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30th July 2014, 08:09 AM
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Join Date: Apr 2013
Re: AIPMT Solved Question Paper

As you are looking for the solved question paper of AIPMT exam , here i am providing list of few questions for your idea.

Q. 1. Biological organisation starts with:
a. Atomic level
b. Submicroscopic molecular level
c. Cellular level
d. Organismic level
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 2. About 98 percent of the mass of every living organism is composed of just six
elements including carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen and:
a. calcium and phosphorous
b. phosphorus and sulphur
c. sulphur and magnesium
d. magnesium and sodium
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 3. Which one of the following is an example of negative feed back loop in humans?
a. Secretion of sweat glands and constriction of skin blood vessels when it is too hot.
b. Constriction of skin blood vessels and contraction of skeletal muscles when it is
too cold.
c. Secretion of tears after falling of sand particles in to the eye
d. Salivation of mouth at the sight of delicious food.
Sol. When the set point of hypothalamus is disturbed by high temperature, it stimulates
vasodilation and sweating while in low temperature there is vasoconstriction and
shivering. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 4. What is common to whale, seal and shark?
a. Homoiothermy
b. Seasonal migration]
c. Thick subcutaneous fat
d. Convergent evolution
Sol. Shark is poikilothermous. All three species show adaptations for aquatic life while
these are not closely related. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 5. Which one of the following is not a constituent of cell membrane?
a. Phospholipids
b. Cholesterol
c. Glycolipids
d. Proline
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 6. Select the wrong statement from the following:
a. The chloroplasts are generally much larger than mitochondria.
b. Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain and inner and an outer membrane
c. Both chloroplasts and mitochondria have an internal compartment, the thylakoid
space bounded by the thylakoid membrane
d. Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain DNA.
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 7. The overall goal of glycolysis, Krebs cycle and the electron transport system is the
formation of:
a. Nucleic acids
b. ATP is small stepwise units
c. ATP in one large oxidation reaction
d. Sugars
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 8. If the mean and the median pertaining to a certain character of a population are of
the same value, the following is most likely to occur:
a. a skewed curve
b. a normal distribution
c. a bi-modal distribution
d. a T -shaped curve
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 9. Which one of the following is a slime mould?
a. Anabaena
b. Rhizopus
c. Physarum
d. Thiobacillus
Sol. Physarum is an acellular slime mould. Correct choice: (3)
Q.10. For a critical study of secondary growth in plants, which one of the following pairs
is suitable?
a. Wheat and maiden hair fern
b. Sugarcane and sunflower
c. Teak and pine
d. Deodar and fern
Sol. Secondary growth occurs in gymnosperms and dicots. Correct choice: (3)
Q.11. Which one of the following statements about Mycoplasma is wrong?
a. They cause disease in plants
b. They are also called PPLO
c. They are pleomorphic
d. They are sensitive to penicillin
Sol. Mycoplasma is not sensitive to penicillin due to absence of cell wall. Correct choice:
(4)
Q.12. In the prothallus of vascular cryptogam, the antherozoids and eggs mature at
different times. As a result:
a. self fertilization is prevented
b. there is no change in success rate of fertilization
c. there is high degree of sterility
d. one can conclude that the plant is apomictic
Sol. In vascular cryptogam i.e. in pteridophytes gametophyte is monoecious but
protandrous to avoid self fertilization. Correct choice: (1)
Q.13. Two plants can be conclusively said to belong to the same species if they:
a. have same number of chromosomes
b. can reproduce freely with each other and form seeds
c. have more than 90 per cent similar genes
d. look similar and possess identical secondary metabolities.
Sol. The members of a species are inter-fertile and produce fertile offsprings. Correct
choice: (2)
Q.14. If you are asked to classify the various algae into distinct groups, which of the
following characters you should choose?
a. Chemical composition of the cell wall
b. Types of pigments present in the cell
c. Nature of stored food materials in the cell
d. Structural organization of thallus.
Sol. The various algae are classified mainly on the types of pigments present in their
cells. Correct choice: (2)
Q.15. Flagellated male gametes are present in all the three of which one of the following
sets?
a. Riccia, Dryopteris and Cycas
b. Anthoceros, Funaria and Spirogyra
c. Zygnema, Saprolegnia and Hydrilla
d. Fucus, Marsilea and Calotropis
Sol. The male gametes of bryophytes are biflagellete, and those of pteriodophytes are
multiflagellate, except Selaginella having biflagellate gametes. The male gametes of
gymnosperms are non motile except those of Cycas having multiciliate gametes. Correct
choice: (1)
Q.16. In gymnosperms, the pollen chamber represents:
a. the microsporangium in which pollen grains develop
b. a cell in the pollen grain in which the sperms formed
c. a cavity in the ovule in which pollen grains are stored after pollination
d. an opening in the mega gametophyte through which the pollen tube approaches
the egg.
Sol. In gymnosperms, below micropylar beak some of the cells of nucellus of ovule
disintigerate to form pollen chamber. Correct choice: (3)
Q.17. Spore dissemination in some liverworts is aided by:
a. peristome teeth
b. elaters
c. indusium
d. calyptra
Sol. In some liverworts like Marchantia spore dispersal is due to hydrochasy and is aided
by elaters. Correct choice: (2)
Q.18. Which pair of the following belongs to Basidiomycetes?
a. Morchella and Mushrooms
b. Birds’ nest fungi and Pufballs
c. Pufballs and Claviceps
d. Peziza and Stink horns
Sol. Bird’s nest fungi – Cyathus, Pufballs – Lycoperdon, Both belong to the class
Basidiomycetes. Correct choice: (3)
Q.19. ICBN stands for:
a. Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature
b. Indian Congress of Biological Names
c. International Code of Botanical Nomenclature
d. International Congress of Biological Names
Sol. ICBN is one of the codes of nomenclature. It stands for International Code of
Botanical Nomenclature. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 20. Ergot of rye is caused by a species of:
a. Claviceps
b. Phytophthora
c. Uncinula
d. Ustilago
Sol. Ergot of rye is caused by Claviceps purpurea. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 21. When two species of different genealogy come to resemble each other as a result
of adaptation, the phenomenon is termed:
a. Convergent evolution
b. Divergent evolution
c. Microevolution
d. Co-evolution
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 22. Adaptive radiation refers to:
a. Power of adaptation in an individual to a variety of environments
b. Adaptations due to Geographical isolation
c. Evolution of different species from a common ancestor
d. Migration of members of a species to different geographical areas
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 23. The living organisms can be unexceptionally distinguished from the non-living
things on the basis of their ability for:
a. growth the movement
b. responsiveness to touch
c. interaction with the environment and progressive evolution
d. reproduction
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 24. The Finches of Galapogas islands provide an evidence in favour of:
a. Biogeographical Evolution
b. Special Creation
c. Evolution due to Mutation
d. Retrogressive Evolution
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 25. One of the important consequences of geographical isolation is:
a. Random creation of new species
b. No change in the isolation faunax
c. Preventing Speciation
d. Speciation through reproductive isolation
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 26. Industrial melanism as observed in peppered moth proves that:
a. Melanism is a pollution-generated feature
b. The true black melanic forms arise by a recurring random mutation
c. The melanic form of the moth has no selective advantage over lighter form in
industrial area
d. The lighter-form moth has no selective advantage either in polluted industrial area
or non-polluted area.
Sol. It is an example of directional selection. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 27. The concept of chemical evolution is based on:
a. Possible origin of life by combination of chemicals
b. Crystallization of chemicals under suitable environmental conditions
c. Interaction of water, air and clay under
d. Effect of solar radiation of chemicals
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 28. Among the human ancestors the brain size was more than 1000 CC in:
a. Homo habilis
b. Homo neanderthalensis
c. Homo erectus
d. Ramapithecus
Sol. Homo habilis had a cranial capacity in the range of 680-720 c.c. & that of
Homo erectus erectus 775-990 c.c,
Homo erectus pekinensis 915-1200 c.c.
Homo neanderthalensis 1300-1600 c.c. Correct choice:
Q. 29. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
a. Crocodile
b. Sea Urchin
c. Obelia
d. Lemur
- 4-Chambered heart
- Parapodia
– Metagenesis
– Thecodont
(1) Only A and B
(2) A, C and D
(3) B, C and D
(4) Only A and D
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 30. Select the correct statement from the following:
a. Mutations are random and directional
b. Darwinian variations are small and directionless
c. Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt and gets selected by nature
d. All mammals except whales and camels have seven cervical vertebrate.
Sol. It explains natural selection. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 31. Which one of the following is a matching pair of a body feature and the animal
possessing it?
a. Ventral heart
b. Post-anal tail
c. Ventral Central nervous
system
d. Pharyngeal gill slits absent in
embryo
- Scorpion
- Octopus
– Leech
– Chamaeleon
Sol. Scorpion has dorsal heart. Post-anal tail is found only in chordates. Pharyngeal gill
slits are present in the embryo of chameleon. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 32. What is common between parrot, platypus and kangaroo?
a. Ovoparity
b. Homoiothermy
c. Toothless jaws
d. Functional post -anal tail
Sol. Only birds & mammals are homoiothermous. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 33. What is true about Nereis, Scorpion, Cockroach and Silver fish?
a. They all belong to the same phylum
b. They all have jointed paired appendages
c. They all possess dorsal heart
d. None of them is aquatic
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 34. Which one of the following statement is correct?
a. Ontogeny repeats phylogeny
b. Stem cells are specialized cells
c. There is no evidence of the existence of gills during embryogenesis of mammals
d. All plant and animal cells are totipotent.
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 35. “Foolish Seedling” disease of rice led to the discovery of:
a. IAA
b. GA
c. ABA
d. 2, 4 – D
Sol. Foolish seeding disease (Bakane disease) of rice is due to a fungus Giberella
fujikuroi. Yabuta and Sumuki obtained achemical from the fungus and called gibbrellic
acid. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 36. Passage cells are thin- walled cells found in:
a. central region of style through which the pollen tube grows towards the ovary.
b. endodermis of roots facilitating rapid transport of water from cortex to pericycle.
c. phloem elements that serve as entry points for substances for transport to other
plant parts.
d. testa of seed to enable emergence of growing embryonic axis during seed
germination.
Sol. Passage cells also called transfusion tissue are found in the endodermis meant for
rapid transport of water from cortex to pericycle. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 37. The first acceptor of electrons from an excited chlorophyll molecule of
photosystem II is:
a. Quinone
b. Cytochrome
c. Iron-sulphur protein
d. Ferredoxin.
Sol. The first acceptor of electros from an excited chlorophyll is quinone. Correct choice:
(1)
Q. 38. All enzymes of TCA cycle are located in the mitochondrial matrix except one
which is located in inner mitochondrial membranes in eukaryotes and in cytosol in
prokaryotes. This enzyme is:
a. succinate dehydrogenase
b. lactate dehydrogenase
c. isocitrate dehydrogenase
d. malate dehydrogenase
Sol. Succinate dehydrogenase is a common enzyme for TCA and ETC. It is located on
inner mitochondrial membrane. Rest of the TCA enzymes are present in mitochondrial
matrix. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 39. The wavelength of light absorbed by Pr form of phytochrome is:
a. 620 nm
b. 640 nm
c. 680 nm
d. 720 nm
Sol. The Pr form of phytochrome receives red light (600-680 nm) and changes into Pfr.
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 40. Opening of floral buds into flowers, is type of:
a. Autonomic movement of growth
b. Autonomic movement of locomotion
c. Autonomic movement of variation
d. Paratonic movement of growth.
Sol. Opening of floral bud into flowers, is due to epinasty, a type of autonomic movement
of growth. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 41. Which one of the following pairs, is not correctly matched?
a. IAA - Cell wall elongation
b. Abscissic Acid - Stomatal closure
c. Gibberellic Acid - Leaf fall
d. Cytokinin - Cell division
Sol. Leaf fall is due to interaction of auxin and ethylene. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 42. One gene - one enzyme relationship was established for the first time in:
a. Diploccus pneumoniae
b. Neurospora crassa
c. Salmonella typhimurium
d. Escherichia Coli
Sol. One gene-one enzyme hypothesis was given by Beadle and Tatum in red mould
(Neurospora crassa). Correct choice: (2)
Q. 43. Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by the division of:
a. Microspore mother cell
b. Microspore
c. Generative cell
d. Vegetative cell
Sol. During the development of male gametophyte first of all two cells – generative cell
and tube nucleus are formed from a pollen. This twocelled stage is called pollen grain.
Finally the generative cell divides to form 2-male gametes. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 44. Two cells A and B are contiguous. Cell A has osmotic pressure 10 atm, turgor
pressure - 7atm and diffusion pressure deficit 3 atm. Cell B has osmotic pressure 8 atm,
turgor pressure 3 atm and diffusion pressure deficit 5 atm. The result will be:
a. Movement of water of Cell A to B
b. Movement of water from Cell B to A
c. No movement of water
d. Equilibrium between the two
Sol. The direction of movement of water is from low to high DPD. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 45. In the leaves of C4 plants, malic acid formation during CO2 fixation occurs in the
cells of:
a. Epidermis
b. Mesophyll
c. Bundle Sheath
d. Phloem
Sol. In C4 plants, C4 cycle occurs in mesophyll cells and C3 cycle in bundle sheath cells.
Correct choice: (2)
Q. 46. Which of the following is a flowering plant with nodules containing filamentous
nitrogen-fixing microorganism?
a. Cicer arietinum
b. Casuarina equisetifolia
c. Crotalaria juncea
d. Cycas revolute
Sol. The filamentous nitrogen – fixing microorganism like Frankia occurs in root-nodules
of non-leguminous plants like Casuarina and Alnus. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 47. Which one of the following is surrounded by a callose wall?
a. Pollen grain
b. Microspore mother cell
c. Male gamete
d. Egg
Sol. The microspore mother cells develops an internal layer of callose which breaks the
plasmodesmatal connections among themselves. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 48. Which one of the following elements is not an essential micronutrient for plant
growth?
a. Ca
b. Mn
c. Zn
d. Cu
Sol. Calcium is an essential macronutrient for plant growth. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 49. If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies in person, to which of the following
would you look for confirmatory evidence?
a. Haemocytes
b. Serum albumins
c. Serum globulins
d. Fibrinogen in the plasma
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 50. Which one of the following is a fat -soluble vitamin and its related deficiency
disease?
a. Calciferol – Pellagra
b. Ascorbic acid – Scurvy
c. Retinol – Xerophthalmia
d. Cobalamine – Beri-beri
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 51. Which one of the following mammalian cells is not capable of metabolising
glucose to carbon-dioxide aerobically?
a. Red blood cells
b. White blood cells
c. Unstriated muscle cells
d. Liver cells
Sol. RBCs do not have mitochondria & thus can respire only anaerobically. Correct
choice: (1)
Q. 52. Compared to a bull a bullock is docile because of:
a. lower levels of adrenalin / noradrenalin in its blood
b. higher levels of thyroxin
c. higher levels of cortisone
d. lower levels of blood testosterone
Sol. The bullock is castrated and therefore secretion of testosterone is not adequate.
Correct choice: (4)
Q. 53. In the human female, menstruation can be deferred by the administration of:
a. FSH only
b. LH only
c. Combination of FSH and LH
d. Combination of estrogen and progesterone
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 54. In human body, which one of the following is anatomically correct?
a. Cranial nerves
b. Floating ribs
c. Collar bones
d. Salivary glands
- 10 pairs
- 2 pairs
– 3 pairs
–1 pair
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 55. In which one of the following preparations are you likely to come across cell
junctions most frequently?
a. Hyaline cartilage
b. Ciliated epithelium
c. Thrombocytes
d. Tendon
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 56. A drop of each of the following, is placed separately on four slides. Which of them
will not coagulate?
a. Whole blood from pulmonary vein
b. Blood plasma
c. Blood serum
d. Sample from the thoracic duct of lymphatic system
Sol. Blood serum does not contain fibrinogen and few other clotting factors, thus it will
not coagulate. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 57. Feeling the tremors of an earthquake a scared resident of seventh floor of a
multistoryed building starts climbing down the stairs rapidly. Which hormone initiated
this action?
a. Gastrin
b. Thyroxin
c. Adrenaline
d. Glucagon
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 58. A person who is on a long hunger strike and is surviving only on water, will have:
a. less urea in his urine
b. more sodium in his urine
c. less amino acids in his urine
d. more glucose in his blood.
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 59. Which one of the following pairs of structures distinguishes a nerve cell from
other types of cell?
a. Nucleus and mitochondria
b. Perikaryon and dendrites
c. Vacuoles and fibers
d. Flagellum and medullary sheath
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q.60. Which part of ovary in mam mals acts as an endocrine gland after evolution?
a. Vitelline membrane
b. Graafian follicle
c. Stroma
d. Germinal epithelium
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 61. During the transmission of nerve impulse through a nerve fibre, the potential on
the inner side of the plasma membrane has which type of electric charge?
a. First positive, then negative and again back to positive
b. First negative, then positive and again back to negative
c. First positive, then negative and continue to be negative
d. First negative, then positive and continue to be positive.
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 62. A person is having problems with calcium and phosphorous metabolism in his
body. Which one of the following glands may not be functioning properly?
a. Thyroid
b. Parathyroid
c. Parotid
d. Pancreas
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 63. Identify the odd combination of the habitat and the particular animal concerned:
a. Rann of Kutch
b. Dachigam National Park
c. Sunderbans
d. Periyar
- Wild Ass
- Snow Leopard
–Bengal Tiger
–Elephant
Sol. Dachigam National Park is for the conservation of Hangul.
Correct choice: (2)
Q. 64. In which one of the following the BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) of sewage
(S), distillery effluent (DE), paper mill effluent (PE) and sugar mill effluent (SE) have
been arranged in ascending order?
a. S < DE < PE < SE
b. SE < S < PE < DE
c. SE < PE < S < DE
d. PE < S < SE < DE
Sol. BOD of distillery effluent is 40,000 mg / l and that of paper mill effluent and sewage
is 190 mg/l and 30 mg/l, respectively. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 65. Which one of the following ecosystem types has the highest annual net primary
productivity?
a. Temperate deciduous forest
b. Tropical rain forest
c. Tropical deciduous forest
d. Temperate evergreen forest
Sol. Tropical rain forest has highest annual net primary productivity (9000 K cal / m 2 /
yr). Correct choice: (2)
Q. 66. Which one of the following is being utilized as a source of biodiesel in the Indian
countryside?
a. Pongamia
b. Euphorbia
c. Beetroot
d. Sugarcane
Sol. Pongamia, Jatropa, Euphorbia are petrocrops. However, in the Indian countryside,
Pongamia (Kanjar) is being utilized as a source of biodiesel. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 67. In a coal fires power plant electrostatic precipitators are installed to control
emission of:
a. CO
b. SO2
c. NOX
d. SPM
Sol. Electrostatic precipitators control emission of suspended particle matter (SPM).
Correct choice: (4)
Q. 68. Which one of the following is not a bioindicator of water pollution?
a. Sewage fungus
b. Sludge-worms
c. Blood-worms
d. Stone flies
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 69. A high density of elephant population in an area can result in:
a. Predation on one another
b. Mutualism
c. Intra specific competition
d. Inter specific competition
Sol. Intra-specific competition occurs between the members of the same species. Correct
choice: (3)
Q. 70. Geometric representation of age structure is a characteristic of:
a. Ecosystem
b. Biotic community
c. Population
d. Landscape
Sol. Age structure is one of the characteristics of population. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 71. Which one of the following pairs of organisms are exotic species introduced in
India?
a. Nile perch, Ficus religiosa
b. Ficus religiosa, Lantana camara
c. Lantana camara, Water hyacinth
d. Water hyacinth, Prosopis cineraria
Sol. Lantana camara and Eicchornia czassipes (water hyacinth) are exotic species.
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 72. One of endangered species of Indian medicinal plants is that of:
a. Nepenthes
b. Podophyllum
c. Ocimum
d. Garlic
Sol. Podophyllum hexandrum - : (Papri), gives a drug from its rhizome; besides being
stimulant and purgative and has destructive action on cancerous tissues. Correct choice:
(2)
Q. 73. A genetically engineered micro-organism used successfully in bioremediation of
oil spills is a species of:
a. Bacillus
b. Pseudomonas
c. Trichoderma
d. Xanthomonas
Sol. Pseudomonas putida (superbug) developed by genetic engineering by Anand Mohan
Chakravorty is used to control oil spills. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 74. A sequential expression of a set of human genes occurs when a steroid molecule
binds to the:
a. Ribosome
b. Transfer RNA
c. Messenger RNA
d. DNA sequence
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 75. The Okazaki fragments in DNA chain growth:
a. polymerize in the direction and explain DNA replication
b. result in transcription
c. polymerize in the direction and forms replication fork
d. prove semi-conservative nature of DNA replication
Sol. Replication occurs always in direction. Okazaki fragments, synthesized on
DNA template, join to form lagging strand which grows in direction. Correct
choice: (1)
Q. 76. In the hexaploid wheat, the haploid (n) and basic (x) numbers of chromosomes
are:
a. n = 21 and x = 7
b. n = 7 and x = 21
c. n = 21 and x = 21
d. n = 21 and x = 14
Sol. The basic number (x) of wheat is 7. Thus the 6x = 2n = 42 and n = 21. Correct
choice: (1)
Q. 77. Molecular basis of organ differentiation depends on the modulation in
transcription by:
a. Anticodon
b. RNA polymerase
c. Ribosome
d. Transcription factor
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 78. Telomere repetitive DNA sequence control the function of eukaryote
chromosomes because they:
a. prevent chromosome loss
b. act as replicons
c. are RNA transcription initiator
d. help chromosome pairing
Sol. Telomerase seal the ends of the chromosomes. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 79. Inheritance of skin colour in humans is an example of:
a. codominance
b. chromosomal aberration
c. point mutation
d. polygenic inheritance
Sol. Inheritance of skin colour in human is controlled by three genes, A, B and C. Correct
choice: (4)
Q. 80. A common test to find the genotype of a hybrid is by:
a. crossing of one F1progeny with male parent
b. crossing of one F2 progeny with male parent
c. crossing of one F2 progeny with female parent
d. studying the sexual behaviour of F1 progenies.
Sol. To find the genotype of hybrid, it is test crossed. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 81. During transcription, RNA polymerase holoenzyme binds to a gene promoter and
assumes a saddle - like structure. What is it’s DNA-binding sequence?
a. TATA
b. TTAA
c. AATT
d. CACC
Sol. The DNA binding sequence for RNA polymerase is called TATA box. Correct
choice: (1)
Q. 82. Two genes R and Y are located very close on the chromosomal linkage map of
maize plant. When RRYY and rryy genotypes are hybridized, the F2 segregation will
show:
a. Higher number of the parental types.
b. Higher number of the recombinant types.
c. Segregation in the expected 9: 3: 3: 1 ratio.
d. Segregation in 3:1 ratio.
Sol. When the linked genes are situated quite close, the chances of crossing over are
highly reduced. Due to this, large number of parental gametes are formed and only few
recombinant gametes are formed. This results in higher number of parental types in F2
generation as compared to recombinants.
Correct choice: (1)
Q. 83. In maize, hybrid vigour is exploited by:
a. Inducing mutations.
b. Bombarding the seeds with DNA.
c. Crossing of two inbred parental lines.
d. Harvesting seeds from the most productive plants.
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 84. Differentiation of organs and tissues in a developing organism, is associated with:
a. Deletion of genes
b. Developmental mutations
c. Differential expression of genes
d. Lethal mutations
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 85. In pea plants, yellow seeds are dominant to green. If a heterozygous yellow seeded
plant is crossed with a green seeded plant, what ratio of yellow and green seeded plants
would you expect in F1 generation?
a. 3 : 1
b. 50 : 50
c. 9 : 1
d. 1 : 3
Sol. This is a monohybrid test cross. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 86. The length of DNA molecule greatly exceeds the dimensions of the nucleus in
eukaryotic cells. How is this DNA accommodated?
a. Through elimination of repetitive DNA.
b. Deletion of non-essential genes.
c. Super-coiling in nucleosomes.
d. DNAse digestion.
Sol. The nucleosome model explains the packaging of histone proteins and DNA in the
chromatin material which forms the chromosome. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 87. In cloning of cattle a fertilized egg is taken out of the mother’s womb and:
a. from this upto eight identical twins can be produced
b. the egg is divided into 4 pairs of cells which are implanted into the womb of
others cows
c. in the eight cell stage, cells are separated and cultured until small embryos are
formed which are implanted into the womb other cows.
d. in the eight cell stage the individual cells are separated under electrical field for
further development in culture media.
Sol. As per the experiment performed by the scientist from Japan. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 88. Which one of the following statements is correct?
a. At present it is not possible to grow maize without chemical fertilizers.
b. Extensive use of chemical fertilizers may lead to eutrophication of nearby water
bodies.
c. Both Azotobacter and Rhizobium fix atmospheric nitrogen in root nodules of
plants.
d. Cyanobacteria such as Anabaena and Nostoc are important mobilizers of
phosphates and potassium for plant nutrition in soil.
Sol. The Agricultural run off contains high concentration of chemical fertilizers. Which is
discharge in near by lakes causes nutrient enrichment of lakes called eutrophication.
Correct choice: (2)
Q. 89. The population of an insect species shows an explosive increase in numbers during
rainy season followed by its disappearance at the end of the season. What does this show?
a. The population of its predators increases enormously.
b. S-shaped or sigmoid growth of this insect.
c. The food plants mature and die at the end of the rainy season.
d. Its population growth curve is of J-type.
Sol. A population which grows exponentially and crashes suddenly exhibits J-type
growth curve. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 90. The two polynucleotide chains in DNA are:
a. semiconservative
b. parallel
c. discontinuous
d. antiparallel
Sol. The two chains in a dsDNA run in opposite direction one while other
in opposite direction.
Correct choice: (4)
Q. 91. A plant requires magnesium for:
a. Cell wall development
b. Holdin g cells together
c. Protein synthesis
d. Chlorophyll synthesis
Q. 92. Probiotics are:
a. Live microbial food supplement
b. Safe antibiotics
c. Cancer inducing microbes
d. New kind of food allergens
Sol. Live microbial food supplements are called probiotics (e.g., curd). Correct choice:
(1)
Q. 93. Bowman’s glands are located in the:
a. olfactory epithelium of our nose
b. proximal end of uriniferous tubules
c. anterior pituitary
d. female reproductive system of cockroach
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 94. Increased asthamatic attacks in certain seasons are related to:
a. Low temperature
b. Hot and humid environment
c. Eating fruits preserved in tin containers
d. Inhalation of seasonal pollen
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 95. A human male produces sperms with genotypes AB, Ab, aB and ab pertaining to
two diallelic characters in equal proportions. What is the corresponding genotype of this
person?
a. AABB
b. AaBb
c. AaBB
d. AABb
Sol. The formula for gamete formation is 2n where n stands for number of heterozygous
pairs. AaBb has 2 heterozygous pairs so it will form 4 types of gametes. Correct choice:
(2)
Q. 96. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched?
a. Coliforms
b. Methanogens
c. Yeast
d. Streptomycetes
- Vinegar
-Gobar gas
–Ethanol
–Antibiotic
Sol. Coliforms are bacteria found in colon e.g. E. coli. For the preparation of vinegar
Acetobacter aceti is employed. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 97. Which one of the following pairs is mismatched?
a. Bombyx mori
b. Pila globosa
c. Apis indica
d. Kenia lacca
-silk
-pearl
–honey
–lac
Sol. Pinctada vulgaris is a bivalve from which pearl is obtained. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 98. Which one of the following is viral disease of poultry?
a. Pasteurellosis
b. Salmonellosis
c. Coryza
d. New Castle disease
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 99. Ultrasound of how much frequency is beamed into human body for sonography?
a. 45 - 70 MHz
b. 30 - 45 MHz
c. 15 - 30 MHz
d. 1 - 15 MHz
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 100. Lysozyme that is present in perspiration, saliva and tears, destroys:
a. most virus-infected cells
b. certain fungi
c. certain types of bacteria
d. all viruses
Sol. Correct choice: (3)

