do not have two children? a) 5 b) 11 c) 51 d) 62 People with two children People living in Urban Areas Science graduates Women 22 51 11 24 6 21 18 5 25 11 23 65 51 38 68 54 65 40 17 37 School Teachers 44. Which one of the following types of economic activities dominates in all rural settlements? a) Primary b) Secondary c) Tertiary d) Quaternary 45. Which one among the following is the oil exploration and production company operated in Siberia and owned by the ONGC? a) Venture Production b) Regal Petroleum c) Enterprise Oil d) Imperial Energy 46. A 30-Year-Old space shuttle programme of NASA ended in July, 2011 when its last shuttle landed in Kennedy Space Centre in Florida. The name of the shuttle was. a) Discovery b) Endeavour c) Atlantis d) Columbia 47. In July 2011, India and Sri Lanka signed a Memorandum of Understanding to develop the Kankesanthurai port in Sri Lanka. Which of the following statements in this regrad is/are correct? 1. It is the first deep water facility being re-built in the northern peninsula. 2. The port will significantly lower the transit time of goods from and to India. 3. The responsibility of preparing the detailed project of this work is entrusted to Engineers India Limited. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1 and 2 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 2 only 48. Which of the following statements regarding 'Prahar' missile developed by DRDO and test-fired in the month of July, 2011 are correct? 1. It is a single stage missile. 2. Its striking range is about 500 Km. 3. It is fuelled by solid propellants. 4. Several prahar missiles can be fired in one salvo. Select the correct answer using the code given belwo: a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 b) 1 and 3 only c) 1, 3 and 4 only d) 2 and 4 only 49. Which of the following statements about the Bhakti movement is/are correct? 1. The Bhakti movement evolved as a homogeneous movement. 2. The Bhakti movement helped to bridge the gulf between Hinduism and Islam. 3. The Bhakti movement rescued Hinduism from the Challenges of its own complexities. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 c) 2 only d) 3 only 50. Abul Hasan was one of the most eminent painters of Jahangir's reign. He painted the well-known Mughal Darbar scene describing. a) Jahangir's accession to the throne b) the arrival of Tansen c) Jahangir's interaction with the people d) the arrival of the Mughal court historians 51. Which of the following countries won the gold medal in Cricket in the Asian Games, 2010? a) Sir Lanka b) Pakistan c) Bangladesh d) India 52. Which of the following is the objective of the Institutes of Technology (Amendment) Bill 2010 passed by the Lok Sabha in March 2011? a) To allow IITs to launch courses in non-engineering disciplines like Medicine and Economics b) To provide IITs autonomy in administration and faculty appointments c) To allow IITs to set up campuses overseas d) To provide IIT status to eight new institutions. 53. The Economic Survey 2010-11 has suggested the creation of a National Forest Land Bank to. a) settle disputes between agitating farmers and POSCO in Orissa b) resolve differences between nodal ministries like Coal and Power and the Ministry of Environment c) meet the UP farmers damand for higher compensation d) Provide relief to the farmers of Vidarbha in Maharashtra 54. India has identified ten new hydropower projects for development to achieve the target of import of 10,000 MW of hydropower from a neighbouring country by 2020. Which is that country? a) Bhutan b) Nepal c) Sri Lanka d) Bangladesh 55. Certain measures of Dalhousie created serious discontent in India which were also responsible for the revolt of 1857. Which of the following measures was not one of them? a) Doctrine of Lapse b) Introduction of Railways and Telegraph c) Abolition of titles and pensions of several rulers d) Educational reforms 56. The Bahmani architecture in the Deccan is marked by its distinct originality and independent style. Which of the following statements about Bahmani architecture are correct? 1. It derived its elements from the atchitectural style of the Delhi Sultanate and that of distant Persia. 