UP PCS Previous question papers - 2017 2018 Student Forum
 

Go Back   2017 2018 Student Forum > Management Forum > Main Forum



 
Thread Tools
  #1  
Old 31st July 2014, 12:55 PM
Unregistered
Guest
 
Posts: n/a
Default UP PCS Previous question papers

Please provide me syllabus for Uttar Pradesh Public Service Commission PCS state service examination soon ?
Reply With Quote Quick reply to this message

  #2  
Old 31st July 2014, 04:44 PM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Apr 2013
Posts: 61,272
Default Re: UP PCS Previous question papers

Here I am giving you syllabus for Uttar Pradesh Public Service Commission PCS state service examination in a word file attached with it so you can get it easily.

1. The only Indian Governor General was—
(A) C. Rajagopalachari
(B) Pattabhi Sitaramayya
(C) Rajendra Prasad
(D) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Ans : (A)
2. Which plan became the basis for Indian independence ?
(A) Cripps Plan
(B) Wavell Plan
(C) Mountbatten Plan
(D) None of the above

Ans : (C)
3. Which part of Indian Constitution has been described as the soul of the Constitution ?
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Directive Principle of State Policy
(C) The Preamble
(D) Right to Constitutional Remedies

Ans : (D)
4. Name the Indian who attended all the Three Round Table Conferences—
(A) B. R. Ambedkar
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
(D) Tej Bahadur Sapru

Ans : (A)
5. Rabindranath Tagore relinquished his Nighthood as a measure of protest against—
(A) Partition of Bengal
(B) Press Act of 1910
(C) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
(D) Salt Laws

Ans : (C)
6. The 52nd amendment to the Constitution of India deals with—
(A) Defection
(B) Reservation
(C) Election
(D) Protection of minorities

Ans : (A)
7. The Panchayati Raj was recommended by—
(A) The Government of India Act, 1935
(B) The Cripps Mission of 1942
(C) The Indian Independence Act, 1947
(D) Balwantrai Mehta Committee Report, 1957

Ans : (D)
8. The President of India can nominate—
(A) 10 members to Rajya Sabha
(B) 2 members to Rajya Sabha
(C) 15 members to Rajya Sabha
(D) 12 members to Rajya Sabha

Ans : (D)
9. UNO has fixed the target for ‘Education for All’ till the year—
(A) 2012
(B) 2013
(C) 2014
(D) 2015

Ans : (D)
10. The subjects on which both the Centre and State Governments can legislate are contained in—
(A) The Union List
(B) The State List
(C) The Concurrent List
(D) Residuary List

Ans : (C)
11. Which State Legislative Assembly has the maximum strength (number of members) ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) West Bengal
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (D)
12. The concept of ‘Fundamental Rights’ enshrined in the Indian Constitution was borrowed from which country’s constitution ?
(A) France
(B) Britain
(C) U.S.A.
(D) Russia

Ans : (C)
13. The maximum strength of Lok Sabha has been fixed at—
(A) 540
(B) 545
(C) 552
(D) 555

Ans : (C)
14. The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on—
(A) August 15, 1947
(B) June 30, 1948
(C) November 26, 1949
(D) January 26, 1950

Ans : (C)
15. In India the Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee is appointed by—
(A) President of India
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(D) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

Ans : (C)
16. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding the introduction of money bill ?
(A) Money bill is introduced in Rajya Sabha
(B) It can be introduced in either of the Houses of Parliament
(C) It cannot be introduced in the Lok Sabha
(D) It is introduced in the Lok Sabha

Ans : (D)
17. Who is the Chairman of the Planning Commission ?
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Finance Minister
(D) Governor of Reserve Bank

Ans : (B)
18. The minimum age required for election to Rajya Sabha is—
(A) 25 years
(B) 30 years
(C) 32 years
(D) 35 years

Ans : (B)
19. Which one of the following taxes is levied and collected by the Union but distributed between Union and States ?
(A) Corporation tax
(B) Tax on income other than on agricultural income
(C) Tax on railway fares and freights
(D) Customs