CHEMISTRY
Q. 1. With which of the following configuration an atom has the lowest ionization
enthalpy?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. represents the excited state of a Neon atom. The energy needed to
knock off an electron from the excited state of neon must be least. Correct choice is: (4)
Q. 2. An element, X has the following isotopic composition; 200X:90% ; 199X:8.0% ;
202X:2.0%
The weighted average atomic mass of the naturally occurring element X is closest to :
a. 199 amu
b. 200 amu
c. 201 amu
d. 202 amu
Sol. The weighted average atomic mass of element (X) = 0.9 (200) + 0.08 (199) + 0.02
(202) = 180 + 15.92 + 4.04 = Correct choice is: (2)
Q. 3. Concentrated aqueous sulphuric acid is 98% H 2SO 4 by mass and has a density of
1.80 g. mL-1 . Volume of acid required to make one litre of 0.1 M H2SO4 is,
a. 5.55 mL
b. 11.10 mL
c. 16.65 mL
d. 22.20 mL
Sol. Density = 1.80 g/ml
Correct choice: (1)
Q.4. Consider the following sets of quantum numbers:
n I M s
(a) 3 0 0 + ½
(b) 2 2 1 + ½
(c) 4 3 -2 - ½
Which of the following sets of quantum number is not possible
a. a and c
b. b, c and d
c. a, b, c and d
d. b, d and e
Sol. Choice (b), (d) and (e) are incorrect. Remember that value of ‘l’ ranges from (0) to (n
– 1) and values of ‘m’ range from (–l) to (+l). Correct choice: (4)
Q. 5. The number of moles of KMnO4 that will be needed to react with one mole of
sulphite ion in acidic solution is:
a. 1
b.
c.
d.
Sol.
Correct choice : (4)
Q. 6. In a first-order reaction , if k is rate constant and initial concentration of the
reactant A is 0.5 M then the half-life is :
a.
b.
(d) 1 0 -1 - ½
(e) 3 2 3 +1/2
c.
d.
Sol.
Correct choice: (1)
Q. 7. The reaction of hydrogen and iodine monochloride is given as:
This reaction is of first order with respect to , following mechanisms
were proposed :
Mechanism A :
Mechanism B :
Which of the above mechanism (s) can be consistent with the given information about the
reaction
a. A only
b. B only
c. 1 and 2 both
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Sol. The rate law is invariably determined from the slowest step of the mechanism.
Therefore mechanism (B) is consistent with the data given for order of reaction. Correct
choice: (2)
Q. 8. If 60% of a first order reaction was completed in 60 minutes, 50% of the same
reaction would be completed in approximately :
a. 40 minutes
b. 50 minutes
c. 45 minutes
d. 60 minutes
Sol.
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 9. The equilibrium constant of the reaction :
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol.
Correct choice: (1)
Q. 10. 0.5 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid (HX) is 20% ionized. If Kf for water is
1.86 K kg mol sup-1 , the lowering in freezing point of the solution is
a. – 0.56 K
b. – 1.12 K
c. 0.56 K
d. 1.12 K
Correct choice: (4)
Q. 11.The efficiency of a fuel cell is given by
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Efficiency of a fuel cell Correct choice: (4)
Q. 12. Consider the following reactions:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Enthalpy of formation of H2O(l) is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Heat of formation of H2O(l) = -X2 kJ / mol . Correct choice: (2)
Q. 13. Given that bond energies of
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol.
Correct choice: (4)
Q. 14. The Langmuir adsorption isotherm is deduced using the assumption
a. The adsorbed molecules interact with each other
b. The adsorption takes place in multilayers
c. The adsorption sites are equivalent in their ability to adsorb the particles
d. The heat of adsorption varies with coverage
Sol. angmuir adsorption has the following postulates
a. The isotherm is devised for adsorption equilibrium i.e., when rate of adsorption =
rate of desorption
b. Adsorption at all sites is equivalent
c. Adsorption at a site is unaffected by adsorption at neighboring sites.
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 15. The following equilibrium constants are given
The equilibrium constant for the oxidation of NH3 by oxygen to give NO is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol.
Correct choice: (2)
Q. 16. Caulate the pOH of a solution at 250C that contains
a. 1.000
b. 7.000
c. 4.000
d. 9.000
Sol. Correct choice : (3)
Q. 17. Aweak acid, mol of this acid is dissolved in
one litre of water, the percentage of acid dissociated at equilibrium is closest to
a. 0.100%
b. 99.0%
c. 1.00%
d. 99.9%
Sol. We know that, Correct choice: (3)
Q. 18. The fraction of total volume occupied by the atoms present in a simple cube is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Packing fraction for a simple cube Correct choice: (2)
Q. 19. Identify the correct order of the size of the following:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Anions have the largest sizes followed by neutral atoms and then cations for a
respective period. So, the correct order should be
Correct choice: (3)
Q.20. In which of the following pairs, the two species are iso-structural?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Both -
Q. 21. The correct order of
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. The correct order of
Correct choice: (1)
Q. 22. Which one of the following ionic species has the greatest proton affinity to form
stable compound?
a. I- b. HS- c.
d. E- Sol. Strongest base would have the highest proton affinity i.e, Correct choice: (3)
Q. 23. In which of the following the hydration energy is higher than the lattice energy?
a. SrSO4
b. BaSO4
c. MgSO4
d. RaSO4
Sol. MgSO4 is the most soluble out of the given alkaline earth metal sulphates. Correct
choice: (3)
Q. 24. Which of the following statements, about the advantage of roasting sulphide ore
before reduction is not true?
a. Roasting of the sulphide to the oxide is thermodynamically feasible.
b. Carbon and hydrogen are suitable reducing agents for metal sulphides.
c. The of the sulphide is greater than those for CS2 andH2S
d. The is negative for roasting of sulphide ore to oxide
Sol. Carbon and hydrogen are not suitable for reduction of sulphides directly. Correct
choice: (2)
Q. 25. The correct order of increasing thermal stability of
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. The correct order is
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 26. Sulphides ores of metals are usually concentrated by Froth Flotation process.
Which one of the following sulphides oresoffers an exception and is concentrated by
chemical leaching?
a. Sphalerite
b. Argentite
c. Galena
d. Copper pyrite
Sol. Argentite ore is leached with NaCN during extraction of silver in the Mc Arthur
Forrest Cyanide process. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 27. Which one of the following anions is present in the chain structure of silicates?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Chain silicates have the general formula Correct choice: (4)
Q. 28. Which one of the following orders correctly represents the increasing acid
strengths of the given acids?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. The correct order is
Correct choice: (2)
Q. 29. Which of the following oxidation states are the most characteristic for lead and tin
respectively?
a. + 2, + 2
b. + 4, + 2
c. + 2, + 4
d. + 4, + 4
Sol. Among common characteristic states for Pb and Sn, we find +2 and +4 respectively.
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 30. Identify the incorrect statement among the following:
a. Shielding power of 4f electrons is quite weak
b. There is a decrease in the radii of the atoms or ions as one proceeds from La to Lu
c. Lanthanoid contraction is the accumulation of successive shrinkages
d. As a result of lanthanoid contraction, the properties of 4d series of the transition
elements have no similarities with the 5d series of elements
Sol. The atomic radii of 4d and 5d elements down the group become quite similar due to
lanthanidecontraction. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 31. Which one of the following ions is the most stable in aqueous solution?
a.
b.
c.
d.
(Atomic number. Ti = 22, V = 23, Cr = 24, Mn = 25)
Sol . is the most stable ion in aqueous medium. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 32. The d electron configurations of Cr . Which one of the
following aqua complexes will exhibit the minimum paramagnetic behaviour?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. will have two unpaired electrons and
will show least paramagnetic character. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 33. Which of the following will give a pair of enantiomorphs?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol . The complex ion can show optical isomerism in its cis-isomer, and
will form a pair of enantiomorphs. Its trans-form will be optically inactive (meso).
Correct choice: (4)
Q. 34. If NaCl is doped with
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Number of moles of cationic vacancies
Correct choice: (4)
Q. 35. Which of the following presents the correct order of the acidity in the given
compounds?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 36. The product formed in Aldol condensation is
a. an alpha, beta unsaturated ester
b. a beta-hydroxy acid
c. a beta-hydroxy aldehyde or a beta-hydroxy ketone
d. an alpha-hydroxy aldehyde or ketone
Sol. Aldol condensation leads to formation of
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 37. Reduction of aldehydes and ketones into hydrocarbons using zinc amalgam and
conc.HCl is called
a. Wolf-Kishner Reduction
b. Clemmensen Reduction
c. Cope Reduction
d. Dow Reduction
Sol. This is Clemmensen’s reduction. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 38. Consider the following compounds
a.
b.
c.
d.
The correct decreasing order of their reactivity towards hydrolysis is
a. (b) > (d) > (a) > (c)
b. (b) > (d) > (c) > (a)
c. (a) > (b) > (c) > (d)
d. (d) > (b) > (a) > (c)
Sol. The attack of the nucleophile onto the carbonyl carbon is the rate-determining step.
So, order must be (b) > (d) > (a) > (c) Correct choice: (1)
Q. 39. Which one of the following on treatment with 50% aqueous sodium
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Benzaldehyde has no hydrogen atom, so it can undergo Cannizaro reaction.
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 40. Which one of the following on reduction with lithium aluminium hydride yields a
secondary amine?
a. Methyl Cyanide
b. Nitroethane
c. Methylisocyanide
d. Acetamide
Sol. Methyl isocyanide on reduction with LiAlH 4 will give dimethylamine. Correct
choice: (3)
  #3  
30th July 2014, 08:09 AM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Apr 2013
Re: AIPMT Solved Question Paper