2. The forts built by the Bahmanis were undoubtedly the greatest monuments far exceeding any of the same period in Europe. 3. Bahmani architecture did reflect a harmonious belend of both Hindu and Islamic styles. Select the correct answer using the code given below. a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1 and 2 only 57. India is a land of many beautiful ancient temples. Which one among the following temples displays the most extensive and sumptuous rock-cut shrines and is the most marvellous architectural freak in India? a) The Rath temple at Mamallapuram b) The Kailash temple at Ellora c) The Chaturbhuja- Vishnu temple at Khajuraho d) The Kailash temple at Kanchi 58. The Nagar style of architecture developed mostly in a) South India b) North India c) North-West India d) North-East India 59. Which one amoung the following is not a component of fiscal policy? a) Taxation policy b) Public debt policy c) Trade policy d) Public expenditure policy 60. Import substitution implies a) Importing new items in place of old items of import b) gradual reduction of imported goods to save foreign exchange c) increasing domestic domestic supply of goods by imposing import restrictions d) replacing import items by domestic production of such items 61. Which of the following is/ are the part/ parts of the procedure for the impeachment of a judge of the Supreme Court of India? 1. A motion signed by at least 100 members of Lok Sabha or 50 members of Rajya Sabha is delivered to the Speaker or Chairman. 2. The motion is investigated by a Committee of three Jurists Committee constituted by the Speaker or Chairman. 3. The Judge will be removed by the Speaker or Chairman if the Committee of three Jurists recommends. Seclect the correct answer using the code given below. a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1 and 2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1 only 62. In the Consititution of India, the word 'Federal' is used in a) The Preamble b) Part III c) Article 368 d) No where 63. Vehicles carrying inflammable materials usually have metallic ropes touching the ground during motion in order to a) control the speed of the vehicle b) conduct the charge produced by friction c) conduct the current produced by inflammable material d) Provide earthing for lightning 64. Tsunami causes devastation near the coast of the sea as the speed of the sonic waves generated at the epicentre is a) directly proportional to the depth of the sea b) inversely proportional to the depth of the sea c) directly proportional to the distance between the coast and epicentre d) inversely proportional to the distance between the coast and epicentre 65. What is the correct sequence for treatment of polluted surface water? 1. Disinfection and fluoridation 2. Screening and mixing 3. Flocculation and sedimentation 4. Filtration and sludge processing Select the correct answer using the code given below. a) 1-2-3-4 b) 3-4-1-2 c) 2-3-4-1 d) 3-2-1-4 66. At the time of short-circuit the current in the circuit a) reduces substantially b) does not change c) increases heavily d) varies continuously 67. Transformers are used in between the electric power station and homes or factories in order to a) minimise the power loss in transmission cables b) minimise the voltage drop in transmission cables c) minimise the current drop in the transmission cables d) provide constant voltage at the user end 68. An elderly person while trying to read a book at about 25 cm from the eyes finds the image appears blurred because of the deccreasing effectiveness of the ciliary muscles and the loss fo flexibility of the lens. This defect of the eyes is called a) myopia b) astigmatism c) hypermetropia d) presbyopia 69. The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the Earth is maximum and it a) increases as we go up b) decreases as we go up or down c) increases as we go down d) neither increases nor decreases as we go up or down 70. Hydraulic brakes' and 'Hydraulic lift' are devices in which fluids are used for transmitting a) force b) momentum c) pressure d) power 71. Ms. X goes to work by NH-2. She has a meeting at 9:30 AM on a day and missing it may mean missing out a big opportunity for her. On that day all day long NH-2 will be closed for repair. From the aboves statements, which