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  #1  
Old 12th May 2016, 03:04 PM
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Default All India PG Medical Entrance Exam Question Papers

Hello sir I want to prepare for All India PG Medical Entrance Exam so for practice can you please give me qus paper for practice ?
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  #2  
Old 12th May 2016, 04:00 PM
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Default Re: All India PG Medical Entrance Exam Question Papers

Hey as per your demand here I am providing you All India PG Medical Entrance Exam Question Papers

1. All of the following are features of prematurity in a neonate, except:

1. No creases on sole.

2. Abundant lanugo.

3. Thick ear cartilage.

4. Empty scrotum.

2. A normally developing 10 month old child should be able to do all of the following except :
1. Stand alone.

2. Play peek a boo.

3. Pick up a pellet with thumb and index finger.

4. Build a tower of 3-4 cubes.

3. The following are characteristic of autism except :

1. Onset after 6 years of age.

2. Repetitive behaviour.


3. Delayed language development.

4. Severe deficit in social interaction.

4. The earliest indicator of response after starting iron in a 6- year-old girl with iron deficiency is:

1. Increased reticulocyte count.


2. Increased hemoglobin.

3. Increased ferritin.

4. Increased serum iron.

5. A 1 month old boy is referred for failure to thrive. On examination, he shows features of congestive failure. The femoral pulses are feeble as compared to branchial pulses. The most likely clinical diagnosis is :

1. Congenital aortic stenosis.

2. Coarctation of aorta.

3. Patent ductus arteriosus.

4. Congenital aortoiliac disease.

6. All of the following statements regarding subendocardinal infarction are true, except :

1. These are multifocal in nature.

2. These often result from hypotension or shock.

3. Epicarditis is not seen.


4. These may result in aneurysm.

7. All of the following are true for mitral valve prolapse, except :
1. Transmission may be as an Autosomal dominant trait.

2. Majority of the case present with features of mitral regurgitation.

3. The value leaflets characteristically show myxomatous degeneration.

4. The disease is one of the common cardiovascular manifestations of Marfan Syndrome.

8. The following diseases are associated with Epstein – Barr virus infection, except :
1. Infectious mononucleosis.

2. Epidermodysplasia verruciformis.


3. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma.

4. Oral Hairy leukoplakia

9. Megaloblastic anaemia due to folic acid deficiency is commonly due to :

1. Inadequate dietary intake.

2. Defective intestinal absorption.

3. Absence of folic acid binding protein in serum.

4. Absence of glutamic acid in the intestine

10. The most important prognostic factor in breast carcinoma is :

1. Histological grade of the tumour.

2. Stage of the tumour at the time of diagnosis.

3. Status of estrogen and progesterone receptors.

4. Over expression of p-53 tumour suppressor gene.

11. Smoking is generally not associated as a risk factor with :
1. Small cell carcinoma.

2. Respiratory bronchiolitis.

3. Emphysema.

4. Bronchiolitis obliterans organizing pneumonia.

12. The tumour, which may occur in the residual breast or overlying skin following wide local excision and radiotherapy for mammary carcinoma, is :

1. Leiomyosarcoma.

2. Squamous cell carcinoma.

3. Basal cell carcinoma.

4. Angiosarcoma.

13. The type of mammary ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) most likely to result in a palpable abnormality in the breast is :

1. Apocrine DCIS.

2. Neuroendocrine DCIS.

3. Well differentiated DCIS.


4. Comedo DCIS.

14. Acinic cell carcinomas of the salivary gland arise most often in the :
1. Parotid salivary gland.

2. Minor salivary glands.

3. Submandibular salivary gland.

4. Sublingual salivary gland.

15. All of the following statements regarding primary effusion lymphoma are true except :

1. It generally presents in elderly patients.

2. There is often an association with HHV-8.

3. The proliferating cells are NK cells.

4. Patients are commonly HIV positive.
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  #3  
Old 30th June 2020, 01:59 PM
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Default Re: All India PG Medical Entrance Exam Question Papers

Can you provide me previous year question paper for National Eligibility cum Entrance Test Post Graduation or NEET PG conducted by National Board of Examinations (NBE)?
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Old 30th June 2020, 02:01 PM
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Default Re: All India PG Medical Entrance Exam Question Papers

The previous year question paper for National Eligibility cum Entrance Test Post Graduation or NEET PG conducted by National Board of Examinations (NBE) is as follows:


OBG
1. True about Acute fatty liver in pregnancy -- Occurs late in pregnancy ....


2. FBS values for Overt GDM-- 126 mg%...

3. Heavy menstrual bleeding for 6 months ,,USG shows 2cm intramural
fibroid --- Endometrial sampling is next step of management ..

4. Vaccine C/I in pregnancy - Varicella

5. Amniotic Fluid after 20 wks -- Fetal urine ...

6. Physiological change in pregnancy A/E -- decreased FRC (In question
,,they given increased FRC,,,, but in pregnancy ,,,,FRC decreases .....))