Ans : (B)
20. Sikkim became a new state by–
(A) 30th Amendment
(B) 34th Amendment
(C) 35th Amendment
(D) 36th Amendment

Ans : (C)
21. On which Indian river is the highest bridge of the world being constructed ?
(A) Chenab
(B) Satluj
(C) Jhelum
(D) Beas

Ans : (A)
22. Match List-I (category) with List-II (54th National Film Award winners) and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Best Feature Film
(b) Best Popular Film
(c) Best Children Film
(d) Best Hindi Film
List-II
1. Care of Footpath
2. Khosla ka Ghosla
3. Pullijaman
4. Lage Raho Munnabhai

Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 3 2 4
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 4 2 1 3

Ans : (B)
23. In which district of Uttar Pradesh has the first Police Museum of the country been established ?
(A) Allahabad
(B) Agra
(C) Ghaziabad
(D) Lucknow

Ans : (C)
24. The Commercial Banks were Nationalised in—
(A) 1947
(B) 1951
(C) 1969
(D) 1992

Ans : (C)
25. Asia’s first human DNA Bank has been set up in—
(A) New Delhi
(B) Hyderabad
(C) Lucknow
(D) Mumbai

Ans : (C)
26. The distribution of finances between centre and states is done on the recommendation of—
(A) Finance Ministry
(B) Finance Commission
(C) Reserve Bank of India
(D) NABARD

Ans : (B)
27. In which one of the following districts of Uttar Pradesh has the Indian Carpet Technology Institute been established ?
(A) Agra
(B) Mirzapur
(C) Moradabad
(D) Sant Ravi Das Nagar

Ans : (D)
28. Which of the following Banks is first in establishing its branch in China ?
(A) Bank of Baroda
(B) Punjab National Bank
(C) State Bank of India
(D) UCO Bank

Ans : (C)
29. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan covers—
(A) all children in the age group 3–10
(B) all children in the age group 4–8
(C) all children in the age group 5–15
(D) all children in the age group 6–14

Ans : (D)
30. Swavalamban Scheme is concerned with providing—
(A) employment to rural women folk
(B) employment to urban women folk
(C) employment to disabled persons
(D) providing training and skills to women

Ans : (D)

31. Mixed economy means—
(A) existence of both small and big industries
(B) existence of both private and public sectors
(C) existence of both primary and secondary sector
(D) none of the above

Ans : (B)
32. How many IITs will be set up in the 11th Five Year Plan ?
(A) 6
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 9

Ans : (C)
33. Among the following which country has the highest life expectancy at birth (in years) ?
(A) Japan
(B) Denmark
(C) U.S.A.
(D) Switzerland

Ans : (A)
34. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Place)
(a) Vishakhapatnam
(b) Muri
(c) Gurgaon
(d) Panki
List-II (Industry)
1. Automobile
2. Ship-building
3. Fertiliser
4. Aluminium
Codes :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 2 4 1 3
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 2 4 3 1

Ans : (B)
35. Which among the following is a public sector Commercial Bank ?
(A) ICICI Bank
(B) HDFC Bank
(C) Indian Overseas Bank
(D) UTI Bank

Ans : (C)
36. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Mineral Production)
(a) Mineral Oil
(b) Gypsum
(c) Gold
(d) Bauxite
List-II (State)
1. Orissa
2. Karnataka
3. Gujarat
4. Rajasthan

Codes :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4

(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 4 3 1 2

(D) 3 4 2 1

Ans : (D)
37. Consider the following statements—
Assertion (A) : Atomic energy in India promises to meet the future energy
demand of the country.
Reason (R) : Atomic minerals are ubiquitous in India.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Ans : (C)
38. Which of the following states has the longest coast line ?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Kerala
(D) Tamil Nadu

Ans : (A)
39. Which of the following rock systems in India is the main source of coal deposits ?
(A) Dharwar system
(B) Gondwana system
(C) Cudappa system
(D) Vindhyan system