Q. 41. The order of decreasing reactivity towards an electrophilic reagent, for the
following:
a. Benzene
b. Toluene
c. Chlorobenzene
d. Phenol would be
a. d > b > a > c
b. a > b > c > d
c. b > d > a > c
d. d > c > b > a
Sol. The correct order is d > b > a > c. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 42. Predict the product C obtained in the following reaction of
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol.
Correct choice: (1)
Q. 43. Which of the compounds with molecular formulaC5H10 yields acetone on
ozonolysis?
a. 2 – Methyl – 1 – butene
b. 2 – Methyl – 2 – butane
c. 3 – Methyl – 1 – butane
d. Cyclopentane
Sol.
Correct choice: (2)
Q. 44. If there is no rotation of plane polarized light by a compound in a specific solvent,
thought to be chiral, it may mean that
a. the compound may be a racemic mixture
b. the compound is certainly a chiral
c. the compound is certainly meso
d. there is no compound in the solvent
Sol. The given compound was thought to be chiral because of a chiral carbon/s. If there is
no optical activity, it means the compound must certainly be meso. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 45. For the following
a. l–
b. Cl –
c. Br- the increasing order of nucleophilicity would be:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. The order of nucleophilicities of halides ions in water (default solvent) will be
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 46. has a chiral centre. Which one of the following
represents its R configuration?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol.
Q. 47. In the reaction
Which of the following compounds will be formed?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol.
Correct choice: (1)
Q. 48. Which one of the following vitamins is water-soluble?
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B
c. Vitamin E
d. Vitam in K
Sol. Vitamin (B) and vitamin (C) are water soluble, while Vitamin (A), (D), (E) and (K)
are fat soluble. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 49. RNA and DNA are chiral molecules, their chirality is due to
a. D – sugar component
b. L – sugar component
c. Chiral bases
d. Chiral phosphate ester units
Sol. Deoxyribose and ribose sugars are D -chiral sugars in DNA and RNA. Correct
choice: (1)
Q. 50. Which one of the following polymers is prepared by condensation polymerization?
a. Styrene ]
b. Nylon – 66
c. Teflon
d. Rubber
Sol. Nylon-66 is a condensation polymer of hexamethylene diamine and adipic acid.
\Correct choice: (2)
PHYSICS
Q. 1. Dimensions of resistance in an electrical circuit, in terms of dimension of mass M,
of length L, of time T and of current I, would be
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 2. A particle moving along x-axis has acceleration f, at time t, given
are constant. The particle at t = 0 has zero velocity. In
the time interval between t = 0 and the instant when f = 0 , the particle’s velocity (vx ) is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol.
If they have asked instantaneous velocity when Correct choice: (1)
Q. 3. A car moves from X to Y with a uniform speed vu and returns to Y with a uniform
speed vd .The average speed for this round trip is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. In question it must be car moves from X to Y and returns to X.
Correct choice: (2)
Q. 4. A particle starting from the origin (0, 0) moves in a straight line in the (x, y) plane.
Its co-ordinates at a later time are . The path of the particle makes with the x-axis
an angle of
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 5. A block B is pushed momentarily along a horizontal surface with an initial velocity
V. If is the coefficient of sliding friction between B and the surface, block B will come
to rest after a time
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 6. A vertical spring with force constant K is fixed on a table. A ball of mass m at a
height h above the free upper end of the spring falls vertically on the spring so that the
spring is compressed by a distance d . The net work done in the process is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol.
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 7. A wheel has angular acceleration of 3.0 rad/sec2 and an initial angular speed of
2.00 rad / sec. In a time of 2 sec it has rotated through an angle (in radian) of
a. 4
b. 6
c. 10
d. 12
Sol. Correct choice:
(3)
Q. 8.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol.
Correct
choice: (2)
Q. 9. The position x of a particle with respect to time t along x -axis is given by
where x is in metres and t in second. What will be the position of this particle
when it achieves maximum speed along the +x direction?
a. 24 m
b. 32 m
c. 54 m
d. 81 m
Sol.
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 10. A mass of 2.0 kg is put on a flat pan attached to a vertical spring fixed on the
ground as shown in the figure. The mass of the spring and the pan is negligible. When
pressed slightly and released the mass executes a simple harmonic motion. The spring
constant is 200 N/m. What should be the minimum amplitude of the motion so that the
mass gets detached from the pan?
a. 4.0 cm
b. 8.0 cm
c. 10.0 cm
d. any value less than 12.0 cm
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 11. A particle of mass m moves in the XY plane with a velocity V along the straight
line AB. If the angular momentum of the particle with respect to origin O is LA when it is
at A and LB when it is at B, then
a.
b.
c.
d. The relationship between LA and LB depends upon the slope of the line AB
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 12. A uniform rod AB of length l and mass m is free to rotate about point A. The rod
is released from rest in the horizontal position. Given that the moment of inertia of the
rod about , the initial angular acceleration of the rod will be
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 13. Two satellites of earth, are moving in the same orbit. The mass of is
four times the mass of . Which one of the following statements is true?
a. The kinetic energies of the two satellites are equal.
b. The time period of is four times that of .
c. The potential energies of earth and satellite in the two cases are equal.
d. are moving with the same speed.
Sol . As orbital velocity it is independent of mass of satellite Correct choice:
(4)
Q. 14. Assuming the sun to have a spherical outer surface of radius r , radiating like a
black body at temperature , the power received by a unit surface, (normal to the
incident rays) at a distance R from the center of the sun is (where is the Stefan’s
constant).
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Power radiated
Correct choice: (1)
Q. 15. An engine has an efficiency of 1/6. When the temperature of sink is reduced by
620C, its efficiency is doubled. Temperature of the source is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol.
Correct choice: (1)
Q. 16. A black body is at . It emits energy at a rate which is proportional to
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 17. The frequency of a light wave in a material is and wavelength is
5000Å. The refractive index of material will be
a. 1.33
b. 1.40
c. 1.50
d. 3.00
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 18. The phase difference between the instantaneous velocity and acceleration of a
particle executing simple harmonic motion is
a. (1) zero
b.
c.
d.
Sol.
Correct choice: (2)
Q. 19. The particle executing simple harmonic motion has a kinetic energy .
The maximum values of the potential energy and the total energy are respectively
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 20. A particle executes simple harmonic oscillation with an amplitude a . The period
of oscillation is T. The minimum time taken by the particle to travel half of the amplitude
from the equilibrium position is
a. T / 2
b. T / 4
c. T / 8
d. T /12
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 21. The electric and magnetic field of an electromagnetic wave are
a. in phase and perpendicular to each other
b. in phase and parallel to each other
c. in opposite phase and perpendicular to each other
d. in opposite phase and parallel to each other
Sol.
Correct choice: (1)
Q. 22. A small coin is resting on the bottom of a beaker filled with a liquid. A ray of light
from the coin travels upto the surface of the liquid and moves along its surface (see
figure). How fast is the light traveling in the liquid?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol . Correct
choice: (2)
Q. 23. Charges +q and -q are placed at points A and B respectively which are a distance
2L apart, C is the midpoint between A and B. The work done in moving a charge +Q
along the semicircle CRD is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. At C potential
Correct choice: (1)
Q. 24. A hollow cylinder has a charge q coulomb within it. If f is the electric flux in units
of volt × meter associated with the curved surface B, the flux linked with the plane
surface A in units of volt × meter will be
a.
b.
c.
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 25. Three point charges +q, - 2q and +q are placed at points (x = 0, y = a, z = 0), (x =
0, y = 0, z = 0) and (x = a, y = 0, z = 0) respectively. The magnitude and direction of the
electric dipole moment vector of this charge assembly are
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol . Correct choice: (3)
Q. 26. Two condensers, one of capacity C and the other of capacity C/2, are connected to
a V-volt battery, as shown. The work done in charging fully both the condensers is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 27. The total power dissipated in Watts in the circuit shown here is
a. 4
b. 16
c. 40
d. 54
Sol . Correct choice: (4)
Q. 28. A steady current of 1.5 amp flows through a copper voltameter for 10 minute. If
the electrochemical equivalent of copper is 30´10 -5 gm coulomb-1 , the mass of copper
deposited on the electrode will be
a. 0.27 gm
b. 0.40 gm
c. 0.50 gm
d. 0.67 gm
Sol . m = Zit; m = 0.27gm Correct choice: (1)
Q. 29. If the cold junction of a thermo-couple is kept at 00C and the hot junction is kept at
T0C, then the relation between neutral temperature (Tn ) and temperature of inversion (Ti
) is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol . Correct choice: (2)
Q. 30. Three resistances P, Q, R each of and an unknown resistance S form the four
arms of a Wheatstone bridge circuit. When a resistance of is connected in parallel to
S the bridge gets balanced. What is the value of S?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol .
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 31. The resistance of an ammeter is and its scale is graduated for a current upto
100 Amps. After an additional shunt has been connected to this ammeter it becomes
possible to measure currents upto 750 Amperes by this meter. The value of shuntresistance
is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol.
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 32. Under the influence of a uniform magnetic field a charge-particle is moving in a
circle of radius R with constant speed V. The time period of the motion
a. depends on R and not on V
b. depends on V and not on R
c. depends on both R and V
d. is independent of both R and V
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 33. A charged particle (charge q ) is moving in a circle of radius R with uniform speed
v . The associated magnetic moment is given by
a. qvR
b. qv R / 2
c. qv R2
d. qvR2 / 2
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 33. A beam of electrons passes undeflected through mutually perpendicular electric
and magnetic fields. If the electric field is switched off, and the same magnetic field is
maintained, the electrons move
a. along a straight line
b. in an elliptical orbit
c. in a circular orbit
d. along a parabolic path
Sol. As velocity, magnetic field and electric field are mutually perpendicular. Correct
choice: (3)
Q. 34. A beam of electrons passes undeflected through mutually perpendicular electric
and magnetic fields. If the electric field is switched off, and the same magnetic field is
maintained, the electrons move
a. along a straight line
b. in an elliptical orbit
c. in a circular orbit
d. along a parabolic path
Sol. As velocity, magnetic field and electric field are mutually perpendicular. Correct
choice: (3)
Q. 35. The primary and secondary coils of a transformer have 50 and 1500 turns
respectively. If the magnetic flu f linked with the primary coil is given by
is a constant, the output
voltage across the secondary coil is
a. 30 volts
b. 90 volts
c. 120 volts
d. 220 volts
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 36. What is the value of inductance L for which the current is a maximum in a series
LCR circuit with
a. 10 mH
b. 100 mH
c. 1 mH
d. cannot be calculated unless R is known
Sol.
Correct choice: (2)
Q. 37. A transformer is used to light a 100W and 110V lamp from a 220V mains. If the
main current is 0.5A, the efficiency of the transformer is approximately
a. 10%
b. 30%
c. 50%
d. 90%
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 38. Nickel shows ferromagnetic property at room temperature. If the temperature is
increased beyond Curie temperature then it will show
a. diamagnetism
b. paramagnetism
c. anti ferromagnetism
d. no magnetic property
Sol . Fact based Correct choice: (2)
Q. 39. A 5 watt source emits monochromatic light of wavelength . When placed
0.5 m away, it liberates photoelectrons from a photosensitive metallic surface. When the
source is moved to a distance of 1.0 m, the number of photoelectrons liberated will
a. be reduced by a factor of 2
b. be reduced by a factor of 4
c. be reduced by a factor of 8
d. be reduced by a factor of 16
Q. 40. Monochromatic light of frequency is produced by a laser. The
power emitted is . The number of photons emitted, on the average, by the
source per second is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol . Correct choice: (2)
Q. 41. In a mass spectrometer used for measuring the masses of ions, the ions are initially
accelerated by an electric potential V and then made to describe semicircular paths of
radius R using a magnetic field B. If V and B are kept constant, the ratio
will be proportional to
a. R
b. 1/R
c. 1/R2
d. R2
Sol . Radius of path
Correct
choice: (3)
Q. 42. If the nucleus 13 has a nuclear radius of about 3.6 fm, then Te
would have its radius approximately as
a. 4.8 fm
b. 6.0 fm
c. 9.6 fm
d. 12.0 fm
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 43. In radioactive decay process, the negatively charged emitted particles are
a. the electrons orbiting around the nucleus
b. the electrons present inside the nucleus
c. the electrons produced as a result of the decay of neutrons inside the nucleus
d. the electrons produced as a result of collisions between atoms
Sol . When neutron decays as given Correct choice: (3)
Q. 44. A nucleus has nucleus A X
Z has mass represented by M (A, Z). If Mp and Mn denote the mass of proton and neutron
respectively and B.E the binding energy in Me V then
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 45. Two radioactive substances A and B have decay constants respectively.
At t = 0 they have the same number of nuclei. The ratio of number of nuclei of A to those
of B will be after a time interval
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol.
Correct choice: (1)
Q. 46. The total energy of electron in the ground state of hydrogen atom is –13.6 eV. The
kinetic energy of an electron in the firstm excited state is
a. 1.7 eV
b. 3.4 eV
c. 6.8 eV
d. 13.6 eV
Sol. Total energy in 1st excited state
Correct choice: (2)
Q. 47. In the energy band diagram of a material shown below, the open circles and filled
circles denote holes and electrons respectively. The material is
a. an n-type semiconductor
b. a p-type semiconductor
c. an insulator
d. a metal
Sol. In diagram acceptor level is near valance band which will happen in p-type
semiconductor. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 48. A common emitter amplifier has a voltage gain of 50, an input impedance of
and an output impedance of . The power gain of the amplifier is
a. 100
b. 500
c. 1000
d. 1250
Sol.
Correct choice: (4)
Q. 49. In the following circuit, the output Y for all possible inputs A and B is expressed
by the truth table
(i) A B Y
0 0 0
0 1 1
1 1 1
(ii) A B Y
0 1 0
1 0 0
1 1 1
(iii) A B Y
0 0 1
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 0
(iv) A B Y
0 0 1
0 1 0
1 0 0
1 1 0
Q. 50. For a cubic crystal structure which one of the following relations indicating the
cell characteristics is correct?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. the cubic system is the most symmetric out of all seven crystal systems. All edges for
the unit cell are same i.e., a = b = c and all angles are right angles i.e.,
Correct choice: (1)
  #4  
3rd August 2014, 01:25 PM
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AIPMT Solved Question Paper

I am looking for the solved question paper of AIPMT exam .Can you please provide it?
  #5  
4th August 2014, 08:19 AM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Apr 2013
Re: AIPMT Solved Question Paper

As you are looking for the solved question paper of AIPMT exam , here i am providing list of few questions for your idea.

