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Old 20th July 2014, 12:36 PM
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Default All India Pre-Medical / Pre-Dental Entrance Test previous year question papers

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  #2  
Old 22nd July 2014, 09:16 AM
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Default Re: All India Pre-Medical / Pre-Dental Entrance Test previous year question papers

As you want to get the All India Pre-Medical / Pre-Dental Entrance Test previous year question papers so here it is for you:

Some content of the file has been given here:

1. Which one, of the following statements about all the four
of Spongilla, Leech, Dolphin and Penguinis correct.
(1) Spongilla has special collared cells called
choanocytes, not found in the remaining three
(2) All are bilaterally symmetrical
(3) Penguin is homoiothermic while the remaining
three are poikilothermic
(4) Leech is a fresh water form while all others
atemaririe
Ans. (1)
2. Which one of the following statements about
human’sperm incorrect?
(1) Acrosome servesas a sensory structure leading
the sperm towards the ovum
(2) Acrosome serves no particular function.
(3) Acrosome has a conical pointed structure
used for piercing and penetrating the egg, resulting
in fertilisation
(4) The sperm lysins in the acrosome dissolve the
egg envelope facilitating fertilisation
Ans. (4)
3. The nerve centres which control the body temperature
and the urge for eating are contained in
(1) Cerebellum
(2) Thalamus
(3) Hypothalamus
(4) Pons
Ans. (3)
4. What is true about RBCs in humans ?
(1) They frarisport about 80 per cent oxygen
pnly and the rest; 20 per cent of it is transported
in dissolved state in blood plasma
(2) They do not carry CO2 at all
(3) They carry about 20–25 per cent of CO2
(4) They do not carry CO2 at all They carry about
20-25 per cent of CO2 They transport 99.5
percent of O2
Ans. (3)
5. Which one of the following is used as vector for
cloning genes into higher organisms?
(1) Rhizopus nigriccans
(2) Retrovirus
(3) Baculovirus
(4) Salmonella typhimurium
Ans. (2)
6. Select the two corret statements out of the four
(a–d) given below about lac operon.
(1) Glucose or galactose may bind with the
repressor and inactivate it
(2) Inthe absence of lactose the repressor binds
with the operatorregion
(3) The z-gene codes for permease
(4) This was elucidated byFrancois Jacob and
Jacque Monod
Ans. (1)
7. The scutellum observed in a grain of wheat or maize is
comparable to which part of the seed in other
monocotyledons ?
(1) Aleurone layer
(2) Plumule
(3) Cotyledons
(4) Endosperm
Ans. (3)
8. Ringworm in humans is caused by:
(1) Nematodes
(2) Viruses
(3) Bacteria
(4) Fungi
Ans. (4)
9. The technical term used for the androecium in a flower
of China rose (Hibiscus rosasinensis) is:
(1) Polyandrous (2) Polyadelphous
(3) Monadelphous (4) Diadelphous
Ans. (3)
10. Which one of the following is an example of ex-situ
conservation ?
(1) Sacred groves
(2) National park
(3) Wildlife sanctuary
(4) Seed bank
Ans. (4)
11. Wind pollinated flowers are:
(1) large producing abundant nectar and pollen
(2) small, producing nectar and dry pollen
(3) small, brightly coloured, producing large number
of pollen grains
(4) small, producing large number of dry pollen
grains
Ans. (4)
12. Keel is characteristic of the flowers of:
(1) Calotropis
(2) Bean
(3) Gulmohur
(4) Cassia
Ans. (2)
13. The biomass available for consumption by the herbivores
and the decomposers is called:
(1) Standing crop
(2) Gross primary productivity
(3) Net primary productivity
(4) Secondary productivity
Ans. (3)
14. Seminal plasma in human males is rich in:
(1) DNA and testosterone
(2) ribose and potassium
(3) fructose and calcium
(4) glucose and calcium
Ans. (3)
15. The principal nitrogenouse excretory compound in humans
is synthesised:
(1) in liver and also eliminated by the same through
bile
(2) in the liver, but eliminated mostly through kidneys
(3) in kidneys but eliminated mostly through liver
(4) in kidneys as well as eliminated by kidneys
Ans. (2)
16. Darwin’s finches are a good example of:
(1) Adaptive radiation