Ans : (B)
40. Laterite soil is found in—
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Punjab
(D) Maharashtra

Ans : (D)
41. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Kirghiz — Central Asia
(B) Masai — West Africa
(C) Red Indians — North America
(D) Eskimos — Greenland

Ans : (B)
42. Chilka lake is situated in—
(A) West Bengal
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Orissa
(D) Tamil Nadu

Ans : (C)
43. Damodar is a tributary of river—
(A) Ganga
(B) Hugli
(C) Padma
(D) Suvarn Rekha

Ans : (B)
44. Sangam Yojana is concerned with—
(A) provision for clean drinking water
(B) provision for cleaning rivers
(C) promoting communal harmony
(D) helping the invalids

Ans : (D)
45. National Dairy Development Board is located in—
(A) Anand
(B) Gandhinagar
(C) Vadodara
(D) Valsad
Ans : (A)
46. Economic Planning is included in the Constitution of India in—
(A) Union List
(B) State List
(C) Concurrent List
(D) Special List

Ans : (C)
47. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Kimberley — Diamond
(B) Havana — Meat packing
(C) Milan — Silk
(D) Sheffield — Cutlery

Ans : (C)
48. Dudhawa National Park is situated in the district of—
(A) Lalitpur
(B) Pilibhit
(C) Lakhimpur Khiri
(D) Sonbhadra

Ans : (C)
49. The correct descending order of major states of India in terms of density of population (2001) is—
(A) Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Bihar, Kerala
(B) West Bengal, Kerala, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh
(C) Uttar Pradesh, Kerala, West Bengal, Bihar
(D) West Bengal, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Kerala

Ans : (B)




1. AGMARK Act came into force in India in—
(A) 1937
(B) 1952
(C) 1957
(D) 1965
Ans : (A)

2. Clonal selection can be used in—
(A) Groundnut
(B) Mustard
(C) Wheat
(D) Potato
Ans : (D)

3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I(a) F.A.O. Headquarters
(b) Central Agmark Lab
(c) Central Rice Research Institute
(d) Central Potato Research Institute
List-II
1. Shimla
2. Cuttack
3. Rome
4. Nagpur
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 3 4 1 2
Ans : (B)

4. In which of the following crops, Uttar Pradesh is the leading producer in the country ?
1. Potato
2. Rice
3. Sugarcane
4. Tobacco
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 3
Ans : (D)

5. Bhatkhande Sangeet Sansthan, Lucknow became a Deemed University in—
(A) 1998
(B) 2001
(C) 2003
(D) 2004
Ans : (B)

6. Dry Ice is—
(A) Liquid Nitrogen
(B) Water Ice
(C) Solid Carbon dioxide
(D) Frozen Ethanol
Ans : (C)

7. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Amir Khusrau —Etah
(B) Mirza Ghalib —Agra
(C) Josh —Malihabad
(D) Ram Prasad Bismil —Allahabad
Ans : (D)

8. The Growth Centre Project was introduced in Uttar Pradesh in—
(A) October 2001
(B) September 2005
(C) December 2005
(D) February 2006
Ans : (C)

9. Rani Laxmi Bai Dam is located on the—
(A) Betwa
(B) Ken
(C) Rihand
(D) Tons
Ans : (A)

10. Kartik is a folk dance of—
(A) Bundelkhand
(B) Avadh
(C) Purvanchal
(D) Rohilkhand
Ans : (A)

11. Which trade zone of Uttar Pradesh tops in the collection of trade tax ?
(A) Ghaziabad
(B) Kanpur
(C) Lucknow
(D) Noida
Ans : (A)

12. Assertion (A) :Uttar Pradesh shares 9•4% of country’s Gross DomesticProduct (GDP). Reason (R) :Uttar Pradesh shares 66% of the total exports of the country.Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (C)