Q. 1. Biological organisation starts with:
a. Atomic level
b. Submicroscopic molecular level
c. Cellular level
d. Organismic level
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 2. About 98 percent of the mass of every living organism is composed of just six
elements including carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen and:
a. calcium and phosphorous
b. phosphorus and sulphur
c. sulphur and magnesium
d. magnesium and sodium
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 3. Which one of the following is an example of negative feed back loop in humans?
a. Secretion of sweat glands and constriction of skin blood vessels when it is too hot.
b. Constriction of skin blood vessels and contraction of skeletal muscles when it is
too cold.
c. Secretion of tears after falling of sand particles in to the eye
d. Salivation of mouth at the sight of delicious food.
Sol. When the set point of hypothalamus is disturbed by high temperature, it stimulates
vasodilation and sweating while in low temperature there is vasoconstriction and
shivering. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 4. What is common to whale, seal and shark?
a. Homoiothermy
b. Seasonal migration]
c. Thick subcutaneous fat
d. Convergent evolution
Sol. Shark is poikilothermous. All three species show adaptations for aquatic life while
these are not closely related. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 5. Which one of the following is not a constituent of cell membrane?
a. Phospholipids
b. Cholesterol
c. Glycolipids
d. Proline
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 6. Select the wrong statement from the following:
a. The chloroplasts are generally much larger than mitochondria.
b. Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain and inner and an outer membrane
c. Both chloroplasts and mitochondria have an internal compartment, the thylakoid
space bounded by the thylakoid membrane
d. Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain DNA.
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 7. The overall goal of glycolysis, Krebs cycle and the electron transport system is the
formation of:
a. Nucleic acids
b. ATP is small stepwise units
c. ATP in one large oxidation reaction
d. Sugars
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 8. If the mean and the median pertaining to a certain character of a population are of
the same value, the following is most likely to occur:
a. a skewed curve
b. a normal distribution
c. a bi-modal distribution
d. a T -shaped curve
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 9. Which one of the following is a slime mould?
a. Anabaena
b. Rhizopus
c. Physarum
d. Thiobacillus
Sol. Physarum is an acellular slime mould. Correct choice: (3)
Q.10. For a critical study of secondary growth in plants, which one of the following pairs
is suitable?
a. Wheat and maiden hair fern
b. Sugarcane and sunflower
c. Teak and pine
d. Deodar and fern
Sol. Secondary growth occurs in gymnosperms and dicots. Correct choice: (3)
Q.11. Which one of the following statements about Mycoplasma is wrong?
a. They cause disease in plants
b. They are also called PPLO
c. They are pleomorphic
d. They are sensitive to penicillin
Sol. Mycoplasma is not sensitive to penicillin due to absence of cell wall. Correct choice:
(4)
Q.12. In the prothallus of vascular cryptogam, the antherozoids and eggs mature at
different times. As a result:
a. self fertilization is prevented
b. there is no change in success rate of fertilization
c. there is high degree of sterility
d. one can conclude that the plant is apomictic
Sol. In vascular cryptogam i.e. in pteridophytes gametophyte is monoecious but
protandrous to avoid self fertilization. Correct choice: (1)
Q.13. Two plants can be conclusively said to belong to the same species if they:
a. have same number of chromosomes
b. can reproduce freely with each other and form seeds
c. have more than 90 per cent similar genes
d. look similar and possess identical secondary metabolities.
Sol. The members of a species are inter-fertile and produce fertile offsprings. Correct
choice: (2)
Q.14. If you are asked to classify the various algae into distinct groups, which of the
following characters you should choose?
a. Chemical composition of the cell wall
b. Types of pigments present in the cell
c. Nature of stored food materials in the cell
d. Structural organization of thallus.
Sol. The various algae are classified mainly on the types of pigments present in their
cells. Correct choice: (2)
Q.15. Flagellated male gametes are present in all the three of which one of the following
sets?
a. Riccia, Dryopteris and Cycas
b. Anthoceros, Funaria and Spirogyra
c. Zygnema, Saprolegnia and Hydrilla
d. Fucus, Marsilea and Calotropis
Sol. The male gametes of bryophytes are biflagellete, and those of pteriodophytes are
multiflagellate, except Selaginella having biflagellate gametes. The male gametes of
gymnosperms are non motile except those of Cycas having multiciliate gametes. Correct
choice: (1)
Q.16. In gymnosperms, the pollen chamber represents:
a. the microsporangium in which pollen grains develop
b. a cell in the pollen grain in which the sperms formed
c. a cavity in the ovule in which pollen grains are stored after pollination
d. an opening in the mega gametophyte through which the pollen tube approaches
the egg.
Sol. In gymnosperms, below micropylar beak some of the cells of nucellus of ovule
disintigerate to form pollen chamber. Correct choice: (3)
Q.17. Spore dissemination in some liverworts is aided by:
a. peristome teeth
b. elaters
c. indusium
d. calyptra
Sol. In some liverworts like Marchantia spore dispersal is due to hydrochasy and is aided
by elaters. Correct choice: (2)
Q.18. Which pair of the following belongs to Basidiomycetes?
a. Morchella and Mushrooms
b. Birds’ nest fungi and Pufballs
c. Pufballs and Claviceps
d. Peziza and Stink horns
Sol. Bird’s nest fungi – Cyathus, Pufballs – Lycoperdon, Both belong to the class
Basidiomycetes. Correct choice: (3)
Q.19. ICBN stands for:
a. Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature
b. Indian Congress of Biological Names
c. International Code of Botanical Nomenclature
d. International Congress of Biological Names
Sol. ICBN is one of the codes of nomenclature. It stands for International Code of
Botanical Nomenclature. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 20. Ergot of rye is caused by a species of:
a. Claviceps
b. Phytophthora
c. Uncinula
d. Ustilago
Sol. Ergot of rye is caused by Claviceps purpurea. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 21. When two species of different genealogy come to resemble each other as a result
of adaptation, the phenomenon is termed:
a. Convergent evolution
b. Divergent evolution
c. Microevolution
d. Co-evolution
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 22. Adaptive radiation refers to:
a. Power of adaptation in an individual to a variety of environments
b. Adaptations due to Geographical isolation
c. Evolution of different species from a common ancestor
d. Migration of members of a species to different geographical areas
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 23. The living organisms can be unexceptionally distinguished from the non-living
things on the basis of their ability for:
a. growth the movement
b. responsiveness to touch
c. interaction with the environment and progressive evolution
d. reproduction
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 24. The Finches of Galapogas islands provide an evidence in favour of:
a. Biogeographical Evolution
b. Special Creation
c. Evolution due to Mutation
d. Retrogressive Evolution
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 25. One of the important consequences of geographical isolation is:
a. Random creation of new species
b. No change in the isolation faunax
c. Preventing Speciation
d. Speciation through reproductive isolation
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 26. Industrial melanism as observed in peppered moth proves that:
a. Melanism is a pollution-generated feature
b. The true black melanic forms arise by a recurring random mutation
c. The melanic form of the moth has no selective advantage over lighter form in
industrial area
d. The lighter-form moth has no selective advantage either in polluted industrial area
or non-polluted area.
Sol. It is an example of directional selection. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 27. The concept of chemical evolution is based on:
a. Possible origin of life by combination of chemicals
b. Crystallization of chemicals under suitable environmental conditions
c. Interaction of water, air and clay under
d. Effect of solar radiation of chemicals
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 28. Among the human ancestors the brain size was more than 1000 CC in:
a. Homo habilis
b. Homo neanderthalensis
c. Homo erectus
d. Ramapithecus
Sol. Homo habilis had a cranial capacity in the range of 680-720 c.c. & that of
Homo erectus erectus 775-990 c.c,
Homo erectus pekinensis 915-1200 c.c.
Homo neanderthalensis 1300-1600 c.c. Correct choice:
Q. 29. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
a. Crocodile
b. Sea Urchin
c. Obelia
d. Lemur
- 4-Chambered heart
- Parapodia
– Metagenesis
– Thecodont
(1) Only A and B
(2) A, C and D
(3) B, C and D
(4) Only A and D
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 30. Select the correct statement from the following:
a. Mutations are random and directional
b. Darwinian variations are small and directionless
c. Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt and gets selected by nature
d. All mammals except whales and camels have seven cervical vertebrate.
Sol. It explains natural selection. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 31. Which one of the following is a matching pair of a body feature and the animal
possessing it?
a. Ventral heart
b. Post-anal tail
c. Ventral Central nervous
system
d. Pharyngeal gill slits absent in
embryo
- Scorpion
- Octopus
– Leech
– Chamaeleon
Sol. Scorpion has dorsal heart. Post-anal tail is found only in chordates. Pharyngeal gill
slits are present in the embryo of chameleon. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 32. What is common between parrot, platypus and kangaroo?
a. Ovoparity
b. Homoiothermy
c. Toothless jaws
d. Functional post -anal tail
Sol. Only birds & mammals are homoiothermous. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 33. What is true about Nereis, Scorpion, Cockroach and Silver fish?
a. They all belong to the same phylum
b. They all have jointed paired appendages
c. They all possess dorsal heart
d. None of them is aquatic
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 34. Which one of the following statement is correct?
a. Ontogeny repeats phylogeny
b. Stem cells are specialized cells
c. There is no evidence of the existence of gills during embryogenesis of mammals
d. All plant and animal cells are totipotent.
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 35. “Foolish Seedling” disease of rice led to the discovery of:
a. IAA
b. GA
c. ABA
d. 2, 4 – D
Sol. Foolish seeding disease (Bakane disease) of rice is due to a fungus Giberella
fujikuroi. Yabuta and Sumuki obtained achemical from the fungus and called gibbrellic
acid. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 36. Passage cells are thin- walled cells found in:
a. central region of style through which the pollen tube grows towards the ovary.
b. endodermis of roots facilitating rapid transport of water from cortex to pericycle.
c. phloem elements that serve as entry points for substances for transport to other
plant parts.
d. testa of seed to enable emergence of growing embryonic axis during seed
germination.
Sol. Passage cells also called transfusion tissue are found in the endodermis meant for
rapid transport of water from cortex to pericycle. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 37. The first acceptor of electrons from an excited chlorophyll molecule of
photosystem II is:
a. Quinone
b. Cytochrome
c. Iron-sulphur protein
d. Ferredoxin.
Sol. The first acceptor of electros from an excited chlorophyll is quinone. Correct choice:
(1)
Q. 38. All enzymes of TCA cycle are located in the mitochondrial matrix except one
which is located in inner mitochondrial membranes in eukaryotes and in cytosol in
prokaryotes. This enzyme is:
a. succinate dehydrogenase
b. lactate dehydrogenase
c. isocitrate dehydrogenase
d. malate dehydrogenase
Sol. Succinate dehydrogenase is a common enzyme for TCA and ETC. It is located on
inner mitochondrial membrane. Rest of the TCA enzymes are present in mitochondrial
matrix. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 39. The wavelength of light absorbed by Pr form of phytochrome is:
a. 620 nm
b. 640 nm
c. 680 nm
d. 720 nm
Sol. The Pr form of phytochrome receives red light (600-680 nm) and changes into Pfr.
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 40. Opening of floral buds into flowers, is type of:
a. Autonomic movement of growth
b. Autonomic movement of locomotion
c. Autonomic movement of variation
d. Paratonic movement of growth.
Sol. Opening of floral bud into flowers, is due to epinasty, a type of autonomic movement
of growth. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 41. Which one of the following pairs, is not correctly matched?
a. IAA - Cell wall elongation
b. Abscissic Acid - Stomatal closure
c. Gibberellic Acid - Leaf fall
d. Cytokinin - Cell division
Sol. Leaf fall is due to interaction of auxin and ethylene. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 42. One gene - one enzyme relationship was established for the first time in:
a. Diploccus pneumoniae
b. Neurospora crassa
c. Salmonella typhimurium
d. Escherichia Coli
Sol. One gene-one enzyme hypothesis was given by Beadle and Tatum in red mould
(Neurospora crassa). Correct choice: (2)
Q. 43. Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by the division of:
a. Microspore mother cell
b. Microspore
c. Generative cell
d. Vegetative cell
Sol. During the development of male gametophyte first of all two cells – generative cell
and tube nucleus are formed from a pollen. This twocelled stage is called pollen grain.
Finally the generative cell divides to form 2-male gametes. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 44. Two cells A and B are contiguous. Cell A has osmotic pressure 10 atm, turgor
pressure - 7atm and diffusion pressure deficit 3 atm. Cell B has osmotic pressure 8 atm,
turgor pressure 3 atm and diffusion pressure deficit 5 atm. The result will be:
a. Movement of water of Cell A to B
b. Movement of water from Cell B to A
c. No movement of water
d. Equilibrium between the two
Sol. The direction of movement of water is from low to high DPD. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 45. In the leaves of C4 plants, malic acid formation during CO2 fixation occurs in the
cells of:
a. Epidermis
b. Mesophyll
c. Bundle Sheath
d. Phloem
Sol. In C4 plants, C4 cycle occurs in mesophyll cells and C3 cycle in bundle sheath cells.
Correct choice: (2)
Q. 46. Which of the following is a flowering plant with nodules containing filamentous
nitrogen-fixing microorganism?
a. Cicer arietinum
b. Casuarina equisetifolia
c. Crotalaria juncea
d. Cycas revolute
Sol. The filamentous nitrogen – fixing microorganism like Frankia occurs in root-nodules
of non-leguminous plants like Casuarina and Alnus. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 47. Which one of the following is surrounded by a callose wall?
a. Pollen grain
b. Microspore mother cell
c. Male gamete
d. Egg
Sol. The microspore mother cells develops an internal layer of callose which breaks the
plasmodesmatal connections among themselves. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 48. Which one of the following elements is not an essential micronutrient for plant
growth?
a. Ca
b. Mn
c. Zn
d. Cu
Sol. Calcium is an essential macronutrient for plant growth. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 49. If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies in person, to which of the following
would you look for confirmatory evidence?
a. Haemocytes
b. Serum albumins
c. Serum globulins
d. Fibrinogen in the plasma
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 50. Which one of the following is a fat -soluble vitamin and its related deficiency
disease?
a. Calciferol – Pellagra
b. Ascorbic acid – Scurvy
c. Retinol – Xerophthalmia
d. Cobalamine – Beri-beri
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 51. Which one of the following mammalian cells is not capable of metabolising
glucose to carbon-dioxide aerobically?
a. Red blood cells
b. White blood cells
c. Unstriated muscle cells
d. Liver cells
Sol. RBCs do not have mitochondria & thus can respire only anaerobically. Correct
choice: (1)
Q. 52. Compared to a bull a bullock is docile because of:
a. lower levels of adrenalin / noradrenalin in its blood
b. higher levels of thyroxin
c. higher levels of cortisone
d. lower levels of blood testosterone
Sol. The bullock is castrated and therefore secretion of testosterone is not adequate.
Correct choice: (4)
Q. 53. In the human female, menstruation can be deferred by the administration of:
a. FSH only
b. LH only
c. Combination of FSH and LH
d. Combination of estrogen and progesterone
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 54. In human body, which one of the following is anatomically correct?
a. Cranial nerves
b. Floating ribs
c. Collar bones
d. Salivary glands
- 10 pairs
- 2 pairs
– 3 pairs
–1 pair
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 55. In which one of the following preparations are you likely to come across cell
junctions most frequently?
a. Hyaline cartilage
b. Ciliated epithelium
c. Thrombocytes
d. Tendon
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 56. A drop of each of the following, is placed separately on four slides. Which of them
will not coagulate?
a. Whole blood from pulmonary vein
b. Blood plasma
c. Blood serum
d. Sample from the thoracic duct of lymphatic system
Sol. Blood serum does not contain fibrinogen and few other clotting factors, thus it will
not coagulate. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 57. Feeling the tremors of an earthquake a scared resident of seventh floor of a
multistoryed building starts climbing down the stairs rapidly. Which hormone initiated
this action?
a. Gastrin
b. Thyroxin
c. Adrenaline
d. Glucagon
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 58. A person who is on a long hunger strike and is surviving only on water, will have:
a. less urea in his urine
b. more sodium in his urine
c. less amino acids in his urine
d. more glucose in his blood.
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 59. Which one of the following pairs of structures distinguishes a nerve cell from
other types of cell?
a. Nucleus and mitochondria
b. Perikaryon and dendrites
c. Vacuoles and fibers
d. Flagellum and medullary sheath
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q.60. Which part of ovary in mam mals acts as an endocrine gland after evolution?
a. Vitelline membrane
b. Graafian follicle
c. Stroma
d. Germinal epithelium
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 61. During the transmission of nerve impulse through a nerve fibre, the potential on
the inner side of the plasma membrane has which type of electric charge?
a. First positive, then negative and again back to positive
b. First negative, then positive and again back to negative
c. First positive, then negative and continue to be negative
d. First negative, then positive and continue to be positive.
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 62. A person is having problems with calcium and phosphorous metabolism in his
body. Which one of the following glands may not be functioning properly?
a. Thyroid
b. Parathyroid
c. Parotid
d. Pancreas
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 63. Identify the odd combination of the habitat and the particular animal concerned:
a. Rann of Kutch
b. Dachigam National Park
c. Sunderbans
d. Periyar
- Wild Ass
- Snow Leopard
–Bengal Tiger
–Elephant
Sol. Dachigam National Park is for the conservation of Hangul.
Correct choice: (2)
Q. 64. In which one of the following the BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) of sewage
(S), distillery effluent (DE), paper mill effluent (PE) and sugar mill effluent (SE) have
been arranged in ascending order?
a. S < DE < PE < SE
b. SE < S < PE < DE
c. SE < PE < S < DE
d. PE < S < SE < DE
Sol. BOD of distillery effluent is 40,000 mg / l and that of paper mill effluent and sewage
is 190 mg/l and 30 mg/l, respectively. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 65. Which one of the following ecosystem types has the highest annual net primary
productivity?
a. Temperate deciduous forest
b. Tropical rain forest
c. Tropical deciduous forest
d. Temperate evergreen forest
Sol. Tropical rain forest has highest annual net primary productivity (9000 K cal / m 2 /
yr). Correct choice: (2)
Q. 66. Which one of the following is being utilized as a source of biodiesel in the Indian
countryside?
a. Pongamia
b. Euphorbia
c. Beetroot
d. Sugarcane
Sol. Pongamia, Jatropa, Euphorbia are petrocrops. However, in the Indian countryside,
Pongamia (Kanjar) is being utilized as a source of biodiesel. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 67. In a coal fires power plant electrostatic precipitators are installed to control
emission of:
a. CO
b. SO2
c. NOX
d. SPM
Sol. Electrostatic precipitators control emission of suspended particle matter (SPM).
Correct choice: (4)
Q. 68. Which one of the following is not a bioindicator of water pollution?
a. Sewage fungus
b. Sludge-worms
c. Blood-worms
d. Stone flies
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 69. A high density of elephant population in an area can result in:
a. Predation on one another
b. Mutualism
c. Intra specific competition
d. Inter specific competition
Sol. Intra-specific competition occurs between the members of the same species. Correct
choice: (3)
Q. 70. Geometric representation of age structure is a characteristic of:
a. Ecosystem
b. Biotic community
c. Population
d. Landscape
Sol. Age structure is one of the characteristics of population. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 71. Which one of the following pairs of organisms are exotic species introduced in
India?
a. Nile perch, Ficus religiosa
b. Ficus religiosa, Lantana camara
c. Lantana camara, Water hyacinth
d. Water hyacinth, Prosopis cineraria
Sol. Lantana camara and Eicchornia czassipes (water hyacinth) are exotic species.
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 72. One of endangered species of Indian medicinal plants is that of:
a. Nepenthes
b. Podophyllum
c. Ocimum
d. Garlic
Sol. Podophyllum hexandrum - : (Papri), gives a drug from its rhizome; besides being
stimulant and purgative and has destructive action on cancerous tissues. Correct choice:
(2)
Q. 73. A genetically engineered micro-organism used successfully in bioremediation of
oil spills is a species of:
a. Bacillus
b. Pseudomonas
c. Trichoderma
d. Xanthomonas
Sol. Pseudomonas putida (superbug) developed by genetic engineering by Anand Mohan
Chakravorty is used to control oil spills. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 74. A sequential expression of a set of human genes occurs when a steroid molecule
binds to the:
a. Ribosome
b. Transfer RNA
c. Messenger RNA
d. DNA sequence
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 75. The Okazaki fragments in DNA chain growth:
a. polymerize in the direction and explain DNA replication
b. result in transcription
c. polymerize in the direction and forms replication fork
d. prove semi-conservative nature of DNA replication
Sol. Replication occurs always in direction. Okazaki fragments, synthesized on
DNA template, join to form lagging strand which grows in direction. Correct
choice: (1)
Q. 76. In the hexaploid wheat, the haploid (n) and basic (x) numbers of chromosomes
are:
a. n = 21 and x = 7
b. n = 7 and x = 21
c. n = 21 and x = 21
d. n = 21 and x = 14
Sol. The basic number (x) of wheat is 7. Thus the 6x = 2n = 42 and n = 21. Correct
choice: (1)
Q. 77. Molecular basis of organ differentiation depends on the modulation in
transcription by:
a. Anticodon
b. RNA polymerase
c. Ribosome
d. Transcription factor
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 78. Telomere repetitive DNA sequence control the function of eukaryote
chromosomes because they:
a. prevent chromosome loss
b. act as replicons
c. are RNA transcription initiator
d. help chromosome pairing
Sol. Telomerase seal the ends of the chromosomes. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 79. Inheritance of skin colour in humans is an example of:
a. codominance
b. chromosomal aberration
c. point mutation
d. polygenic inheritance
Sol. Inheritance of skin colour in human is controlled by three genes, A, B and C. Correct
choice: (4)
Q. 80. A common test to find the genotype of a hybrid is by:
a. crossing of one F1progeny with male parent
b. crossing of one F2 progeny with male parent
c. crossing of one F2 progeny with female parent
d. studying the sexual behaviour of F1 progenies.
Sol. To find the genotype of hybrid, it is test crossed. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 81. During transcription, RNA polymerase holoenzyme binds to a gene promoter and
assumes a saddle - like structure. What is it’s DNA-binding sequence?
a. TATA
b. TTAA
c. AATT
d. CACC
Sol. The DNA binding sequence for RNA polymerase is called TATA box. Correct
choice: (1)
Q. 82. Two genes R and Y are located very close on the chromosomal linkage map of
maize plant. When RRYY and rryy genotypes are hybridized, the F2 segregation will
show:
a. Higher number of the parental types.
b. Higher number of the recombinant types.
c. Segregation in the expected 9: 3: 3: 1 ratio.
d. Segregation in 3:1 ratio.
Sol. When the linked genes are situated quite close, the chances of crossing over are
highly reduced. Due to this, large number of parental gametes are formed and only few
recombinant gametes are formed. This results in higher number of parental types in F2
generation as compared to recombinants.
Correct choice: (1)
Q. 83. In maize, hybrid vigour is exploited by:
a. Inducing mutations.
b. Bombarding the seeds with DNA.
c. Crossing of two inbred parental lines.
d. Harvesting seeds from the most productive plants.
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 84. Differentiation of organs and tissues in a developing organism, is associated with:
a. Deletion of genes
b. Developmental mutations
c. Differential expression of genes
d. Lethal mutations
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 85. In pea plants, yellow seeds are dominant to green. If a heterozygous yellow seeded
plant is crossed with a green seeded plant, what ratio of yellow and green seeded plants
would you expect in F1 generation?
a. 3 : 1
b. 50 : 50
c. 9 : 1
d. 1 : 3
Sol. This is a monohybrid test cross. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 86. The length of DNA molecule greatly exceeds the dimensions of the nucleus in
eukaryotic cells. How is this DNA accommodated?
a. Through elimination of repetitive DNA.
b. Deletion of non-essential genes.
c. Super-coiling in nucleosomes.
d. DNAse digestion.
Sol. The nucleosome model explains the packaging of histone proteins and DNA in the
chromatin material which forms the chromosome. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 87. In cloning of cattle a fertilized egg is taken out of the mother’s womb and:
a. from this upto eight identical twins can be produced
b. the egg is divided into 4 pairs of cells which are implanted into the womb of
others cows
c. in the eight cell stage, cells are separated and cultured until small embryos are
formed which are implanted into the womb other cows.
d. in the eight cell stage the individual cells are separated under electrical field for
further development in culture media.
Sol. As per the experiment performed by the scientist from Japan. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 88. Which one of the following statements is correct?
a. At present it is not possible to grow maize without chemical fertilizers.
b. Extensive use of chemical fertilizers may lead to eutrophication of nearby water
bodies.
c. Both Azotobacter and Rhizobium fix atmospheric nitrogen in root nodules of
plants.
d. Cyanobacteria such as Anabaena and Nostoc are important mobilizers of
phosphates and potassium for plant nutrition in soil.
Sol. The Agricultural run off contains high concentration of chemical fertilizers. Which is
discharge in near by lakes causes nutrient enrichment of lakes called eutrophication.
Correct choice: (2)
Q. 89. The population of an insect species shows an explosive increase in numbers during
rainy season followed by its disappearance at the end of the season. What does this show?
a. The population of its predators increases enormously.
b. S-shaped or sigmoid growth of this insect.
c. The food plants mature and die at the end of the rainy season.
d. Its population growth curve is of J-type.
Sol. A population which grows exponentially and crashes suddenly exhibits J-type
growth curve. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 90. The two polynucleotide chains in DNA are:
a. semiconservative
b. parallel
c. discontinuous
d. antiparallel
Sol. The two chains in a dsDNA run in opposite direction one while other
in opposite direction.
Correct choice: (4)
Q. 91. A plant requires magnesium for:
a. Cell wall development
b. Holdin g cells together
c. Protein synthesis
d. Chlorophyll synthesis
Q. 92. Probiotics are:
a. Live microbial food supplement
b. Safe antibiotics
c. Cancer inducing microbes
d. New kind of food allergens
Sol. Live microbial food supplements are called probiotics (e.g., curd). Correct choice:
(1)
Q. 93. Bowman’s glands are located in the:
a. olfactory epithelium of our nose
b. proximal end of uriniferous tubules
c. anterior pituitary
d. female reproductive system of cockroach
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 94. Increased asthamatic attacks in certain seasons are related to:
a. Low temperature
b. Hot and humid environment
c. Eating fruits preserved in tin containers
d. Inhalation of seasonal pollen
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 95. A human male produces sperms with genotypes AB, Ab, aB and ab pertaining to
two diallelic characters in equal proportions. What is the corresponding genotype of this
person?
a. AABB
b. AaBb
c. AaBB
d. AABb
Sol. The formula for gamete formation is 2n where n stands for number of heterozygous
pairs. AaBb has 2 heterozygous pairs so it will form 4 types of gametes. Correct choice:
(2)
Q. 96. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched?
a. Coliforms
b. Methanogens
c. Yeast
d. Streptomycetes
- Vinegar
-Gobar gas
–Ethanol
–Antibiotic
Sol. Coliforms are bacteria found in colon e.g. E. coli. For the preparation of vinegar
Acetobacter aceti is employed. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 97. Which one of the following pairs is mismatched?
a. Bombyx mori
b. Pila globosa
c. Apis indica
d. Kenia lacca
-silk
-pearl
–honey
–lac
Sol. Pinctada vulgaris is a bivalve from which pearl is obtained. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 98. Which one of the following is viral disease of poultry?
a. Pasteurellosis
b. Salmonellosis
c. Coryza
d. New Castle disease
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 99. Ultrasound of how much frequency is beamed into human body for sonography?
a. 45 - 70 MHz
b. 30 - 45 MHz
c. 15 - 30 MHz
d. 1 - 15 MHz
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 100. Lysozyme that is present in perspiration, saliva and tears, destroys:
a. most virus-infected cells
b. certain fungi
c. certain types of bacteria
d. all viruses
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
CHEMISTRY
Q. 1. With which of the following configuration an atom has the lowest ionization
enthalpy?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. represents the excited state of a Neon atom. The energy needed to
knock off an electron from the excited state of neon must be least. Correct choice is: (4)
Q. 2. An element, X has the following isotopic composition; 200X:90% ; 199X:8.0% ;
202X:2.0%
The weighted average atomic mass of the naturally occurring element X is closest to :
a. 199 amu
b. 200 amu
c. 201 amu
d. 202 amu
Sol. The weighted average atomic mass of element (X) = 0.9 (200) + 0.08 (199) + 0.02
(202) = 180 + 15.92 + 4.04 = Correct choice is: (2)
Q. 3. Concentrated aqueous sulphuric acid is 98% H 2SO 4 by mass and has a density of
1.80 g. mL-1 . Volume of acid required to make one litre of 0.1 M H2SO4 is,
a. 5.55 mL
b. 11.10 mL
c. 16.65 mL
d. 22.20 mL
Sol. Density = 1.80 g/ml
Correct choice: (1)
  #6  
4th August 2014, 08:20 AM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Apr 2013
Re: AIPMT Solved Question Paper