(2) Convergent evolution
(3) Industrial melanism
(4) Connecting link
Ans. (1)
17. Which one of the following statements about morula in
humans is corect?
(1) It has more or less equal quantity of cytoplasm
and DNA as in uncleaved zygote
(2) It has more cytoplasm and more DNA than an
uncleaved zygote
(3) It has almost equal quantity of cytoplams as an
uncleaved zygote but much more DNA
(4) It has far less cytoplasm as well as less DNA
than in an uncleaved zygote
Ans. (3)
18. An element playing important role in nitrogen fixation is:
(1) Manganese (2) Zinc
(3) Molybdenum (4) Copper
Ans. (3)
19. The two gases making highest relative contribution to
the greenhouse gases are:
(1) CFC5 and N2O (2)CO2 and N2O
(3) CO2 and CH4 (4) CH4 and N2O
Ans. (3)
20. Toxic agents present in food which interfere with
thyroxine synthesis lead to the development of:
(1) simple goitre (2) thyrotoxicosis
(3) toxic goitre (4) cretinism
Ans. (1)
21. In unilocular ovary with a single ovule the placentation
is:
(1) Free Central (2) Axile
(3) Marginal (4) Basal
Ans. (4)
22. Apomictic embryos in citrus arise from:
(1) Antipodal cells
(2) Diploid egg
(3) Synergids
(4) Maternal sporophytic tissue in ovule
Ans. (4)
23. Which one of the following has its own DNA?
(1) Lysosome (2) Peroxisome
(3) Mitochondria (4) Dictyosome
Ans. (3)
24. The kind of epithelium which forms the inner walls of
blood vessels is:
(1) ciliated columnar epithelum
(2) squamous epithelium
(3) cuboidal epithelium
(4) columnar epithelium
Ans. (2)
25. Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma
of another flower of the same plant is called:
(1) Karyogamy (2) Autogamy
(3) Xenogamy (4) Gitnogamy
Ans. (4)
26. The second maturation division of the mammalian ovum
occurs:
(1) Until the nucleus of the sperm has fused with that
of the ovum
(2) in the Graafian follicle following the first maturation
division
(3) Shortly after ovulation before the ovum makes
entry into the Fallopian tube
(4) Until after the ovum has been penetrated by a
sperm
Ans. (4)
27. Which one of the following is not used in organic
farming?
(1) Oscillatoria (2) Snail
(3) Glomus (4) Earthworm
Ans. (1)
28. Which two of the following changes (a-d) usually tend
to occur in the plain dwellers when they move to high
altitudes (3,500 m or more)?
(a) Increase in red blood cell size
(b) Increase in red blood cell production
(c) Increased breathing rate
(d) Increase in thrombocyte count
Changes occurring are:
(1) (a) and (d) (2) (a) and (b)
(3) (b) and (c) (4) (c) and (d)
Ans. (3)
29. A renewable exhaustible natural resource is:
(1) Minerals (2) Forest
(3) Coal (4) Petroleum
Ans. (2)
30. Slect the correct statement from the following :
(1) Biogas commonly called gobar gas, is pure
methane
(2) Activated sludge-sediment in settlement tanks of
sewage treatment plant is a rich source of aerobic
bacteria
(3) Biogas is produced by the activity of aerobic
bacteria on animal waste
(4) Methanobacterium is an aerobic bacterium found
in rumen of cattle
Ans. (2)
31. The permissible use of the teachnique amniocentesis is
for:
(1) transfer of embryo into the uterus of a surrogate
mother
(2) detecting any genetic abnormality
(3) detecting sex of the unborn foetus
(4) artificial insemination
Ans. (2)
32. The main arena of various types of activities of a cell is:
(1) Cytoplasm (2) Nucleus
(3) Plasma membrane (4) Mitochondrian
Ans. (1)
33. Phototropic curvature is the result of uneven distribution
of:
(1) Cytokinins (2) Auxin
(3) Gibberellins (4) Phytochorme
Ans. (2)
34. Listed below are four respiratory capacities (a-d) and
four jumbled respiratory volumes of a normal human
adult:
Respiratory Respiratory
capacities volumes
(a) Rsidual volume 2500 mL
(b) Vital capacity 3500 mL
(c) Inspiratory reserve 1200 mL
(d) Inspiratory capacity 4500 mL
Shich one of the following is the correct matchign of
two capacities and volumes?
(1) (d) 3500 mL (a) 1200 mL
(2) (a) 4500 mL (b) 3500 mL
(3) (b) 2500 mL (c) 4500 mL
(4) (c) 1200 mL (d) 2500 mL
Ans. (1)
35. The signals for parturition originate from:
(1) Oxytocin released from maternal pituitary
(2) fully developed foetus only
(3) placenta only