13. Which one of the following deals with the marketing of milk ?
(A) CACP
(B) GCMMF
(C) NAFED
(D) TRIFED
Ans : (B)

14. In Uttar Pradesh, the famous place of pilgrimage of both Jain and Baudh is at—
(A) Devipatan
(B) Kaushambi
(C) Kushinagar
(D) Sarnath
Ans : (B)

15. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Industrial Establishments)
(a) Indian Telephone Industries
(b) Transformer Factory
(c) Artificial Limbs Manufacturing Corporation
(d) Fertilizer Factory
List-II (City)1. Kanpur
2. Rae Bareli
3. Jhansi
4. Phoolpur
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 2 3 1 4
(D) 4 2 1 3
Ans : (C)

16. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List–I (Fair)
(a) Govind Saheb
(b) Kailash Mela
(c) Syed Salar
(d) Shakumbhari Devi
List-II (District)
1. Bahraich
2. Saharanpur
3. Azamgarh
4. Agra
Codes a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 1 4
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 1 4 2 3
Ans : (B)

17. Arrange the following districts of Uttar Pradesh in descending order of population (2001) and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
1. Allahabad
2. Gorakhpur
3. Lucknow
4. Mathura
Codes :
(A) 1, 3, 2, 4
(B) 3, 1, 4, 2
(C) 1, 2, 3, 4
(D) 4, 1, 2, 3
Ans : (C)

18. Who among the following did not contribute to the cultural activities of Lucknow ?
(A) Binda Deen
(B) Ustad Dulhe Khan
(C) Menhdi
(D) Ilias Khan
Ans : (C)

19. Under the international agreement on agriculture the Green Box includes economic assistance for—
1. Agricultural Research
2. Fertilizer
3. Irrigation
4. Plant Protection
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 4
Ans : (D)

20. Assertion (A) : Aluminum is the green metal. Reason (R) : It provides replacement of wood for saving forest. Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of
(A)
(C) (A) is false, but (R) is true
(D) (A) is true, but (R) is false
Ans : (D)

21. A ‘Letter of Credit’ is produced by—
(A) An exporter
(B) An importer
(C) Both by exporter and importer
(D) Shipping company
Ans : (C)

22. The theory of trusteeship of the business assets was pronounced by—
(A) Henry Fayol
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(D) Karl Marx
Ans : (B)

23. Treasury bills are sold in India by—
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) State Governments
(C) Commercial Banks
(D) SEBI
Ans : (A)

24. In U.P. Value Added Tax (VAT) was levied with effect from—
(A) 1st April, 2007
(B) 1st January, 2008
(C) 1st January, 2009
(D) 1st April, 2008
Ans : (B)

25. Which of the following organizations is involved in providing the insurance against various risks to the exporters ?
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) State Trading Corporation of India
(C) EXIM Bank
(D) Export Credit and Guarantee Corporation
Ans : (D)

26. ‘Principle of Indemnity’ does not apply to—
(A) Life Insurance
(B) Marine Insurance
(C) Fire Insurance
(D) All the above
Ans : (A)

27. “Everything else can wait, but not agriculture.” The above statement is attributed to—
(A) Jagjivan Ram
(B) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) Sardar Patel
Ans : (B)

28. Consider the following statements—
1. The third rail coach factory is being established at Amethi in U.P.
2. Firozabad in U.P. is famous for pottery industry.
3. U.P. DESCO is a Corporation under the Electronics Department.
4. The first polyester fibre factory in U.P. has been set up at Barabanki.
Of these statements—
(A) Only 1 and 2 are correct
(B) Only 2 and 3 are correct
(C) Only 3 and 4 are correct
(D) None of the above is correct
Ans : (D)

29. Uttar Pradesh recorded the highest industrial growth rate during—
(A) 5th Five Year Plan
(B) 6th Five Year Plan
(C) 10th Five Year Plan
(D) 11th Five Year Plan
Ans : (B)

30. ‘Inside trading’ is related to—
(A) Public Expenditure
(B) Taxation
(C) Share Market
(D) Hawala
Ans : (C)