Q.4. Consider the following sets of quantum numbers:
n I M s
(a) 3 0 0 + ½
(b) 2 2 1 + ½
(c) 4 3 -2 - ½
Which of the following sets of quantum number is not possible
a. a and c
b. b, c and d
c. a, b, c and d
d. b, d and e
Sol. Choice (b), (d) and (e) are incorrect. Remember that value of ‘l’ ranges from (0) to (n
– 1) and values of ‘m’ range from (–l) to (+l). Correct choice: (4)
Q. 5. The number of moles of KMnO4 that will be needed to react with one mole of
sulphite ion in acidic solution is:
a. 1
b.
c.
d.
Sol.
Correct choice : (4)
Q. 6. In a first-order reaction , if k is rate constant and initial concentration of the
reactant A is 0.5 M then the half-life is :
a.
b.
(d) 1 0 -1 - ½
(e) 3 2 3 +1/2
c.
d.
Sol.
Correct choice: (1)
Q. 7. The reaction of hydrogen and iodine monochloride is given as:
This reaction is of first order with respect to , following mechanisms
were proposed :
Mechanism A :
Mechanism B :
Which of the above mechanism (s) can be consistent with the given information about the
reaction
a. A only
b. B only
c. 1 and 2 both
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Sol. The rate law is invariably determined from the slowest step of the mechanism.
Therefore mechanism (B) is consistent with the data given for order of reaction. Correct
choice: (2)
Q. 8. If 60% of a first order reaction was completed in 60 minutes, 50% of the same
reaction would be completed in approximately :
a. 40 minutes
b. 50 minutes
c. 45 minutes
d. 60 minutes
Sol.
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 9. The equilibrium constant of the reaction :
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol.
Correct choice: (1)
Q. 10. 0.5 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid (HX) is 20% ionized. If Kf for water is
1.86 K kg mol sup-1 , the lowering in freezing point of the solution is
a. – 0.56 K
b. – 1.12 K
c. 0.56 K
d. 1.12 K
Correct choice: (4)
Q. 11.The efficiency of a fuel cell is given by
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Efficiency of a fuel cell Correct choice: (4)
Q. 12. Consider the following reactions:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Enthalpy of formation of H2O(l) is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Heat of formation of H2O(l) = -X2 kJ / mol . Correct choice: (2)
Q. 13. Given that bond energies of
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol.
Correct choice: (4)
Q. 14. The Langmuir adsorption isotherm is deduced using the assumption
a. The adsorbed molecules interact with each other
b. The adsorption takes place in multilayers
c. The adsorption sites are equivalent in their ability to adsorb the particles
d. The heat of adsorption varies with coverage
Sol. angmuir adsorption has the following postulates
a. The isotherm is devised for adsorption equilibrium i.e., when rate of adsorption =
rate of desorption
b. Adsorption at all sites is equivalent
c. Adsorption at a site is unaffected by adsorption at neighboring sites.
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 15. The following equilibrium constants are given
The equilibrium constant for the oxidation of NH3 by oxygen to give NO is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol.
Correct choice: (2)
Q. 16. Caulate the pOH of a solution at 250C that contains
a. 1.000
b. 7.000
c. 4.000
d. 9.000
Sol. Correct choice : (3)
Q. 17. Aweak acid, mol of this acid is dissolved in
one litre of water, the percentage of acid dissociated at equilibrium is closest to
a. 0.100%
b. 99.0%
c. 1.00%
d. 99.9%
Sol. We know that, Correct choice: (3)
Q. 18. The fraction of total volume occupied by the atoms present in a simple cube is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Packing fraction for a simple cube Correct choice: (2)
Q. 19. Identify the correct order of the size of the following:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Anions have the largest sizes followed by neutral atoms and then cations for a
respective period. So, the correct order should be
Correct choice: (3)
Q.20. In which of the following pairs, the two species are iso-structural?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Both -
Q. 21. The correct order of
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. The correct order of
Correct choice: (1)
Q. 22. Which one of the following ionic species has the greatest proton affinity to form
stable compound?
a. I- b. HS- c.
d. E- Sol. Strongest base would have the highest proton affinity i.e, Correct choice: (3)
Q. 23. In which of the following the hydration energy is higher than the lattice energy?
a. SrSO4
b. BaSO4
c. MgSO4
d. RaSO4
Sol. MgSO4 is the most soluble out of the given alkaline earth metal sulphates. Correct
choice: (3)
Q. 24. Which of the following statements, about the advantage of roasting sulphide ore
before reduction is not true?
a. Roasting of the sulphide to the oxide is thermodynamically feasible.
b. Carbon and hydrogen are suitable reducing agents for metal sulphides.
c. The of the sulphide is greater than those for CS2 andH2S
d. The is negative for roasting of sulphide ore to oxide
Sol. Carbon and hydrogen are not suitable for reduction of sulphides directly. Correct
choice: (2)
Q. 25. The correct order of increasing thermal stability of
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. The correct order is
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 26. Sulphides ores of metals are usually concentrated by Froth Flotation process.
Which one of the following sulphides oresoffers an exception and is concentrated by
chemical leaching?
a. Sphalerite
b. Argentite
c. Galena
d. Copper pyrite
Sol. Argentite ore is leached with NaCN during extraction of silver in the Mc Arthur
Forrest Cyanide process. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 27. Which one of the following anions is present in the chain structure of silicates?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Chain silicates have the general formula Correct choice: (4)
Q. 28. Which one of the following orders correctly represents the increasing acid
strengths of the given acids?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. The correct order is
Correct choice: (2)
Q. 29. Which of the following oxidation states are the most characteristic for lead and tin
respectively?
a. + 2, + 2
b. + 4, + 2
c. + 2, + 4
d. + 4, + 4
Sol. Among common characteristic states for Pb and Sn, we find +2 and +4 respectively.
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 30. Identify the incorrect statement among the following:
a. Shielding power of 4f electrons is quite weak
b. There is a decrease in the radii of the atoms or ions as one proceeds from La to Lu
c. Lanthanoid contraction is the accumulation of successive shrinkages
d. As a result of lanthanoid contraction, the properties of 4d series of the transition
elements have no similarities with the 5d series of elements
Sol. The atomic radii of 4d and 5d elements down the group become quite similar due to
lanthanidecontraction. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 31. Which one of the following ions is the most stable in aqueous solution?
a.
b.
c.
d.
(Atomic number. Ti = 22, V = 23, Cr = 24, Mn = 25)
Sol . is the most stable ion in aqueous medium. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 32. The d electron configurations of Cr . Which one of the
following aqua complexes will exhibit the minimum paramagnetic behaviour?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. will have two unpaired electrons and
will show least paramagnetic character. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 33. Which of the following will give a pair of enantiomorphs?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol . The complex ion can show optical isomerism in its cis-isomer, and
will form a pair of enantiomorphs. Its trans-form will be optically inactive (meso).
Correct choice: (4)
Q. 34. If NaCl is doped with
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Number of moles of cationic vacancies
Correct choice: (4)
Q. 35. Which of the following presents the correct order of the acidity in the given
compounds?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 36. The product formed in Aldol condensation is
a. an alpha, beta unsaturated ester
b. a beta-hydroxy acid
c. a beta-hydroxy aldehyde or a beta-hydroxy ketone
d. an alpha-hydroxy aldehyde or ketone
Sol. Aldol condensation leads to formation of
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 37. Reduction of aldehydes and ketones into hydrocarbons using zinc amalgam and
conc.HCl is called
a. Wolf-Kishner Reduction
b. Clemmensen Reduction
c. Cope Reduction
d. Dow Reduction
Sol. This is Clemmensen’s reduction. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 38. Consider the following compounds
a.
b.
c.
d.
The correct decreasing order of their reactivity towards hydrolysis is
a. (b) > (d) > (a) > (c)
b. (b) > (d) > (c) > (a)
c. (a) > (b) > (c) > (d)
d. (d) > (b) > (a) > (c)
Sol. The attack of the nucleophile onto the carbonyl carbon is the rate-determining step.
So, order must be (b) > (d) > (a) > (c) Correct choice: (1)
Q. 39. Which one of the following on treatment with 50% aqueous sodium
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Benzaldehyde has no hydrogen atom, so it can undergo Cannizaro reaction.
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 40. Which one of the following on reduction with lithium aluminium hydride yields a
secondary amine?
a. Methyl Cyanide
b. Nitroethane
c. Methylisocyanide
d. Acetamide
Sol. Methyl isocyanide on reduction with LiAlH 4 will give dimethylamine. Correct
choice: (3)
Q. 41. The order of decreasing reactivity towards an electrophilic reagent, for the
following:
a. Benzene
b. Toluene
c. Chlorobenzene
d. Phenol would be
a. d > b > a > c
b. a > b > c > d
c. b > d > a > c
d. d > c > b > a
Sol. The correct order is d > b > a > c. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 42. Predict the product C obtained in the following reaction of
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol.
Correct choice: (1)
Q. 43. Which of the compounds with molecular formulaC5H10 yields acetone on
ozonolysis?
a. 2 – Methyl – 1 – butene
b. 2 – Methyl – 2 – butane
c. 3 – Methyl – 1 – butane
d. Cyclopentane
Sol.
Correct choice: (2)
Q. 44. If there is no rotation of plane polarized light by a compound in a specific solvent,
thought to be chiral, it may mean that
a. the compound may be a racemic mixture
b. the compound is certainly a chiral
c. the compound is certainly meso
d. there is no compound in the solvent
Sol. The given compound was thought to be chiral because of a chiral carbon/s. If there is
no optical activity, it means the compound must certainly be meso. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 45. For the following
a. l–
b. Cl –
c. Br- the increasing order of nucleophilicity would be:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. The order of nucleophilicities of halides ions in water (default solvent) will be
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 46. has a chiral centre. Which one of the following
represents its R configuration?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol.
Q. 47. In the reaction
Which of the following compounds will be formed?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol.
Correct choice: (1)
Q. 48. Which one of the following vitamins is water-soluble?
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B
c. Vitamin E
d. Vitam in K
Sol. Vitamin (B) and vitamin (C) are water soluble, while Vitamin (A), (D), (E) and (K)
are fat soluble. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 49. RNA and DNA are chiral molecules, their chirality is due to
a. D – sugar component
b. L – sugar component
c. Chiral bases
d. Chiral phosphate ester units
Sol. Deoxyribose and ribose sugars are D -chiral sugars in DNA and RNA. Correct
choice: (1)
Q. 50. Which one of the following polymers is prepared by condensation polymerization?
a. Styrene ]
b. Nylon – 66
c. Teflon
d. Rubber
Sol. Nylon-66 is a condensation polymer of hexamethylene diamine and adipic acid.
\Correct choice: (2)
PHYSICS
Q. 1. Dimensions of resistance in an electrical circuit, in terms of dimension of mass M,
of length L, of time T and of current I, would be
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 2. A particle moving along x-axis has acceleration f, at time t, given
are constant. The particle at t = 0 has zero velocity. In
the time interval between t = 0 and the instant when f = 0 , the particle’s velocity (vx ) is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol.
If they have asked instantaneous velocity when Correct choice: (1)
Q. 3. A car moves from X to Y with a uniform speed vu and returns to Y with a uniform
speed vd .The average speed for this round trip is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. In question it must be car moves from X to Y and returns to X.
Correct choice: (2)
Q. 4. A particle starting from the origin (0, 0) moves in a straight line in the (x, y) plane.
Its co-ordinates at a later time are . The path of the particle makes with the x-axis
an angle of
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 5. A block B is pushed momentarily along a horizontal surface with an initial velocity
V. If is the coefficient of sliding friction between B and the surface, block B will come
to rest after a time
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 6. A vertical spring with force constant K is fixed on a table. A ball of mass m at a
height h above the free upper end of the spring falls vertically on the spring so that the
spring is compressed by a distance d . The net work done in the process is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol.
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 7. A wheel has angular acceleration of 3.0 rad/sec2 and an initial angular speed of
2.00 rad / sec. In a time of 2 sec it has rotated through an angle (in radian) of
a. 4
b. 6
c. 10
d. 12
Sol. Correct choice:
(3)
Q. 8.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol.
Correct
choice: (2)
Q. 9. The position x of a particle with respect to time t along x -axis is given by
where x is in metres and t in second. What will be the position of this particle
when it achieves maximum speed along the +x direction?
a. 24 m
b. 32 m
c. 54 m
d. 81 m
Sol.
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 10. A mass of 2.0 kg is put on a flat pan attached to a vertical spring fixed on the
ground as shown in the figure. The mass of the spring and the pan is negligible. When
pressed slightly and released the mass executes a simple harmonic motion. The spring
constant is 200 N/m. What should be the minimum amplitude of the motion so that the
mass gets detached from the pan?
a. 4.0 cm
b. 8.0 cm
c. 10.0 cm
d. any value less than 12.0 cm
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 11. A particle of mass m moves in the XY plane with a velocity V along the straight
line AB. If the angular momentum of the particle with respect to origin O is LA when it is
at A and LB when it is at B, then
a.
b.
c.
d. The relationship between LA and LB depends upon the slope of the line AB
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 12. A uniform rod AB of length l and mass m is free to rotate about point A. The rod
is released from rest in the horizontal position. Given that the moment of inertia of the
rod about , the initial angular acceleration of the rod will be
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 13. Two satellites of earth, are moving in the same orbit. The mass of is
four times the mass of . Which one of the following statements is true?
a. The kinetic energies of the two satellites are equal.
b. The time period of is four times that of .
c. The potential energies of earth and satellite in the two cases are equal.
d. are moving with the same speed.
Sol . As orbital velocity it is independent of mass of satellite Correct choice:
(4)
Q. 14. Assuming the sun to have a spherical outer surface of radius r , radiating like a
black body at temperature , the power received by a unit surface, (normal to the
incident rays) at a distance R from the center of the sun is (where is the Stefan’s
constant).
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Power radiated
Correct choice: (1)
Q. 15. An engine has an efficiency of 1/6. When the temperature of sink is reduced by
620C, its efficiency is doubled. Temperature of the source is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol.
Correct choice: (1)
Q. 16. A black body is at . It emits energy at a rate which is proportional to
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 17. The frequency of a light wave in a material is and wavelength is
5000Å. The refractive index of material will be
a. 1.33
b. 1.40
c. 1.50
d. 3.00
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 18. The phase difference between the instantaneous velocity and acceleration of a
particle executing simple harmonic motion is
a. (1) zero
b.
c.
d.
Sol.
Correct choice: (2)
Q. 19. The particle executing simple harmonic motion has a kinetic energy .
The maximum values of the potential energy and the total energy are respectively
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 20. A particle executes simple harmonic oscillation with an amplitude a . The period
of oscillation is T. The minimum time taken by the particle to travel half of the amplitude
from the equilibrium position is
a. T / 2
b. T / 4
c. T / 8
d. T /12
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 21. The electric and magnetic field of an electromagnetic wave are
a. in phase and perpendicular to each other
b. in phase and parallel to each other
c. in opposite phase and perpendicular to each other
d. in opposite phase and parallel to each other
Sol.
Correct choice: (1)
Q. 22. A small coin is resting on the bottom of a beaker filled with a liquid. A ray of light
from the coin travels upto the surface of the liquid and moves along its surface (see
figure). How fast is the light traveling in the liquid?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol . Correct
choice: (2)
Q. 23. Charges +q and -q are placed at points A and B respectively which are a distance
2L apart, C is the midpoint between A and B. The work done in moving a charge +Q
along the semicircle CRD is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. At C potential
Correct choice: (1)
Q. 24. A hollow cylinder has a charge q coulomb within it. If f is the electric flux in units
of volt × meter associated with the curved surface B, the flux linked with the plane
surface A in units of volt × meter will be
a.
b.
c.
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 25. Three point charges +q, - 2q and +q are placed at points (x = 0, y = a, z = 0), (x =
0, y = 0, z = 0) and (x = a, y = 0, z = 0) respectively. The magnitude and direction of the
electric dipole moment vector of this charge assembly are
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol . Correct choice: (3)
Q. 26. Two condensers, one of capacity C and the other of capacity C/2, are connected to
a V-volt battery, as shown. The work done in charging fully both the condensers is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 27. The total power dissipated in Watts in the circuit shown here is
a. 4
b. 16
c. 40
d. 54
Sol . Correct choice: (4)
Q. 28. A steady current of 1.5 amp flows through a copper voltameter for 10 minute. If
the electrochemical equivalent of copper is 30´10 -5 gm coulomb-1 , the mass of copper
deposited on the electrode will be
a. 0.27 gm
b. 0.40 gm
c. 0.50 gm
d. 0.67 gm
Sol . m = Zit; m = 0.27gm Correct choice: (1)
Q. 29. If the cold junction of a thermo-couple is kept at 00C and the hot junction is kept at
T0C, then the relation between neutral temperature (Tn ) and temperature of inversion (Ti
) is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol . Correct choice: (2)
Q. 30. Three resistances P, Q, R each of and an unknown resistance S form the four
arms of a Wheatstone bridge circuit. When a resistance of is connected in parallel to
S the bridge gets balanced. What is the value of S?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol .
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 31. The resistance of an ammeter is and its scale is graduated for a current upto
100 Amps. After an additional shunt has been connected to this ammeter it becomes
possible to measure currents upto 750 Amperes by this meter. The value of shuntresistance
is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol.
Correct choice: (3)
Q. 32. Under the influence of a uniform magnetic field a charge-particle is moving in a
circle of radius R with constant speed V. The time period of the motion
a. depends on R and not on V
b. depends on V and not on R
c. depends on both R and V
d. is independent of both R and V
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 33. A charged particle (charge q ) is moving in a circle of radius R with uniform speed
v . The associated magnetic moment is given by
a. qvR
b. qv R / 2
c. qv R2
d. qvR2 / 2
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 33. A beam of electrons passes undeflected through mutually perpendicular electric
and magnetic fields. If the electric field is switched off, and the same magnetic field is
maintained, the electrons move
a. along a straight line
b. in an elliptical orbit
c. in a circular orbit
d. along a parabolic path
Sol. As velocity, magnetic field and electric field are mutually perpendicular. Correct
choice: (3)
Q. 34. A beam of electrons passes undeflected through mutually perpendicular electric
and magnetic fields. If the electric field is switched off, and the same magnetic field is
maintained, the electrons move
a. along a straight line
b. in an elliptical orbit
c. in a circular orbit
d. along a parabolic path
Sol. As velocity, magnetic field and electric field are mutually perpendicular. Correct
choice: (3)
Q. 35. The primary and secondary coils of a transformer have 50 and 1500 turns
respectively. If the magnetic flu f linked with the primary coil is given by
is a constant, the output
voltage across the secondary coil is
a. 30 volts
b. 90 volts
c. 120 volts
d. 220 volts
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 36. What is the value of inductance L for which the current is a maximum in a series
LCR circuit with
a. 10 mH
b. 100 mH
c. 1 mH
d. cannot be calculated unless R is known
Sol.
Correct choice: (2)
Q. 37. A transformer is used to light a 100W and 110V lamp from a 220V mains. If the
main current is 0.5A, the efficiency of the transformer is approximately
a. 10%
b. 30%
c. 50%
d. 90%
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 38. Nickel shows ferromagnetic property at room temperature. If the temperature is
increased beyond Curie temperature then it will show
a. diamagnetism
b. paramagnetism
c. anti ferromagnetism
d. no magnetic property
Sol . Fact based Correct choice: (2)
Q. 39. A 5 watt source emits monochromatic light of wavelength . When placed
0.5 m away, it liberates photoelectrons from a photosensitive metallic surface. When the
source is moved to a distance of 1.0 m, the number of photoelectrons liberated will
a. be reduced by a factor of 2
b. be reduced by a factor of 4
c. be reduced by a factor of 8
d. be reduced by a factor of 16
Q. 40. Monochromatic light of frequency is produced by a laser. The
power emitted is . The number of photons emitted, on the average, by the
source per second is
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol . Correct choice: (2)
Q. 41. In a mass spectrometer used for measuring the masses of ions, the ions are initially
accelerated by an electric potential V and then made to describe semicircular paths of
radius R using a magnetic field B. If V and B are kept constant, the ratio
will be proportional to
a. R
b. 1/R
c. 1/R2
d. R2
Sol . Radius of path
Correct
choice: (3)
Q. 42. If the nucleus 13 has a nuclear radius of about 3.6 fm, then Te
would have its radius approximately as
a. 4.8 fm
b. 6.0 fm
c. 9.6 fm
d. 12.0 fm
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 43. In radioactive decay process, the negatively charged emitted particles are
a. the electrons orbiting around the nucleus
b. the electrons present inside the nucleus
c. the electrons produced as a result of the decay of neutrons inside the nucleus
d. the electrons produced as a result of collisions between atoms
Sol . When neutron decays as given Correct choice: (3)
Q. 44. A nucleus has nucleus A X
Z has mass represented by M (A, Z). If Mp and Mn denote the mass of proton and neutron
respectively and B.E the binding energy in Me V then
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 45. Two radioactive substances A and B have decay constants respectively.
At t = 0 they have the same number of nuclei. The ratio of number of nuclei of A to those
of B will be after a time interval
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol.
Correct choice: (1)
Q. 46. The total energy of electron in the ground state of hydrogen atom is –13.6 eV. The
kinetic energy of an electron in the firstm excited state is
a. 1.7 eV
b. 3.4 eV
c. 6.8 eV
d. 13.6 eV
Sol. Total energy in 1st excited state
Correct choice: (2)
Q. 47. In the energy band diagram of a material shown below, the open circles and filled
circles denote holes and electrons respectively. The material is
a. an n-type semiconductor
b. a p-type semiconductor
c. an insulator
d. a metal
Sol. In diagram acceptor level is near valance band which will happen in p-type
semiconductor. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 48. A common emitter amplifier has a voltage gain of 50, an input impedance of
and an output impedance of . The power gain of the amplifier is
a. 100
b. 500
c. 1000
d. 1250
Sol.
Correct choice: (4)
Q. 49. In the following circuit, the output Y for all possible inputs A and B is expressed
by the truth table
(i) A B Y
0 0 0
0 1 1
1 1 1
(ii) A B Y
0 1 0
1 0 0
1 1 1
(iii) A B Y
0 0 1
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 0
(iv) A B Y
0 0 1
0 1 0
1 0 0
1 1 0
Q. 50. For a cubic crystal structure which one of the following relations indicating the
cell characteristics is correct?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sol. the cubic system is the most symmetric out of all seven crystal systems. All edges for
the unit cell are same i.e., a = b = c and all angles are right angles i.e.,
Correct choice: (1)
  #7  
22nd August 2014, 04:28 PM
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AIPMT Solved Question Paper