one among the options given below follows? a) Ms. X will not be able to go to work on the day b) Ms. X will not be able to reschedule the meeting to another day or another time c) She surely will lose a big opporttunity for her d) None of the above 72. The statement 'Everyone has a father but not every father has a son' implies that a) every father has at least one son b) not every parent is a male c) some parents have daughters d) no father has just one son 73. Given that 1. Some dentists are Asians 2. Some Asians are not paediatricians. Which one among the follwing is not implied? a) Some people are not paediatricians b) No paediatricians are Asians c) Some Asians are dentists d) There may be dentists who are not Asians 74. If we know that 'some utensils are not microwave-safe' is true, it follows that a) 'some utensils are microwave safe' must be also true b) 'no utensils are microwave-safe' must be true c) 'no utensils are microwave-safe' must be false d) if anything is a utensil, it must be microwave safe' must be true 75. Arrange the following Indian states in descending order of population density as per the Census of India 2011. 1. Uttar Pradesh 2. Kerala 3. Bihar 4. West Bengal Select the answer using the code given below a) 4-3-2-1 b) 3-4-2-1 c) 2-3-4-1 d) 3-4-1-2 76. In which stage of 'demographic transition' is India at present? a) High birth rate and high death rate b) High birth rate and low death rate c) High birth rate and falling death rate d) Low birth rate and low death rate 77. ASEAN (Association of South East Asian Nations) Regional Block consists of number of countries. Which one of the following groups of countries is a part of this block? a) India, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, Bangladesh, Thailand, Myanmar b) Brunei Darussalam, Indonesia, Malaysia, Singapore, Thailand, Vietnam c) Indonesia, Malaysia, New Zealand, Australia, Philippines, China d) Indonesia, Maldives, Bhutan, Nepal, China, Myanmar 78. Which one among the following is not a plantation crop? a) Coffee b) Sugarcane c) Wheat d) Rubber 79. In 2010, at the Lisbon Summit, NATO signed a "Declaration on Enduring Partnership" for future enhanced cooperation with regard to capacity building and security sector reform. With whom did NATO sign this declaration? a) Pakistan b) Turkey c) Serbia d) Afghanistan 80. Which one among the following brought together the thinkers, editors, business and cultural groups and political leaders of India and Pakistan to bridge the divide between the nations? a) Aman Biradari b) Aman Ki Ore c) Aman Ke Raste d) Aman Ki Asha 81. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists List I List II (Border) (Guarding force) A. Indian-Pakistan 1. Indo- Tibetan Police Force B. India-Nepal 2. Border Security Force C. India-China 3. Sashastra Seema Bal D. India-Myanmar 4. Assam Rifles Code: A B C D AB C D A B C D A B C D a) 2 1 3 4 b) 4 3 1 2 c) 2 3 1 4 d) 4 1 3 2 82. If India adopts two time zones based on 75E meridian for westerm India and 90E meridian for eastern India, which one among the following states of eastern India will be benefited most? a) Manipur b) West Bengal c) Assam d) Bihar 83. Arrange the following hills of southern India from north to south: 1. Nilgiri 2. Cardamom 3. Nallamala 4. Anaimalai Select the correct answer using code given below: a) 3-1-4-2 b) 4-3-1-2 c) 1-3-4-2 d) 1-2-3-4 84. Which one among the following local winds is not charactertically hot and dry? a) Sirocco b) Mistral c) Khamsin d) Chinook 85. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists List I List II A. Iron oxide 1. Glossy finish on wood and steel B. Varnish 2. Colourless shining protective coating on wood C. Enamel paint 3. Exterior and interior brick walls D. Emulsion paint 4. Preparatory coating on steel Code: A B C D A B C D a) 4 1 2 3 b) 3 1 2 4 c) 4 2 1 3 d) 3 2 1 4 86. Which one among the following places is not covered by the Golden Chariot, the luxury train designed to visit the historical places of South India? a) Hyderabad b) Bangalor c) Goa d) Mysore 87. Who among the following was not a non-government representive in the Lokpal Bill Drafting Committee, 2011? a) Kiran Bedi b) Arvind Kejriwal c) Prashant Bhushan d) Shanti Bhushan 88. Why is Nagpur promoted as the tiger capital of the world? 