31. In Uttar Pradesh, the festival ‘Sulah Kul’ a symbol of Hindu-Muslim
unity is organised in—
(A) Meerut
(B) Aligarh
(C) Lucknow
(D) Agra
Ans : (D)

32. The Operation Green Project was launched in U.P. in—
(A) 1952
(B) 1995
(C) 2001
(D) 2005
Ans : (C)

33. The North-South and East-West corridors meet at—
(A) Jhansi
(B) Kanpur
(C) Lucknow
(D) Varanasi
Ans : (A)

34. Which one of the following is not correctly matched in the context of U.P. ?
(A) Food Research and Analysis Centre —Lucknow
(B) Food Park —Noida
(C) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel Agricultural University —Meerut
(D) Indian Pulses Research Institute —Agra
Ans : (D)

35. The famous painting Satyam Shivam Sundaram was prepared by—
(A) Sd. Shobha Singh
(B) Nandkishore Sharma
(C) Shivnandan Nautiyal
(D) Vishwanath Mehta
Ans : (A)

36. The Centre for CAD—‘Computer Aided Designing’ Project in Uttar Pradesh is located at—
(A) Agra
(B) Allahabad
(C) Kanpur
(D) Lucknow
Ans : (D)

37. Consider the following statements—
1. India’s first EPZ was set up in 1965.
2. Special Economic Zone (SEZ) policy in India was formulated in 2000.
3. Vadodara is famous for Patola Silk.
4. Panna in Madhya Pradesh is famous gold mines.
Of these statements—
(A) Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(B) Only 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(C) Only 3 and 4 are correct
(D) All are correct
Ans : (A)

38. The urban population of the world out-excelled its rural population in—
(A) 2001
(B) 2004
(C) 2009
(D) 2010
Ans : (D)

39. Navdatoli is situated in the State of—
(A) Gujarat
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Chhattisgarh
(D) Madhya Pradesh
Ans : (D)

40. Which of the following classical works of literature were written during the Gupta Era ?
1. Amarkosh
2. Kamsutra
3. Meghduta
4. Mudrarakshas
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (D)

41. In ancient India the irrigation tax was called—
(A) Bidakabhagam
(B) Hiranya
(C) Udranga
(D) Uparnika
Ans : (C)

42. The famous rock-out temples of Elephanta are ascribed to the—
(A) Chalukyas
(B) Cholas
(C) Pallavas
(D) Rashtrakutas
Ans : (D)

43. Who represented the Indian National Congress in the Partition Council headed by Lord Mountbatten ?
1. Abul Kalam Azad
2. Jawahar Lal Nehru
3. Sardar Patel
4. Rajendra Prasad
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 4
Ans : (B)

44. Which Sultan of Delhi is said to have followed the policy of ‘blood and iron’ ?
(A) Iltutmish
(B) Balban
(C) Jalaluddin Firoz Khalji
(D) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
Ans : (B)

45. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below—
List-I
(a) Tarikh-i-Hind
(b) Tarikh-i-Dilli
(c) Rehla
(d) Tabqat-i-Nasiri
List-II
1. Ibn Batuta
2. Minhaj
3. Alberuni
4. Khusrau
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 3 2 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 4 2 3 1
Ans : (C)

46. Which medieval ruler introduced the system of ‘patta’ and ‘qabuliyat’ to help the peasants ?
(A) Alauddin Khalji
(B) Giyasuddin Tughlaq
(C) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(D) Sher Shah
Ans : (D)

47. Saint Ramdas is associated with the period of rule of—
(A) Akbar
(B) Jehangir
(C) Shahjahan
(D) Aurangzeb
Ans : (A)

48. Which is the correct chronological order of the following ?
I. Cripps Mission
II. Gandhi-Irwin Pact
III. Simon Commission
IV. Partition of the country
(A) I, II, III, IV
(B) II, I, IV, III
(C) II, I, III, IV
(D) III, II, I, IV
Ans : (D)

49. Ash mound is associated with the Neolithic site at—
(A) Budihal
(B) Sangan Kallu
(C) Koldihwa
(D) Brahmgiri
Ans : (A)