Please give me question paper for All India Pre-Medical / Pre-Dental Entrance Test soon?
  #8  
23rd August 2014, 10:16 AM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Apr 2013
Re: AIPMT Solved Question Paper

Here I am giving you question paper for All India Pre-Medical / Pre-Dental Entrance Test in a file attached with it so you can get it easily./

Q. 1. The "Eyes" of the potato tuber are
1. Axillary buds
2. Root buds
3. Flower buds
4. Shoot buds
Sol:
Axillary buds developing at nodes/notch/eyes.
Answer: (1)
Q. 2. Organisms called Methanogens are most abundant in a
1. Hot spring
2. Sulphur rock
3. Cattle yard
4. Polluted stream
Sol:
Methanogens are archaebacteria abundant in cattle yard, and paddy fields.
Answer: (3)
Q. 3. Which one of the following have the highest number of species in nature?
1. Angiosperms
2. Fungi
3. Insects
4. Birds
Sol:
The largest phylum in animal kingdom is arthropoda, and the largest class is insecta with
7,50,000 species.
Answer: (3)
Q. 4. Archegoniophore is present in
1. Funaria
2. Marchantia
3. Chara
4. Adiantum
Sol:
Stalk bearing archegonial cluster at tip in Marchantia thallus
Answer: (2)
Q. 5. Compared with the gametophytes of the bryophytes the gametophytes of vascular
plants tend to be
1. Smaller and to have smaller sex organs
2. Smaller but to have larger sex organs
3. Larger but to have smaller sex organs
4. Larger and to haver larger sex organs
Sol:
Gametophytes are reduced and few celled in all vascular plants.
Answer: (1)
Q. 6. The gametophyte is not an independent, free-living generation in
1. Pinus
2. Polytrichum
3. Adiantum
4. Marchantia
Sol:
In gymnosperms and angiosperms gametophytes are dependent on sporophyte.
Answer: (1)
Q. 7. Important site for formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids is
1. Lysosome
2. Vacuole
3. Golgi apparatus
4. Plastid
Sol:
Golgi complex performs glycosyl transferase activity for addition of glycans on lipids
and proteins.
Answer: (3)
Q. 8.Peptide synthesis inside a cell takes place in
1. Ribosomes
2. Chloroplast
3. Mitochondria
4. Chromoplast
Sol:
Ribosomes are site of peptide bond formation.
Answer: (1)
Q. 9. In eubacteria, a cellular component that resembles eukaryotic cell is
1. Cell wall
2. Plasma membrane
3. Nucleus
4. Ribosomes
Sol:
Lipoprotein cell membrane is found in both but ribosomes are of different kinds.
Answer: (2)
Q. 10. Mutations can be induced with
1. Gamma radiations
2. Infra Red radiations
3. I A A
4. Ethylene
Sol:
Mutation can be induced with high energy radiations like UV rays, gamma rays, which
cause change in the structure of DNA.
Answer: (1) Q. 11. A collection of plants and seeds having diverse alleles of all the
genes of a crop is called
1. Genome
2. Herbarium
3. Germplasm
4. Gene library
Sol:
Germplasm can be selected as seed or plantlets for their superior traits.
Answer: (3)
Q. 12. Which one of the following also acts as a catalyst in a bacterial cell?
1. 23 sr RNA
2. 5 sr RNA
3. sn RNA
4. hn RNA
Sol:
23 S rRNA is catalytic RNA.
Answer: (1)
Q. 13. Which one of the following statements is correct?
1. Flower of tulip is a modified shoot
2. In tomato, fruit is a capsule
3. Seeds of orchids have oil-rich endosperms
4. Placentation in primose is basal
Sol:
Tomato — Berry, Orchid seed — no endosperm formation, Primrose — Free central
placentation.
Answer: (1)
Q. 14. The correct floral formula of chilli is
Sol:
Chilli belongs to Solanaceae.
Answer: (3)
Q. 15. Nitrifying bacteria
1. Reduce nitrates to free nitrogen
2. Oxidize ammonia to nitrates
3. Convert free nitrogen to nitrogen compounds
4. Convert proteins into ammonia
Sol:
Step (1) — Nitrification by Nitrosomonas
Step (2) — Nitratification by Nitrocystis
Answer: (2)
Q. 16. The function of leghaemoglobin in the root nodules of legumes is
1. Expression of nif gene
2. Inhibition of nitrogenase activity
3. Oxygen removal
4. Nodule differentiation
Sol:
LHB is O2 scavanger.
Answer: (3)
Q. 17. Which one of the following elements in plants is not remobilised?
1. Sulphur
2. Phosphorus
3. Calcium
4. Potassium
Sol:
Calcium is not remobilised, as it is a structural component in cell.
Answer: (3)
Q. 18. A drupe develops in
1. Tomato
2. Mango
3. Wheat
4. Pea
Sol:
Tomato — Berry, Wheat — Caryopsis, Pea — Legume
Answer: (2)
Q. 19. Ground tissue includes
1. All tissues internal to endodermis
2. All tissues external to endodermis
3. All tissues except epidermis and vascular bundles
4. Epidermis and cortex
Sol:
Ground tissue system includes — cortex, endoderm, pericycle and pith.
Answer: (3)
Q. 20 . In land plants the guard cells differ from other epidermal cells in having
1. Chloroplasts
2. Cytoskeleton
3. Mitochondria
4. Endoplasmic reticulum
Sol:
Guard cells are specialised chlorophyllous epidermal cells.
Answer: (1)
Q. 21. The ovary is half inferior in flowers of
1. Guava
2. Peach
3. Cucumber
4. Cotton
Sol:
Ovary is half inferior in perigynous flowers.
Answer: (2)
Q. 22. The cork cambium, cork and secondary cortex are collectively called
1. Phellem
2. Phelloderm
3. Phellogen
4. Periderm
Sol:
Phellem, phellogen and phelloderm are collectively called periderm.
Answer: (4)
Q. 23. Which one of the following is wrongly matched?
1. Cassia – Imbricate aestivation
2. Root pressure – Guttation
3. Puccinia – Smut
4. Root – Exarch protoxylem
Sol:
Puccinia — rust fungi.
Answer: (3)
Q 24. Flowers are Zygomorphic in
1. Datura
2. Mustard
3. Gulmohur
4. Tomato
Sol:
Datura, mustard and tomato have actinomorphic flowers.
Answer: (3)
Q. 25. CAM helps the plants in
1. Reproduction
2. Conserving water
3. Secondary growth
4. Disease resistance
Sol:
These are succulent plants with water storing cells.
Answer: (2)
Q. 26. Of the total incident solar radiation the proportion of PAR is
1. More than 80%
2. About 70%
3. About 60%
4. Less than 50%
Sol:
Plants capture 2-10% of PAR.
Answer: (4)
Q. 27. A prokaryotic autotrophic nitrogen fixing symbiont found in
1. Pisum
2. Alnus
3. Cycas
4. Cicer
Sol:
Anabaena cycadae is a BGA found in coralloid roots of Cycas
Answer: (3)
Q. 28. Nucellar polyembryony is reported in species of
1. Brassica
2. Citrus
3. Gossypium
4. Triticum
Sol:
Nucellus polyembryony is common in Citrus,mango and Opuntia.
Answer: (2)
Q. 29. Filiform apparatus is a characteristic feature of
1. Zygote
2. Suspensor
3. Egg
4. Synergid
Sol:
These are fingure like projections at micropylar end of synergids.
Answer: (4)
Q .30. What would be the number of chromosomes of the aleurone cells of a plant with
42 chromosomes in its roots tip cells?
1. 21
2. 42
3. 63
4. 84
Sol:
Aleurone is triploid and root tip is diploid.
Answer: (3)
Q .31. Wind pollination is common in
1. Orchids
2. Legumes
3. Lilies
4. Grasses
Sol:
Wind pollination is common in grasses and gymnosperms.
Answer: (4)
Q .32. In which one of the following pollination is autogamous?
1. Cleistogamy
2. Geitonogamy
3. Xenogamy
4. Chasmogamy
Sol:
Self pollination is favoured by cleistogamy.
Answer: (1)
Q .33. Mass of living matter at a trophic level in an area at any time is called
1. Standing state
2. Standing crop
3. Detritus
4. Humus
Sol:
Standing state represent all non-living matter in an area at a given time.
Answer: (2)
Q .34. Which one of the following statements is wrong in case of Bhopal tragedy?
1. It took place in the night of December 2/3/1984
2. Methyl Isocyanate gas leakage took place
3. Thousands of human beings died
4. Radioactive fall out engulfed Bhopal
Sol:
It was not a tragedy related to radioactivity
Answer: (4)
Q. 35. Secondary sewage treatment is mainly a
1. Biological process
2. Physical process
3. Mechanical process
4. Chemical process
Sol:
Secondary sewage treatment involves aerobic and anaerobic microbes.
Answer: (1)
Q. 36. Eutrophication is often seen in
1. Mountains
2. Deserts
3. Fresh water lakes
4. Ocean
Sol:
It is process of enrichment of lakes by phosphates, nitrates etc.
Answer: (3)
Q. 37. Large Woody Vines are more commonly found in
1. Alpine forests
2. Temperate forests
3. Mangroves
4. Tropical rainforests
Sol:
Lianas and epiphytes are more common in tropical rain forest.
Answer: (4)
Q. 38. Which one of the following expanded forms of the followings acronyms is
correct?
1. IUCN = International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources
2. IPCC = International Panel for Climate Change
3. UNEP = United Nations Environmental Policy
4. EPA = Environmental Pollution Agency
Sol:
IPCC — Intergovernmental Panel for Climate Change
Answer: (1)
Q. 39. Which one of the following statements is correct for secondary succession?
1. It is similar to primary succession except that it has a relatively fast pace
2. It begins on a bare rock
3. It occurs on a deforested site
4. It follows primary succession
Sol:
Secondary biotic succession occurs in abandoned farm lands, burned or cut forests and
lands that have been flooded.
Answer: (3)
Q. 40. Which one of the following shows maximum genetic diversity in India?
1. Mango
2. Groundnut
3. Rice
4. Maize
Sol:
Rice has more than 50,000 genetically different strains, while mango has 1000 varieties
in India.
Answer: (3)
Q. 41. Which one of the following is not a biofertilizer?
1. Mycorrhiza
2. Agrobacterium
3. Rhizobium
4. Nostoc
Sol:
Agrobacteriumis a gene transfer agent.
Answer: (2)
Q. 42. Which one of the following acts as a physiological barrier to the entry of
microorganisms in human body?
1. Skin
2. Epithelium of Urogenial tract
3. Tears
4. Monocytes
Sol:
Physiological barriers to the entry of micro-organisms in human body are tears in eyes,
saliva in mouth and HCl in stomach.
Answer: (3)
Q. 43. Which one of the following helps in absorption of phosphorus from soil by plants?
1. Anabaena
2. Glomus
3. Rhizobium
4. Frankia
Sol:
Glomus is a endomycorrhiza for phosphorus absorption.
Answer: (2)
Q. 44. 'Himgiri' developed by hybridisation and selection for disease resistance against
rust pathogens is a variety of
1. Wheat
2. Chilli
3. Maize
4. Sugarcane
Sol:
This variety is resistant against leaf and stripe rust, hill bunt.
Answer: (1)
Q. 45. Which of the followings is mainly produced by the activity of anaerobic bacteria
on sewage?
1. Marsh gas
2. Laughing gas
3. Propane
4. Mustard gas
Sol:
It is by the activity of methanogens.
Answer: (1)
Q. 46. Agarose extracted from sea weeds finds use in
1. Gel electrophoresis
2. Spectrophotometry
3. Tissue culture
4. PCR
Sol:
Agarose extracted from sea weeds finds use in gel electrophoresis.
Answer: (1)
Q. 47. Maximum number of existing transgenic animals is of
1. Pig
2. Fish
3. Mice
4. Cow
Sol:
95% of the existing transgenic animals are mice.
Answer: (3)
Q. 48. Continuous addition of sugars in 'fed batch' fermentation is done to
1. Degrade sewage
2. Produce methane
3. Obtain antibiotics
4. Purify enzymes
Sol:
Continuous addition of sugar in fed 'batch' fermentation is done to purify enzymes.
Answer: (4)
Q. 49. The process of RNA interference has been used in the development of plants
resistant to
1. Insects
2. Nematodes
3. Fungi
4. Viruses
Sol:
RNAi i.e., RNA interference is used in the development of plants resistant to nematode
like Meloidegyne incognita.
Answer: (2)
Q. 50. "Jaya" and "Ratna" developed for green revolution in India are the varieties of
1. Bajra
2. Maize
3. Rice
4. Wheat
Sol:
Jaya and Ratna are released throughout the rice growing belts of India.
Answer: (3)
Q. 51. Which one of the following organisms is not an example of eukaryotic cells
1. Amoeba proteus
2. Paramecium caudatum
3. Paramecium caudatum
4. Euglena viridis
Sol:
E. coli is a prokaryotic bacterium.
Answer: (3)
Q. 52. Which one of the following animals is correctly matched with its particular
named taxonomic category?
1. Housefly - Musca, an order
2. Tiger - Tigris, the species
3. Cuttlefish - Mollusca, a class
4. Humans - Primata, the family
Sol:
The zoological name of tiger is Panthera tigris in which Panthera is genus and tigris is
species.
Answer: (2)
Q. 53. In which one of the following the genus name, its two characters and its
class/phylum are correctly matched?
Genus name Two characters Class/ Phylum
(1) Aurelia (a) cnidoblasts
(b) Organ level of organization
Coelenterata
(2) Ascaris (a) Body segmented
(b) Males and females distinct
Annelida
(3) Salamandra (a) A tympanum represents ear
(b) Fertilization is external
Amphibia
(4) Pteropus (a) Skin possesses hair
(b) Oviparous
Amphibia
Sol:
Salamandra is a tailed amphibian, has tymphanum which represents ear.
Answer: (3)
Q. 54. Which one of the following groups of animals is correctly matched with its one
characteristic feature without even a single exception?
1. Mammalia: give birth to young ones
2. Reptilia : possess 3-chambered heart with one incompletely divided ventricle
3. Chordata : possess a mouth provided with an upper and a lower jaw
4.
Sol:
All chondrichthyes possess cartilaginous endoskeleton without exception
Answer: (4)
Q. 55. What will you look for to identify the sex of the following?
1. Male shark - Claspers borne on pelvic fins
2. Female Ascaris - Sharply curved posterior end
3. Male frog - A copulatory pad on the first digit of the hind limb
4. Female cockroach - Anal cerci
Sol:
In class chondrichthyes males possess claspers on the pelvic fins.
Answer: (1)
Q. 56. The curve given below show enzymatic activity with relation to three conditions
(pH, temperature and substrate concentration)
What do the two axises(x and y) represent?
x-axis y-axis
1. Enzymatic activity Temeperature
2. Enzymatic activity pH
3. Temperature Enzyme Activity
4. Substrate concentration Enzymatic Activity
Sol:
X-axis represent temperature and Y-axis represent enzyme activity. All enzymes act at an
optimum temperature, above and below this temperature the enzyme activity declines.
Answer: (3)
Q. 57. The ciliated columnar epithelial cells in humans are known to occur in
1. Fallopian tubes and urethra
2. Eustachian tube and stomach lining
3. Bronchioles and Fallopian tubes
4. Bile duct and oesophagus
Sol:
Ciliated columnar epithelium lines bronchioles and fallopian tubes.
Answer: (3)
Q. 58. Select the correct option with respect to mitosis
1. Chromosomes move to the spindle equator and get alingned along equatorial plate
in metaphase
2. Chromatids separate but remain in the centre of the cell in anaphase
3. Chromatids start moving towards opposite poles in telophase
4. Golgi complex and endoplasmic reticulum are still visible at the end of prophase
Sol:
Chromatids show poleward movement in anaphase; golgi and ER disappears in late
prophase.
Answer: (1)
Q. 59. Which one of the following structural formulae of two organic compounds is
correctly identified along with its related function?
1. A: Lecithin - a component of cell membrane
2. B: Adenine - a nucleotide that makes up nucleic acids
3. A: Triglyceride - major source of energy
4. B: Uracil - a component of DNA
Sol:
A is the formula of Lecithin. Lecithin is a phospholipid and is the component of the cell
membranes. B is the formula of adenine which is a nitrogenous base not a nucleotide.
Answer: (1)
Q. 60. What was the most significant trend in the evolution of modern man (Homo
sapiens) from his ancestors?
1. Increasing brain capacity
2. Upright posture
3. Shortening of jaws
4. Binocular vision
Sol:
The most significant trend in the evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens) from the
ancestors is increasing brain capacity.
Answer: (1)
Q. 61. Which one of the following conditions correctly describes the manner of
determining the sex in the given example?
1. Homozygous sex chromosomes (XX) produce make in Drosophila
2. Homozygous sex chromosomes (ZZ) determine female sex in birds
3. XO type of sex chromosomes determine male sex in grasshopper
4. XO condition in humans as found in Turner Syndrome, determines female sex
Sol:
X/A ratio determines sex in Drosophila ; is heterogametic (ZW) in birds. In 'XO type'
the 'O' determines maleness.
Answer: (3)
Q. 62. A person with unknown blood group under ABO system, has suffered much
blood loss in an accident and needs immediate blood transfusion. His one friend who has
a valid certificate of his own blood type, offers for blood donation without delay. What
would have been the type of blood group of the donor friend?
1. Type A
2. Type B
3. Type AB
4. Type O
Sol:
The person with blood group O is said to universal donor, because in this, there are no
