Bar Exam Sample Question

Hello sir I am here as I want to get the Sample Question Paper of the All India Bar Examination so will you please provide me that??

[Pathak]

As per your demand here I am providing you Sample Question Paper of the All India Bar Examination

Sample Question Paper of the All India Bar Examination

1. The structure of Indian Constitution is?
A) Federal in form and unitary in spirit.
B) Unitary.
C) Unitary in form and federal in spirit.
D) Purely federal.

2. “The Constitution establishes a system of government, which is almost Quasi-federal” , This statement relates to?
A) Sir Jennings.
B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.
C) Prof. K. C. Wheare.
D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad.

3. In whose time period, the Panchayats were given the Constitutional status?
A) Rajiv Ghandhi.
B) Chandrashekhar.
C) V.P. Singh.
D) P.V. Narsimha Rao.

4. Which one of the following statement correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India?
A) It lists the distribution of powers between the union and the states.
B) It contains the language listed in the Constitution.
C) It contains the provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas.
D) It allocates seats in the Council of States.

5. Who described the Part III of the Indian Constitution as “most criticized part of the Constitution”?
A) Jawahar Lal Nehru.
B) B.R. Ambedkar.
C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad.
D) B.N.Rau.

6. When an Enactment is of such a nature that no separation is possible between inconsistent and consistent part?
A) Whole Act will be operative.
B) Whole Act will be inoperative.
C) The Act will neither be operative nor inoperative.
D) None of these.

7. For which of the following, special provisions can be made under Article 15 of the Constitution of India?
A) Women and Children.
B) Scheduled and Tribes.
C) Economically Backward Classes.
D) Socially Backward Classes.

8. Under which law the ‘untouchability’ has been declared abolished in India?
A) Protection of Civil Rights Act.
B) Schedule Castes and Schedule Tribes Act, 1989.
C) Constitution of India.
D) All of the above.

9. The Supreme Court has held in a case that Mrs. Sonia Gandhi,the President of Congress(I) is not an Italian citizen, but is an Indian citizen under:
A) Article 10.
B) Article11.
C) The citizenship Act, 1955.
D) None of the above.

10. Constitution is generally defined as?
A) Law of the land.
B) Fundamental law of the land.
C) Administrative law of the land.
D) Constitutional law of the land.

11. Judgment under Sec.2 (9) means
A) A decree formally expressed.
B) A decree informally expressed.
C) Statements of grounds of an order or decree.
D) The relief granted.

12. Which of the following is not a pleader?
A) An Advocate.
B) A Vakil.
C) An Attorney of high court.
D) Recognized agent.

13. Which of the following suits is not of a civil nature:
A) Suits relating to right to property.
B) Suits relating to right to worship/ to share In offerings.
C) Suits relating to taking out of religious procession.
D) Suits for recovery of voluntary payments or offerings.

14. In which of the following cases, Sec 10 will apply?
A) Where the earlier suits was for recovery of rent for a certain period and the subsequent suits is for recovery of rent for subsequent years and for ejectment.
B) ‘B’ is a merchant residing in Delhi, and he has an agent, ‘A’ at Mumbai, to sell his goods in Mumbai. ‘A’ sues ‘B’ in Mumbai, claiming a balance due upon an account in respect of dealings between ‘A’ and ‘B’. While this suits is pending in Mumbai, ‘B’ files a suits against ‘A’ in Delhi for an account and for damages caused by A’s alleged negligence.
C) The previous suits is for mens profits and the subsequent suits is for title.
D) All of the above.

15. Which Explanation to Sec 11 refers to cases in which a decision in a suit may operate as res judicata against persons not expressly named as parties to the suits.
A) Explanation II to Sec. 11.
B) Explanation III to Sec. 11.
C) Explanation IV to Sec. 11.
D) Explanation VI to Sec. 11.

16. In which of the following cases, res judicata is not applicable?
I. A judgment against which an appeal has been field.
II. Consent/ compromise decree.
III. Ex parte decree.
IV. An obiter dictum.
V. When the earlier decision is opposed to the provision of a statute.
VI. Public interst cases.
VII. A judgment obtained by fraud or collusion.