50. Who had the longest tenure as the Viceroy of India ?
(A) Lord Curzon
(B) Lord Dufferin
(C) Lord Hardinge
(D) Lord Mayo
Ans : (A)
Reply With Quote Quick reply to this message
Sponsored Links






















  #3  
Old 28th May 2015, 11:26 AM
Unregistered
Guest
 
Posts: n/a
Default Re: UP PCS Previous question papers

I want to give UPPSC (Uttar Pradesh Public Service Commission) Exam so please provide me Previous Years Question Papers of General Studies for preparation?
Reply With Quote Quick reply to this message
  #4  
Old 28th May 2015, 11:31 AM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Apr 2013
Posts: 36,164
Default Re: UP PCS Previous question papers

Here I am providing you Previous Years Question Papers of General Studies for preparation of UPPSC (Uttar Pradesh Public Service Commission) Exam.

Uttar Pradesh PSC General Studies Question Paper:
1. A person takes 10,000 loan at the rate of 10%
interest compounding yearly for the period of 4
years. How much interest he has to pay ?
(a) f 4,371
(c) f 14641
(b) f 4,581
(d) f 4,641
2. A student is required to secure at least 50% marks in order to pass an examination. He se- cured 50
marks which were less than the mini- mum pass marks by 50. The maximum marks of the paper are
3. In an examination, 40% students failed in Hindi,
50% students failed in English. If 21% students
faUed in both the subjects, find the percentage of those who passed in Hindi.
(a) 31%
(b) 55%
(b) 40%
(d) 60%
4. The value of x in the equation --1 ---1=-1
x-3 x+5 6
are
(a)
(c) -7, 9
(b) -7, -9
(d) 7, 9
5. A number is of two digits. The position of digits
is interchanged and the new number is added to the original number. The resultant number wiU
always be divisible by
(a) 8
(c) 10
(b) 9
(d) 11
6. A, B and C together hired a pasture on payment
off 888. In the pasture, 20 sheep of A grazed for
2.5 months, 30 sheep of B grazed for 4 months
and 36 sheep of C grazed for 3.5 months. How much should C pay as his share ?
(a) f 358
(b) f 378
(b) f 360
(d) f 396
7. The average contribution of 5 men to a fund is
f 35. Sixth man Joins and pays f 35 more than the resultant average of six men. The total con- tribution
of aU the six men is
(a) f 210
(c) f 250
(b) f 245
(d) f 252
8. The expression (2+.J2)+ (2 + )+(2- )
equals
(c) 4-.fi
(d) 2+.fi
9. If the side of a cube is increased by 100% its volume is increased by
(a) 400%
(c) 200%
(b) 800%
(d) 100%
If the perimeter of a certain rectangle is 76 and its area 360, then what is the length of its short- est side?
(a) 12
(c) 18
(b) 20
(d) 36
11. If A, B, C are sets, then A - (B - C) equals
(a) (A - B) u (A C)
(b) (A- B)- C
(c) (A - B) n (A - C)
(d) (A - B) - (A - C)
12. If the graphic representation of the data is such that it consists of adJacent rectangles whose bases are
equal to the class sizes and heights
are equal to the respective class frequencies, then the figure is
(a) An Ogive
(b) a Histogram
(c) A Frequency Polygon
(d) A Bar Chart
13. The L.C.M. and H.C.M. of two numbers x and y
are 3 and 105 respectively.
If x + y = 36, the value of
1 1
x y
is
(a) 1 (b)
1
6
(c)
12
315
(d)
4
35
14. Mode and mean of a given moderately asymmetric
data are 18 and 24 respectively. Their
median is
(a) 18 (b) 24
(c) 22 (d) 21
15. A man starts from his home and walks 10
kilometres towards South. Then he turns right
and walks 6 km, again the he turns right and
goes 10 km. Finally he turns right and walks 5
km. At what distance is he from his starting
point ?
(a) 31 km (b) 2 101km
(c) 1 km (d) 125 136 km
16. Find the value of x in the series 2, 6, 30, 210, x,
30030, …
(a) 2310 (b) 1890