antigens on the surface of RBC.
Answer: (4)
Q. 63. What are those structures that appear as 'beads-on-string' in the chromosomes
when viewed under electron microscope?
1. Base pairs
2. Genes
3. Nucleotides
4. Nucleosomes
Sol:
Nucleosome consist of octameric histone core wrapped by dsDNA
Answer: (4)
Q. 64.
Match the source gland with its respective hormone as well as the function
Source gland Hormone Function
Thyroid Thyroxine Regulates blood calcium level
Anterior pituitary Oxytocin Contraction of uterus muscles during child birth
Posterior pituitary Vasopressin Stimulates resorption of water in the distal
tubules in the nephron
Corpus luteum Estrogen Supports pregnancy
Sol:
Vasopressin (ADH) is synthesised in hypothalamus but released into the blood
from posterior lobe of pituitary,so it is called as a hormone of posterior lobe. It
stimulates reabsorption of water in distal tubules in the nephron.
Answer: (3)
Q. 65. Which of the following is correctly stated as happens in the common
cockroach?
1. The food is ground by mandibles an gizzard
2. Malpighian tubules are excretory organ projecting out from the colon
3. Oxygen is transported by haemoglobin blood
4. Nitrogenous excretory product is urea
Sol:
In cockroach the food is grinded by mandibles and gizzard. In insects there is no
oxygen transporting pigment and nitrogenous excretory product is uric acid.
Answer: (1)
Q. 66. A large proportion of oxygen is left unused the human blood even after its
uptake by the body tissues. This O2
5. Helps in releasing more O2 to the epithelium tissues
6. Acts as a reserve during muscular exercise
7. Raises the pCO2 of blood to 75 mm of Hg
8. Is enough to keep oxyhaemoglobin saturation at 96%
Sol:
Our tissues are able to utilise only 25% of O2 carried by arterial blood. Our
venous blood is still 75% saturated with O2. This O2 acts as a reserve during
muscular exercise.
Answer: (2)
Q. 67. Which one of the following enzymes carries on the initial step in the digestion of
milk in humans?
1. Trypsin
2. Pepsin
3. Rennin
4. Lipase
Sol:
In humans milk protein digesting enzyme in stomach is pepsin. In calves it is rennin.
Rennin is also present in small amounts in human infants but not adults. Pepsin acts on
water soluble caseinogen (milk protein) to form solubles 'casein'. This combines with
calcium salts to form insoluble calcium paracaseinate, which gets readily digested
enzymatically.
Answer: (2)
Q. 68. Which one of the following is not a part of a renal pyramid?
1. Loops of Henle
2. Peritubular capillaries
3. Convoluted tubules
4. Collecting ducts
Sol:
In Bowman's capsule PCT and DCT are in renal cortex, whereas, loops of Henle are in
medullary pyramids.
Answer: (3)
Q. 69. One very special feature in the earthworm pheretima is that
1. It has a long dorsal tubular heart
2. Fertilisation of eggs occurs inside the body
3. The typhlosole greatly increases the effective absorption area of the digested food
in the intestine
4. The S-shaped setae embedded in the integument are the defensive weapons used
against the enemies
Sol:
In earthworm, mid dorsal villi typhlosole greatly increases the effective absorption area
of the digested food in the intestine
Answer: (3)
Q. 70. Two friends are eating together on a dining table. One of them suddenly starts
coughing while swallowing some food. This coughing would have been due to improper
movement of
1. Tongue
2. Epiglottis
3. Diaphragm
4. Neck
Sol:
If a person suddenly starts coughing while swallowing food, it is due to improper
movement of epiglottis. If the glottis is not properly closed some food can enter
respiratory tract.
Answer: (2)
Q. 71. Arteries are best defined as the vessels which
1. Carry blood from one visceral organ to another visceral organ
2. Supply oxygenated blood to the different organs
3. Carry blood away from the heart to different organs
4. Break up into capillaries which reunite to form a vein
Sol:
Arteries are best defined as vessels which carry blood away from the heart to different
organs.
Answer: (3)
Q. 72. 'Bundle of His' is a part of which one of the following organs in humans?
1. Pancreas
2. Brain
3. Heart
4. Kidney
Sol:
'Bundle of His' is a part of conducting system of human heart.
Answer: (3)
Q. 73. The purplish red pigment rhodopsin contained in the rods type of photoreceptor
cells of the human eye, is a derivative of
1. Vitamin A
2. Vitamin B1
3. Vitamin C
4. Vitamin D
Sol:
Vitamin A is the precursor of the purplish red pigment rhodopsin contained in the rods
(photoreceptor) cells of human eye.
Answer: (1)
Q. 74. Which one of the following plasma proteins is involved in the coagulation of
blood?
1. Fibrinogen
2. An albumin
3. Serum amylase
4. A globulin
Sol:
Fibrinogen is a plasma protein involved in clotting of blood.
Answer: (1)
Q. 75. When a neuron is in resting state i.e. not conducting any impulse, the axonal
membrane is
1. Comparatively more permeable to K+ ions and nearly impermeable to Na+ ions
2. Comparatively more permeable to Na+ ions and nearly impermeable to K+ ions
3. Equally permeable to both Na+ and K+ ions
4. Impermeable to both Na+ and K+ ions
Sol:
When a neuron is in resting state i.e., not conducting any impulse, the axonal membrane
is comparatively more permeable to K+ ions and nearly impermeable to Na+ ions.
Answer: (1)
Q. 76. Which one of following correctly explains the function of a specific part of a
human nephron?
1. Afferent arteriole : Carries the blood away from the glomerulus towards renal
vein
2. Podocytes : Create minute spaces (slit pores) for the filtration of blood into the
Bowman's capsule
3. Henle's loop : Most reabsorption of the major substances from the glomerular
filtrate
4. Distal convoluted tubule: Reabsorption of K+ ions into the surrounding blood
capillaries
Sol:
Podocytes are specialised squamous epithelial cells in the inner wall of Bowman's
capsule. They give rise to foot like processes which form filtration slits for the filtration
of blood into the Bowman's capsule.
Answer: (2)
Q. 77. Given below is an incomplete table about certain hormones, their source glands
and one major effect of each on the body in humans. Identify the correct option for the
three blanks A, B and C
GLANDS SECRETION EFFECT ON BODY
A Oestrogen Maintenance of secondary sexual characters
Alpha cells of Islets of Langerhans B Raises blood sugar level
Anterior pituitary C Over secretion leads to gigantism
Options
A B C
1. Placenta Glucagon Calcitonin
2. Ovary Glucagon Growth hormone
3. Placenta Insulin Vasopressin
4. Ovary Insulin Calcitonin
Sol:
A. Ovary secretes oestrogen for maintenance of secondary sexual characters.
B. Alpha cells of Islets of Langerhans secrete glucagon which raises blood sugar level.
C. Anterior lobe of pituitary secretes growth hormone. Its over secretion leads to
gigantism.
Answer: (2)
Q. 78. Uricotelic mode of passing out nitrogenous wastes in found in
1. Insects and Amphibians
2. Reptiles and Birds
3. Birds and Annelids
4. Amphibians and Reptiles
Sol:
Reptiles and birds are uricotelic.
Answer: (2)
Q. 79. The figure given below shows a small part of human lung where exchange of
gases takes place. In which one of the options given below, the one part A, B, C or D
is correctly identified along with its function?
1. B: Red blood cell - transport of CO2 mainly
2. C: Arterial capillary - passes oxygen to tissues
3. A: alveolar cavity - main site of exchange of respiratory gases
4. D : Capillary wall - exchange of O2 and CO2 takes place here
Sol:
A is the alveolar cavity which is the main site of exchange of respiratory gases.
Answer: (3)
Q. 80. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding blood
1. 190/110 mmHg may harm vital organs like brain and kidney
2. 130/90 mmHg is considered high and requires treatment
3. 100/55 mmHg is considered an ideal blood pressure
4. 105/50 mmHg makes one very active
Sol:
Hypertension occurs if the blood pressure is 190/110. This can harm the vital organs like
brain and kidneys.
Answer: (1)
Q. 81. Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to kidney function
regulation?
1. During summer when body loses lot of water by evaporation, the release of ADH
is suppressed
2. When someone drinks lot of water, ADH release is suppressed
3. Exposure to cold temperature stimulates ADH release
4. An increase in glomerular blood flow stimulates formation of Angiotensin II
Sol:
When someone drinks lot of water which is not required by his body, the osmolarity of
the blood will decrease. The decrease in osmolarity will inhibit the release of ADH. ADH
not released DCT becomes less permeable to water, and excess of water is eliminated.
Answer: (2)
Q. 82. The figure given below depicts a diagrammatic sectional view of the female
reproductive system of humans.Which one set of three parts out of I – VI have been
correctly identified?
1. Perimetrium, (II) Myometrium, (III) Fallopian tube
2. (II) Endometrium, (III) Infundibulum, (IV) Fimbriae
3. (III) Infundibulum, (IV) Fimbriae, (V) Cervix
4. (IV) Oviducal funnel, (V) Uterus, (VI) Cervix
Sol:
III is infundibulum
IV is fimbriae
V is cervix
Answer: (3)
Q. 83. The testes in humans are situated outside the abdominal cavity inside a pouch
called scrotum. The purpose served is for
1. Providing a secondary sexual feature for exhibiting the male sex
2. Maintaining the scrotal temperature lower than the internal body temperature
3. Escaping any possible compression by the visceral organs
4. Providing more space for the growth of epididymis
Sol:
The tests in humans are situated outside the abdominal cavity in scrotal sacs. This is
because the temperature of scrotal sacs is 2.5°C lesser than internal body temperature.
Answer: (2)
Q. 84. Which one of the following is the most widely accepted method of contraception
in India, as at present?
1. IUDs' (Intra uterine devices)
2. Cervical caps
3. Tubectomy
4. Diaphragms
Sol:
The most widely accepted method of contraception in India is IUDs.
Answer: (1)
Q. 85. If for some reason, the vasa efferentia in the human reproductive system get
blocked, the gametes will not be transported from
1. Vagina to uterus
2. Testes to epididymis
3. Epididymis to vas deferens
4. Ovary to uterus
Sol:
The path of transport of gametes is Seminiferous tubules → rete testis → vasa efferentia
→ epididymis. So, if vasa efferentia are blocked the gametes from testes will not enter
epididymis.
Answer: (2)
Q. 86. Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) is considered safe up to how many
weeks of pregnancy?
1. Six weeks
2. Eight weeks
3. Twelve weeks
4. Eighteen weeks
Sol:
MTPs are considered safe upto twelve weeks of pregnancy.
Answer: (3)
Q. 87. Which one of the following is categorised as a parasite in true sense?
1. The cuckoo (koel) lays its egg in crow's nest
2. The female Anopheles bites and sucks blood from humans
3. Human foetus developing inside the uterus draws nourishment from the mother
4. Head louse living on the human scalp as well as laying eggs on human hair
Sol:
Head louse living on the human scalp as well as laying eggs on human hair is a parasite
in true sense. Female mosquito is not considered as a parasite, though it needs human
blood for reproduction. Koel that lays in crow's nest is just a brood parasite.
Answer: (4)
Q. 88. What type of human population is represented by the following pyramid?
1. Expanding population
2. Vanishing population
3. Stable population
4. Declining population
Sol:
It is an Urn shaped pyramid with least number of pre-reproductive individuals.
Answer: (4)
Q. 89. Which one of the following statements for pyramid of energy is incorrect,
whereas the remaining three are correct?
1. It is upright in shape
2. Its base is broad
3. It shows energy content of different trophic level organisms
4. It is inverted in shape
Sol:
It is never inverted.
Answer: (4)
Q. 90. Ethanol is commercially produced through a particular species of
1. Aspergillus
2. Aspergillus
3. Clostridium
4. Trichoderma
Sol:
Yeast species.
Answer: (2)
Q. 91. Consider the following four conditions (a - d) and select the correct pair of them
as adaptation to environment in desert lizards.
The conditions
(a) Burrowing in soil to escape high temperature
(b) Losing heat rapidly from the body during high temperature
(c) Bask in sun when temperature is low
(d) Insulating body due to thick fatty dermis
1. (a), (b)
2. (c), (d)
3. (a), (c)
4. (b), (d)
Sol:
The adaptations in desert lizard are
(i) burrowing in soil to escape high temperature
(ii) bask in sun when temperature is low
Answer: (3)
Q. 92. Which one of the following pairs of gases are the major cause of "Greenhouse
Effect"?
1. CO2 and N2O
2. CO2 and O3
3. CO2 and CO
4. CFCs and SO2
Sol:
CO2, CH4, N2O and CFC are common green house gases.
Answer: (1)
Q. 93. Where will you look for the sporozoites of the malarial parasite?
1. Salivary glands of freshly moulted female Anopheles mosquito
2. Saliva of infected female Anophelesmosquito
3. Red blood corpuscles of humans suffering from malaria
4. Spleen of infected humans
Sol:
Sporozoites are the infective stage of malarial parasite. They present in the saliva of
infected female Anophelesmosquito.
Answer: (2)
Q. 94. When two unrelated individuals or lines are corssed, the performance of F1 hybrid
is often superior to both its parents. This phenomenon is called
1. Metamorphosis
2. Heterosis
3. Transformation
4. Spheing
Sol:
Heterosis is equivalent to hybrid vigour.
Answer: (2)
Q. 95. A certain patient is suspected to be suffering from Acquired Immuno Deficiency
Syndrome. Which diagnostic technique will you recommend for its detection?
1. WIDAL
2. ELISA
3. MRI
4. Ultra sound
Sol:
ELISA is a diagnostic test for AIDS.
Answer: (2)
Q. 96. At which stage of HIV infection does one usually show symptoms of AIDS?
1. Within 15 days of sexual contact with an infected person
2. When the infecting retrovirus enters host cells
3. When viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase
4. When HIV replicates rapidly in helper T-lymphocytes and damages large number
of these
Sol:
Symptoms of AIDs appear when there is depletion of helper T-cells.
Answer: (4)
Q. 97. Given below is a sample of a portion of DNA strand giving the base sequence on
the opposite strands. What is so special shown in it?
5' ______ GAATTC ________ 3'
3' ________CTTAAG ________ 5'
1. Palindromic sequence of base pairs
2. Replication completed
3. Deletion mutation
4. Start codon at the 5' end
Sol:
5' ______ GAATTC ________ 3'
3' ________CTTAAG ________ 5'
is the palindromic sequence, recognised by EcoRI.
Answer: (1)
Q. 98. The most common substrate used in distilleries for the production of ethanol is
1. Molasses
2. Corn meal
3. Soya meal
4. Ground gram
Sol:
Molasses are used commonly in distilleries for ethanol production
Answer: (1)
Q. 99. An organism used as biofertilizer for raising soyabean crop is
1. Nostoc
2. Azotobacter
3. Azospirillum
4. Rhizobium
Sol:
Soyabean is a legume associated symbiotically with Rhizobium.
Answer: (4)
Q. 100. There is a restriction endonuclease called EcoRI. What does "co" part in it stand
for?
1. coli
2. colon
3. coelom
4. coenzyme
Sol:
In EcoRI, 'co' stands for coli (species of bacteria, from where it is obtained)
Answer: (3)
CHEMISTRY
Q. 1. The total number of atomic orbitals in fourth energy level of an atom is
(1) 4 (2) 8
(3) 16 (4) 32
Sol:
Number of atomic orbitals in an orbit
Answer : (3)
Q. 2. The electrode potentials for are +0.15
V and +0.50 V respectively. The value of .
(1) 0.150 V (2) 0.500 V
(3) 0.325 V (4) 0.650 V
sol.
Answer : (3)
Q. 3. Mole fraction of the solute in a 1.00 molal aqueous solution is
(1) 1.7700 (2) 0.1770
(3) 0.0177 (4) 0.0344
Sol.
Mole fraction of solute = 1/56.55 = 0.0177
Answer : (3)
Q. 4. By what factors does the average velocity of a gaseous molecule increase when the
temperature (in Kelvin) is doubled?
(1) 1.4 (2) 2.0
(3) 2.8 (4) 4.0
Sol.
Answer : (1)
Q. 5. A buffer solution is prepared in which the concentration of NH3 is 0.30 M and the
concentration of is 0.20 M. If the equilibrium constant, Kb for NH3 equals
, what is the pH of this solution?
(1) 8.73 (2) 9.08
(3) 9.43 (4) 11.72
Sol.
Answer : (3)
Attached Files
File Type: pdf AIPMT Question Papers.pdf (3.34 MB, 107 views)
  #9  
19th September 2019, 10:09 AM
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Re: AIPMT Solved Question Paper