Codes:
A) I, II and III.
B) II, IV and VI.
C) I, II, IV, V, VI and VII.
D) II, III, IV, V, VI and VII.


17. X is living in Pune and Y, his brother in Mumbai. X wants to file a suit for partition of their joint property situated in Delhi and Bangalore.
A) The suit may be instituted in Delhi only.
B) The suit may be instituted in Bangalore only.
C) The suit may be instituted either in Delhi or Bangalore.
D) None of the above.

18. Where two or more Courts having the jurisdiction, the jurisdiction of a civil courts under Sec. 20, C.P.C.:
A) Can be excluded by a clear agreement between the parties.
B) Cannot be excluded under any circumstance.
C) Can be excluded by a court’s order.
D) None of the above.

19. A suit is transferred by the Supreme Court from one court ‘A’ to another court ‘B’ Meanwhile, during the transfer, the law applicable to the suit got changed.
A) The original law which was to be applied by the court ‘A’ has to be applied by the court ‘B’.
B) The original law which was to be applied by the court ‘A’ is not to be applied by the court ‘B’.
C) The court ‘B’ is required to consider the stage at which the suit was transferred for determining the applicability of old or new law to it.
D) Both (b) and (c).

20. In a suit instituted in England on the basis of a contract made in India, the English Court applied English law. The judgment of the court is:
A) Conclusive.
B) Not conclusive.
C) Not conclusive; the rights and liabilities of the parties to a contract are governed by the place where the contract is made.
D) Conclusive because the rights and liabilities of the parties to a contract are governed by the place where a suit is filed for a breach of the contract.

21. When the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 came into force?
A) On April 1, 1973.
B) On April 1, 1974.
C) On January 1, 1974.
D) On March 1, 1974.

22. In a First Information Report, an offence is cognizable and other is non cognizable, the whole case shall be deemed to be?
A) Cognizable.
B) Non-cognizable.
C) It is to be seen whether it is a warrant case.
D) It is to be whether it is a summons case.

23. A Metropolitan Magistrate is equivalent to?
A) Judicial magistrate of the First Class.
B) Judicial magistrate of the Second Class.
C) Jither (a) and (b).
D) None of the above.

24. For appointment of a Special Public Prosecutor, how many years of experience is required as a practicing Advocate?
A) 7 years.
B) 10 years.
C) 15 years.
D) 5 years.

25. Which of the following sentence may be passed by a Magistrate of Second Class?
A) Imprisonment for a term not exceeding two years.
B) Imprisonment for a term not exceeding one years.
C) Imprisonment for a term not exceeding six months.
D) Only a fine not exceeding five thousand rupees.

26. Any Police Officer may not without an order from Magistrate and without a warrant, arrest any person?
A) Who has been concerned in any non cognizable offence
B) Who has been accused of committing a non-cognizable offence refuses to give his name and address.
C) Who has been a released convict
D) Who has been in possession of any implement of house-breaking

27. If a person in lawful custody escapes, the person from whose custody he escaped may immediately pursue and arrest him?
A) Within local limits of the police station concerned.
B) Within local limits of the district.
C) Within local limits of the state.
D) In any place in India.

28. A person arrested by a police officer may be kept in custody for?
A) 2 years.
B) 3 years.
C) 24 hrs.
D) 1 week.

29. When a court desires that a summons issued by it shall be served at any place outside its local Jurisdiction is shall ordinarily send such summons in duplicate to?
A) Magistrate of Competent Jurisdiction.
B) Inspector of such local officer.
C) Either of the above two.
D) All of the above.

30. Which is not the main principle that underlines the law of Evidence?
A) Evidence must be confined to the matters In issue.
B) Hearsay Evidence must not be admitted.
C) Hearsay Evidence must not be admitted.
D) The best Evidence must be given in all cases.