(4) placenta as well as fully developed foetus
Ans. (4)
36. Select the correct statement from the ones given below
with respect to dihybrid cross
(1) Genes loosely linked on the same chromosome
show similar recombinations as the tightly linked
ones
(2) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome
show very few recombinations
(3) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome
show higher recombinations
(4) Genes far apart on the same chromosome show
very few recombinations
Ans. (2)
37. Restriction endonucleases are enzymes which:
(1) restrict the action of the enzyme DNA polymerase
(2) remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA
molecule
(3) make cuts at specific positions within the DNA
molecule
(4) recognize a specific nucleotide sequence for
binding of DNA ligase
Ans. (3)
38. The part of Fallopian tube closest to the ovary is:
(1) Cervix (2) Ampulla
(3) Isthmus (4) Infundibulum
Ans. (4)
39. ABO blood groups in humans are controlled by the gene
I. It has three alleles-AA, IB and i. Since there are three
different alleles, six different genotypes are possible.
How many phenotypes can occur?
(1) Four (2) Two
(3) Three (4) One
Ans. (1)
40. dB is a standard abbreviation used for the quantitative
expression of
(1) the dominant Bacilus in a culture
(2) a certain pesticide
(3) the density of bacteria in a medium
(4) a particular pollutant
Ans. (4)
41. The one aspect which is not a salient feature of genetic
code, is its being:
(1) Universal (2) Specific
(3) Degenerate (4) Ambiguous
Ans. (4)
42. The genotype of a plant showing the dominant phenotype
can be determined by:
(1) Pedigree analysis (2) Back cross
(3) Test cross (4) Dihybrid cross
Ans. (3)
43. Which one of the following does not follow the central
dogma of molecular biology?
(1) Chlamydomonas (2) HIV
(3) Pea (4) Mucor
Ans. (2)
44. Consider the following four statements (a-d) regarding
kidney transplant and select the two correct ones out of
these.
(a) Even if a kidney transplant is proper the recipient
may need to take immuno-suppresants for a long
time
(b) The cell-mediated immune response is responsible
for the graft rejection
(c) The B-lymphocytes are responsible for rejection
of the graft
(d) The acceptance or rejection of a kidney transplant
depends on specific interferons
The two correct statements are:
(1) (a) and (c) (2) (a) and (b)
(3) (b) and (c) (4) (c) and (d)
Ans. (2)
45. An improved variety of transgenic basmati rice:
(1) is completely resistant to all insect pests and
diseases of paddy
(2) gives high yield but has no characterisitic aroma
(3) does not require chemical fertilizers and growth
hormones
(4) gives high yield and is rich in vitamin A
Ans. (4)
46. Heartwood differs from sapwood in:
(1) Having dead and non0conducting elements
(2) Being susceptible to pests and pathogens
(3) Presence of rays and fibres
(4) Absence of vessels and parenchyma
Ans. (1)
47. Which one of the following palindromic base sequences
in DNA can be easily cut at about the middle by sonie
particular restriction enzyme?
(1) 5’-----GAATTC------3’
3’-----CTTAAG------5’
(2) 5’-----GACGTA------3’
3’-----GTCAGT------5’
(3) 5’-----CGTTCG------3’
3’-----ATGGTA------5’
(4) 5’-----GATATG------3’
3’-----CTACTA------5’
Ans. (1)
48. DNA or RNA segment tagged with a radioactive
molecule is called:
(1) Clone (2) Plasmid
(3) Vector (4) Probe
Ans. (4)
49. The first movements of the foetus and appearance of
hair on its head are usually observed during which month
of pregnancy>
(1) Sixth month (2) Third month
(3) Fourth month (4) Fifth month
Ans. (4)
50. Which one of the following is not a micronutrient?
(1) Zinc (2) Boron
(3) Molybdenum (4) Magnesium
Ans. (4)
51. PGA as the first CO2 fixation product was discovered in
photosynthesis of:
(1) Angiosperm (2) Alga
(3) Bryophyte (4) Gymnosperm
Ans. (2)
52. Single-celled eukaryotes are included in:
(1) Archaea (2) Monera
(3) Protista (4) Fungi
Ans. (3)
53. Which one of the following symbols and its
representation, used in human pedigree analysis is
correct?
(1) = unaffected female
(2) = male affected
(3) = mating between relatives
(4) = unaffected male