Hi buddy here I am looking for NEET entrance exam (previously known as AIPMT) Solved Question Paper to do preparation of this exam so will you plz providing same here ??
  #10  
19th September 2019, 10:14 AM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Aug 2012
Re: AIPMT Solved Question Paper

As you want here I am giving bellow NEET entrance exam (previously known as AIPMT) Solved Question Paper on your demand :

NEET entrance exam (previously known as AIPMT) Solved Question Paper






NEET entrance exam syllabus
Physics:

Class XI: Physical world and measurement, Notion of Potential Entergy, Nature of Physical Laws, Kinematics, Speed, Velocity, Work, Energy and Power, Laws of Motion, Static & Kinetic Friction, Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Body, Gravitation, Keplers law of Planetary Motion, The Universal Law of Gravitation, Thermodynamics, Behaviour of Perfect Gas and Kinetic Theory, Properties of Bulk Matter, Bulk Modulous, Critical Velocity, Heat, Work & Internal Energy, Oscillations and Waves.

Class XII: Electrostatics, Electric Charges & their Coservation, Electric Diplole, Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism, Carbon Resistors, Kirchhoffs Laws & Simple Applications, Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents, AC Generator & Transformer, Concept of Megnatic Field, Permanent Magnets, Current Electricity, Electromagnetic Waves, Electromagnetic Spectrum, Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation, Optics, Optical Instruments, Wave Optics, Atoms and Nuclei, Electronic Devices, Conductors.

Chemistry:
Class XI: Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Laws of Chemical Combination, Structure of Atom, Atomic Number, Isotopes & Isobars, Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure, Ionic Bond, Covalent Bond, States of Matter: Gases and Liquids, Thermodynamics, Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties, Electronagitivity, Equilibrium, Equilibrium in Physical & Chemical Process, Redox Reactions, Hydrogen, Physical & Chemical Properties of Water, s-Block Element (Alkali and Alkaline earth metals), Organic Chemistry-Some Basic Principles and Techniques, Some p-Block Elements, Hydrocarbons, Environmental Chemistry.

Class XII: Solid State, Band Theory of Metals, Solutions, Elevation of Boiling Point, Electro Chemistry, Chemical Kinetics, Surface Chemistry, General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements, Electrochemistry, p-Block Elements, d and f Block Elements, Haloalkanes and Haloarenes, Alcohols, Physical & Chemical Properties of Primary Alcohol, Phenols and Ethers, Coordination Compounds, Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids, Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen, Amines, Cynaides & Isocynaides, Polymers, Biomolecules, Chemistry in Everyday Life, Cleansing Agents Soaps & Detergents.

Biology:
Class XI: Diversity in Living World, Three Domains of Life, Cell Structure and Function, Cell Theory, Plant Cell & Animal Cell, Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants, Tissues, Morphology & Modifications, Plant Physiology, Transport in Plants, Photosynthesis, Human physiology.

Class XII: Reproduction, Reproduction in Organisms, Biology and Human Welfare, Genetics and Evolution, Heredity & Variations, Biology and Human Welfare, Biotechnology and Its Applications, Principle & Process of Biotechnology, Ecology and Environment, Organism & Enviornment, Biodiversity and its Coversation.


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