31. Under the Indian Evidence Act, the term ”fact” includes?
A) Facts in issue and relevant facts.
B) Principal facts and evidentiary facts.
C) Factum probandum and factum probans.
D) All of the above.

32. A is accused of a child’s murder. The following facts are constructed in the case?
1. An hour before the murder, A went to the place of murder with the child.
2. Alone returned home.
3. A’s cloth were found to be blood-stained.
The Evidence which takes into account the above-mentioned facts is called?
A) Direct Evidence.
B) Circumstantial Evidence.
C) Real Evidence.
D) Secondary Evidence.

33. The questions whether A murdered B during the course of a struggle. Marks on the ground produced by the straggle at the place of occurrence are a relevant fact which section of the Evidence Act?
A) Sec. 6.
B) Sec. 7.
C) Sec.8.
D) Sec. 10.

34. The question is, whether A was ravished .the fact that, shortly after the alleged rape, A made a complaint relating to the offence is a?
A) Relevant fact showing conduct.
B) Relevant fact showing motive.
C) Ract in issue.
D) None of the above.

35. The Plea of Alibi is governed by which section of the Evidence Act?
A) Sec12.
B) Sec 11.
C) Sec 13.
D) Sec 14.

36. Which of the following statement is correct?
A) Admission could be oral only.
B) Admission could be documentary only.
C) Admission could be documentary or oral.
D) Admission are conclusive proof of the matters admitted.

37. Opinion of an expert is?
A) Relevant but unsafe.
B) A conclusive proof.
C) Supportive and corroborative in nature.
D) Both (a) and (c)

38. The communication of a revocation , as against the person who makes it , is complete :
A) When it is put into a course of transmission so as to be out of the power of the person who makes it.
B) When it comes to the knowledge of the person to whom it is being made.
C) When the person to whom it is being made , signifies his assent thereto.
D) All of the above.

39. An Agreement is :
A) Every promise and every set of promises forming the consideration for each other.
B) Every promise to do something or to abstain from doing something.
C) Signification by one person of the intention to abide by the promise.
D) Promise against a promise.

40. Which of the following statement is correct:
A) A lunatic person can never enter into a contact.
B) A lunatic person is legally capable of entering into a contract at any time.
C) A lunatic person should not enter into a contract.
D) A lunatic person , who is at intervals of sound mind, may contract during those intervals.

41. The carlill v. carbolic smoke ball co., case is related to :
A) Offer and counter offer
B) Offer to public at large
C) Invitation to offer to public at large
D) Offer and revocation of offer


42. Stop where repayment begins “, can be applied with respect to :
A) Minors only
B) An alien enemy only
C) Lunatics and idiots only
D) Any incapable person

43. The agreement entered into by a minor is :
A) Null and void contract
B) Voidable contract , at the option of the minor
C) Valid and enforceable contract
D) Not a contract at all

44. When goods are displayed in a show-window bearing price-tags, it indicates:
A) An invitation to visit the show-room and see the new products launched
B) An offer to see goods at prices mentioned on the price tags
C) An advertisement to lure ,ore customers
D) An invitation to make an offer

45. What will be effect of mistakes as to law in force in India on the agreement ?
A) Not voidable
B) Voidable
C) Void
D) Not

46. ‘A’, for natural love and affection, promises to give his son , ‘B’ Rs.1000/-. This is:
A) A valid contract and is enforceable
B) A void agreement for the want of seriousness of the parties
C) Not a contract due to non-fulfillment of the technical requirement of the relevant provision of Contract Act
D) A voidable contract at A’s option

47. The nature of the Specific Relief Act is:
A) Remedial in nature.
B) Protective in nature.
C) A procedural law.
D) All of these.

48. The basis of Specific Relief Act is:
A) Law of equity
B) Common law
C) Roman law
D) All of the above.

49. Specific Reliefs under the Act could be in the form of:
A) Rectification of instruments.
B) Declaratory decree.
C) Injunctions.
D) All of the above.

50. Specific Relief under the Act:
A) Covers possession of immovable property only.
B) Covers possession of movable property only
C) Both (a) and (b)
D) Only (a)

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