1. Nagpur is the major store house of tigers as the districts adjacent to Nagpur have many tiger reserves and sanctuaries. 2. Nagpur has infrastructure that can support a large tourist industry Select the correct answer using the code below: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 89. Consider the following statements about the post-cold war directional changes in Indian foreign policy: 1. By the mid 1990s, Indian foreign policy submitted itself to a process of adaptive learing to boost its status and influence in the globle pecking order. 2. Indian foreign policy has shifted from an over emphasis on idealism during the cold war era to pragmatic realism in the post-cold war era. 3. Indian foreign policy is geared to establish tangible economic and security partnership with major regions and countries of the world. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 only c) 2 only d) 1, 2 and 3 90. Match List I with II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I List II (Festival) (Community/ethnic group) A. Nongkrem 1. Khasi B. Chapchar Kut 2. Mising C. Kherai Puja 3. Bodo D.Ali-Ali-Ligang 4. Mizo Code: A B C D A B C D a) 1 4 3 2 b) 1 3 4 2 c) 2 3 4 1 d) 2 4 3 1 91. The follwing sentences describe one of the sites of the Harappan civilisation: The settlement is divided into two sections, one smaller but higher and the other much larger but lower. Archaeologists disignate these as the citadel and the lower town respectively. Both were walled. Several buildings were built on platforms, which served as foundations. Which of the following sites does it refer to? a) Harappa b) Mohenjodaro c) Lothal d) Kalibangan 92. Which one among the following pairs is not correctly matched? a) Power of the Parliament : Creating a new stage b) Power of state legislature: Altering the name of the state c) Equality before law: Guaranteed to both Indian citizens and non-citizens d) Equality of opportunity: Guaranteed to only Indian citizens 93. Which of the follwing statements regarding Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) in India is/ are correct? 1. The basic aim of setting up the RRBs is to develop rural economy. 2. The area of RRBs is limited to a specific region comprising one or more districts. 3. RRBs are sponsored by Commerical Banks. Select the correct answer using the code given below. a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 94. Which one among the following not an institution of Indian Money Market? a) Reserve Bank of India b) Bill Brokers c) Merchant Bankers d) Non-Banking Financial Inter mediaries 95. The Naxalites have attacked a town in Dantewada district of Chhattisgarh killing 12 security personnel. When the paramilitary forces responded by giving chase to the Naxalites, they retreated to a village and are now taking shelter in the village huts by making the tribals there human shields against the paramilitary forces. Which amongst the following statements is the best response by the paramilitary forces in this situation? a) The paramilitary forces should open fire on the village as it is hiding the Naxalites b) The paramilitary forces should surround the village and offer to negotiate peacefully to avoid civilian casualties by offering a surrender policy. c) The paramilitary forces should utilise air power to target the Naxalites from the air d) The paramilitary forces should surroung the village and then send in 'special police officers' to attack the Naxalites. 96. Sarhul is a festival celebrated during spring by the a) Dimasas b) Santhals c) Khasis d) Jarawas 97. Right to Information is a) fundamental right b) legal right c) neither fundamental right nor legal right d) both fundamental right as well as legal right. 98. While a proclamation of Emergency is in operation, the duration of the Lok Sabha can be extended by not exceeding. a) three months b) nine months c) one year at a time d) two years at a time 99. Which one among the following statements holds good in respect of the Rajya Sabha? a) One-third of its members retire after every three years. b) Two-thirds of its members retire after every three years. c) Two-thirds of its members retire after every two years. d) One-third of its members retire after every two years. 