7. Septic pelvic thrombophlebitis -- Treatment is Continue antibiotics and add
heparin...( Williams Obstetrics,25 th edition , page 673-- heparin in septic
pelvic thrombophlebitis,,is not recommended

8. Partial mole -- 69XXX

9. Maximum dose of 15 methyl PGF2alfa --- 2000 micrograms

10. Ullipristal -- 30 mg

11. 41 wks ,no contractions ,cervix uneffaced ,os closed --PGF2alfa have no
role in induction .......

12. Not a gestational trophoblastic neoplasm --- Partial mole

13. 3 rd degree UV prolapse with cystocele with rectocele – Vaginal
hysterectomy with PFR ....

14. Recurrent miscarriage with APLA positive --Aspirin and heparin are
required ...

15. OCP,s prevent A/E-- Thromboembolic events ..

16. AMH value in poor ovarian reserve -- -- <1

17. Nuchal translucency time --( 10 - -14 wks .)..

18. Role of magnesium sulphate A/E-- No role of MgSO4 in reducing RDS in
new born ..)

19. Sexually active female // Frothy discharge///ph-5.4,,on microscopy ---
Trichomonas Vaginalis ...

20. Gemeprost -- Pge1 analog ...

21. Testosterone --leydig cells ...

22. Engaging diameter/ Well flexed /Vx---- Suboccipito brematic...

23. True for HIV transmission -- Transmission is direct relation ship with
maternal viral Load ...

24. Virus mimicking Erythroblastosis foetalis--- CMV...

25. Triad of Congenital toxoplasmosis ---- Hydrocephalus, cerebral
calcification, chorioretinitis ))

26. Characteristic cardiac lesion in congenital Rubella syndrome -- Pulmonary
stenosis ..

27. True about Group B streptococcus infection - Intrapartum antimicrobial
prophylaxis 4 hrs before deliveryReference:: ( Williams obstetrics 25 th edi.
Page-1221)).....

28. True about congenital Rubella syndrome-- associated with Cataract
,,VSD,,Intracerebral hemorrhage ))

29. Pruritus vulvae with atrophic vaginitis -- Local Estrogen cream

30. Image of Uterus cut section --- Adenomyosis

31. Image of Placenta praevia -- Type --2....

32. Image of Menstrual cycle --- Harmone is progesterone ..

33. Image of chubby baby at 34 wks--- Diabetes ….





Pharm

34. Which is an oral factor xa inhibitor? rivaroxaban

35. High plasma protein binding of a drug result in - decreased gfr

36. Drug used for hypertensive and pulmonary edema due to scorpion sting

- Prazosin

37. Mannitol is used for treatment of - Acute congestive glaucoma

38. Injection of all of the following drugs is painful except? Ketamine

39. Which intravenous anaesthetic agent doesn't cause cardiac depression -

Etomidate

40. Most specific antiemetic for chemotherapy induced vomiting is -

Granisetron

41. Drug of choice for mastitis is - Cloxacillin

42. FQ with highest oral bioavailability is Levofloxacin

43. Which of the following statements about fixed dose combination of drugs

is true? Adverse effect of one drug may be neutralized by the other

44. Which of the following is a K channel opener - Nicorandil

45. A patient of RA is taking methotrexate, steroids and NSAIDs since 4

months but activity of disease progression is same. Next step is Stop

oral methotrexate and start parenteral methotrexate

46. Tolvaptan is used for - SIADH

47. Mechanism of action of oseltamivir is - Neuraminidase inhibition

48. Which drug used for differentiating myasthenia gravis from cholinergic

crisis? Edrophonium

49. Mechanism of action of curare type drugs is - Competitive inhibitor of

ACh receptors

50. Buspirone acts on 5HT1A

51. Carbapenem with maximum risk of seizures is - Imipenem

52. True statement about pegylated filgrastim is - Reduces neutropenia

53. True statement about teduglutide is - It is GLP2 agonist

54. Imipenem is combined with cilastatin to - Cilastatin prevents degradation

of imipenem in kidney

55. Mechanism of action of triazoles is - Inhibit ergosterol synthesis

56. Advantage of cisatracurium over atracurium is? - Releases less histamine

57. Drug used for smoking cessation is - Vareniciline

58. Which of the following inhalational anaesthetic agent causes maximum

respiratory irritation? Desflurane

59. Which of the following statements about clinical trials is true-

Randomized controlled trial in patients is done in phase 3

60. DoC for cyclospora (image) is - Cotrimoxazole

61. Which of the following statements is not true? - Tamoxifen is drug of

choice for post menopausal breast cancer and aromatase inhibitors are

DOC for premenopausal breast cancer

62. Variation in sensitivity of response to a different doses of the drug in

different individuals can be obtained from? Quantal DRC

63. DOC for prophylaxis of diphtheria - Erythromycin

64. Drug causing ocular hypotension with apnea in an infant is Brimonidine

65. Which drug inhibit granulocyte migration? Colchicine
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