For more detailed information I am uploading PDF files which are free to download:


Contact Details:
Central Board of Secondary Education
Community Centre,
Preet Vihar Metro Railway Station,
Shiksha Kendra,Building No.2,
Acharya Nag Raj Marg,
Block D, Preet Vihar,
New Delhi,
Delhi 110092 ‎
011 2202 3737 ‎
India


Map Location:

Last edited by Kiran Chandar; 12th November 2014 at 08:42 AM.
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  #3  
Old 23rd August 2014, 01:36 PM
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Default All India Pre-Medical / Pre-Dental Entrance Test previous year question papers

Will you please share with me the All India Pre-Medical / Pre-Dental Entrance Test previous year question papers?
Reply With Quote Quick reply to this message
  #4  
Old 23rd August 2014, 03:52 PM
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Default Re: All India Pre-Medical / Pre-Dental Entrance Test previous year question papers

As you want to get the All India Pre-Medical / Pre-Dental Entrance Test previous year question papers so here it is for you:

Syllabus of AIPMT:

Syllabus
Physics - 45 questions
Class XI:
Physical World and Measurement; Kinematics; Laws of Motion; Work, Energy and Power; Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Body; Gravitation; Properties of Bulk Matter; Thermodynamics; Behavior of Perfect Gas and Kinetic Theory; Oscillations and Waves

Class XII:
Electrostatics; Current Electricity; Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism; Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents; Electromagnetic Waves; Optics; Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation; Atoms and Nuclei; Electronic Devices

Chemistry - 45 questions
Class XI:
Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry; Structure of Atom; Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties; Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure; States of Matter: Gases and Liquids; Thermodynamics; Equilibrium; Redox Reactions; Hydrogen; s-Block Element (Alkali and Alkaline Earth metals); Some p-Block Elements; Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques; Hydrocarbons; Environmental Chemistry

Class XII:
Solid State; Solutions; Electrochemistry; Chemical Kinetics; Surface Chemistry; General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements; p-Block Elements; d and f Block Elements; Coordination Compounds; Haloalkanes and Haloarenes; Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers; Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids; Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen; Biomolecules; Polymers; Chemistry in Everyday Life

Biology - 90 questions
Class XI:
Diversity in Living World; Structural Organization in Animals and Plants; Cell Structure and Function; Plant Physiology; Human Physiology

Class XII:
Reproduction; Genetics and Evolution; Biology and Human Welfare; Biotechnology and its Applications; Ecology and Environment

Some content of the file has been given here:









For more detailed information I am uploading PDF files which are free to download:

http://www.jbigdeal.com/wp-content/u...stionPaper.pdf
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Old 31st March 2016, 03:06 AM
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Default Re: All India Pre-Medical / Pre-Dental Entrance Test previous year question papers

Hi, does anybody differentiate how to get wifi password from domicile router?
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