100. Which of the following statements regarding the Fundamental Duties as contained in the constitution of India is/are correct? 1. They can be enforced through writ jurisdiction. 2. They have formed a part of the Constitution since its adoption. 3. They are aplicable only to citizens of India. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1 and 2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 3 only 101. Which one among the following companies did India shortlists for purchasing the Medium 'Multi-Role Combat Aircraft' (MMRCA)? a) US Lockheed Martin's F-16 Super Viper. b) Russian United Aircraft's MiG-35 c) France Dassault Rafale. d) US Boeing F/A 18 Super Hornet 102. Heavy water is so called because it a) contains a number of salts as in sea water b) is the mercury contaminated water c) is saline water used in hospital d) contains the heavier isotope of hydrogen in water. 103. Which one among the following statements is correct? a) Melting of ice and burning of candle represent the same kind of chemical change. b) Melting of ice is a physical change and burning of candle is a chemical change c) Melting of ice is a chemical change and burning of candle is a physical change. d) Melting of a ice and burning of candle represent the same kind of physical change. 104. Steam at 100C is more effective in heating than water at the same temperature because. a) steam is in the gaseous state and water is in the liquid state. b) steam has an additional heat known as 'latent heat of vaporisation' c) water has hydrogen bonds but steam does not d) transfer of heat from steam is easier than water. 105. The first large research reactor of India that uses U-233 as fuel is a) ZERLINA b) PURNIMA c) DHRUVA d) KAMINI Directions: Next five (05) items are based on the information given below: In a class of 84 students, boys and girls are in the ratio of 5 : 7. Among the girls 7 can speak Hindi and English. 50 percent of the total students can speak only Hindi. The ratio of the number of students speaking only Hindi to that speaking only English is 21 : 16. The ratio of the number of boys speaking English only to that of girls speaking English only is 3 : 5. 106. What is the number of boys who speak both the languages? a) 4 b) 5 c) 3 d) 2 107. What is the number of girls who speak English only. a) 10 b) 12 c) 20 d) 22 108. What is the ratio of number of girls who speak Hindi only? a) 10 : 11 b) 11 : 10 c) 2 : 5 d) 3 : 5 109. How many girls can speak Hindi? a) 22 b) 23 c) 27 d) 29 110. What is the ratio of the number of boys who speak English to that of girls who do so? a) 5 : 9 b) 5 : 8 c) 3 : 5 d) 9 : 5 Directions: The following five (05) items consist of two statements, statement I and Statement II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below: Code: a) Both the statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I b) Both the statements are individually true but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I c) Statement I is true but statement II is false. d) Statement I is false but statement II is true. 111. Staement I: The US Army built the historic Stilwell Road in 1943 running from Ledo in Assam to the China-Burma Road. Statement II: The objective was to form a link with the Bengal-Assam Railway and carry support for the US and the UK warfare against Japan. 112. Statement I: The recent national election results in India are indicative of a transition towards a new region based multi-party coalition system. Statement II: The intensification of competitive politics has changed the party system in India from being a rivalry between national parties into one between alliance and coalition of national and state parties. 113. Statement I: In forensic investigations, DNA fingerprinting tests are carried out. Statement II: In DNA fingerprinting technique, DNA is isolated and subjected to Northern Blotting. 114. Statement I: The Earth is shaped more like a tangerine. Statement II: The Earth spins faster at the Poles. 115. Statement I: India used the Minimum Credible Deterrent argument to develop its nuclear weapon system arguing that it had such a threat from China. Pakistan in turn used the same argument against India when it developed its own nuclear weapons. Statement II: The Minimum Credible Deterrent refers to a notion according to which nuclear weapons become necessary for a country when it has a clear nuclear threat. 116. Which one among the following statements relating to a cyclone is not correct? a) It is a wind circulation system with a low pressure at the centre. b) It brings about sudden change in weather condition in an area. c) Wind movement towards the low pressure centre of a cyclone is clockwise in the nothern hemisphere. d) It is known as hurricane in West Indies. 117. Which one among the following forces is most powerful in determining movement of wind including its velocity? a) Gravitational force b) Centrifugal force c) Frictional force d) Pressure gradient force 118. Which of the following statements relating to the planet Venus is/are correct? 1. It is the nearest planet from the Sun. 2. It is only slightly smaller than the Earth. 3. It has no atmosphere. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 only d) 1 and 2 only 119. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I List II (River) (Tributary) A. Godavari 1. Son B. Krishna 2. Chambal C. Yamuna 3. Bhima D. Ganga 4. Manjira Code: A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D a) 4 3 2 1 b) 4 2 3 1 c) 1 2 3 4 d) 1 3 2 4 120. Which of the following statements regarding United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) is/are correct? 1. The theme for the year 2011 is 'Forest: Nature at Your Service'. 2. It underscores link between quality of life and health and forest ecosystem. 3. India is declared as a global host of World Environment Day 2011. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1 and 2 only 121. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I List II (Promient American Indian) (Field of activity) A. Piyush 'Bobby' Jindal 1. Media B. Manoj Night Shyamalan 2. Author C. Siddhartha Mukherjee 3. Film Maker D. Fareed Zakaria 4. Administration Code: A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D a) 4 3 2 1 b) 4 2 3 1 c) 1 3 2 4 d) 1 2 3 4 122. Which one among the following statements regarding SAARC is correct? a) Myanmar is a memeber of SAARC b) Headquarters of SAARC is located in Dhaka c) The first SAARC award was posthumously conferred upon late President Ziaur Rahman of Bangladesh d) The Present Secretary General of SAARC is from India 123. Which of the following statements regarding Chipko Movement is/are correct? 1. Chipko Movement took place in the early 1970s against the introduction of commercial forestry. 2. Chipko refers to a single movement and not a collective of several movements. 3. Chipko did not begin as a movement for conservation but primary as an economic struggle, the root of which lay in rural and peasant protests. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 1 and 3 c) 2 only d) 1 and 2 124. Which one among the following wars was ended by the Treaty of Madras? a) First Carnatic war b) Second Carnatic war c) First Mysore war d) Second Mysore war 125. The Harappan Civilisation covered an extensive area of present South Asia. The geographic space covered by this civilisation included. a) Kashmir, Punjab, Sindh and North-eastern frontier b) Punjab, Sindh, North-western frontier and Kashmir c) Punjab, Sindh and a part of North-western frontier d) Punjab, Sindh, a part of North- western frontier, Kathiawar and a part of Ganga-Yamuna Doab. ANSWERS 1-D; 2-D; 3-A; 4-D; 5-C; 6-B; 7-A; 8-A; 9-C; 10-D; 11-B 12-C; 13-D; 14-C; 15-B; 16-B; 17-A; 18-C; 19-B; 20-C; 21-D; 22-C; 23-C; 24-D; 25-B; 26-D; 27-C; 28-C; 29-D; 30-C; 31-A; 32-A; 33-B; 34-C; 35-C; 36-B; 37-A; 38-C; 39-D; 40-D; 41-C; 42-D; 43-D; 44-A; 45-D; 46-C; 47-B; 48-C; 49-D; 50-C; 51-C; 52-D; 53-B; 54-A; 55-C; 56-C; 57-A; 58-A; 59-C; 60-D; 61-B; 62-D; 63-B; 64-A; 65-C; 66-C; 67-A; 68-D; 69-B; 70-A; 71-B; 72-C; 73-B; 74-C; 75-B; 76-B; 77-B; 78-C; 79-D; 80-D; 81-C; 82-A; 83-A; 84-B; 85-C; 86-A; 87-A; 88-A; 89-D; 90-A; 91-A; 92-B; 93-D; 94-A; 95-B; 96-B; 97-C; 98-C; 99-D; 100-D; 101-C; 102-D; 103-B; 104-B; 105-D 106-C; 107-C; 108-A; 109-D; 110-A; 111-A; 112-A; 113-C; 114-C; 115-C; 116-C; 117-D; 118-C; 119-A; 120-A; 121-A; 122-C; 123-B; 124-C; 125-D. |
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