(c) 2520 (d) 2730
17. _ 49 have been divided among 150 children. If
each girl gets 50 paise and each boy gets 25
paise, then the number of boys is
(a) 100 (b) 104
(c) 102 (d) 106
18. Diagonals of a quadrilateral intersect at the point
'O' such that AO × DO = BO × CO, then ABCD
is a
(a) Kite shaped quadrilateral
(b) Parallelogram
(c) Rectangle
(d) Trapezium
19. The mean marks of 30 students in a class is
58.5. Later on it was found that the marks 75
was wrongly recorded as 57. Find the correct
mean.
(a) 57.4 (b) 57.5
(c) 58.9 (d) 59.1
20. A manufacturer sells a machine to the
wholeseller at a profit of 20%. The wholeseller
sells it to the retailer at a profit of 10%. The
retailer sells the machine to a customer for
_ 455.40 after making a profit of 15%. The cost
of the manufacturer is
(a) _ 300 (b) _ 296
(c) _ 280 (d) _ 260
21. In three vessels, the ratio of water and milk is 6
: 7, 5 : 9 and 8 : 7 respectively. If the mixture of
the three vessels is mixed, then what will be the
ratio of water and milk ?
(a) 2431 : 3781 (b) 3691 : 4499
(c) 4381 : 5469 (d) None of these
22. The average age of women and child workers in
a factory was 15 years. The average age of all
the 16 children was 8 years and the average age
of women workers was 22 years. If ten women
workers were married the number of unmarried
women workers is
(a) 16 (b) 12
(c) 8 (d) 6
23. A daily wage earner gets a daily wage at the
rate of _ 150 per day subject to the condition
that he will have to pay a penalty at the rate of
_ 25 per day for the days on which he absents
himself. At the end of 60 days he gets an amount
of _ 7,600. The number of days he worked is
(a) 54 days (b) 52 days
(c) 51 days (d) 48 days
24. A man arranged to pay off a debt of _ 3600 by
40 annual instalments which are in Arithmetical
Progression when 30 of the instalments have
been paid, he dies leaving 1/3rd of the debt
unpaid. The value of the 8th instalment is
(a) _ 35 (b) _ 50
(c) _ 65 (d) None of these
25. The age of a father is three times of that of his
son. After 5 years, the double of father's age will
be five times the age of son. The present age of
father and son is
(a) 30 years, 10 years
(b) 36 years, 12 years
(c) 42 years, 14 years
(d) 45 years, 15 years
26. If X, Y and Z can finish a work in 12, 15 and
18 days respectively, then all three together can
finish that work in
(a)
32
4
37
days (b) 5 days
(c)
1
5
37
days (d)
5
5
37
days
27. The total expenditure incurred by an industry
under different heads is best represented as a
(a) Bar diagram
(b) Frequency polygon
(c) Pie chart
(d) Histogram
28. The principle of KISS in communication stands
for
(a) Keep It Stylish and Subtle
(b) Keep It Short and Simple
(c) Keep It Sincere and Secret
(d) Keep It Safe and Shaded
29. Which one of the following is the reason for
emitting the negative signal of scowling ?
(a) Boredom (b) Impatience
(c) Disbelief (d) Annoyance
30. In a group of 50 people, 35 speak Hindi, 25
speak both Hindi and English and all the people
speak Hindi or English or both. The number of
people who speak English only is
(a) 40 (b) 20
(c) 15 (d) 10
31. Which one of the following is a receiver's weakness
type of barrier to communication ?
(a) Ambiguity (b) Jargon
(c) Time (d) Prejudice
32. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Interpersonal roles relate to a
person's behaviour that focuses on interpersonal
contact.
Reason (R) : Such roles are derived directly from
the authority and status.
Select your correct answer from the codes given
below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) correctly
explains (A).
(b) Both (A) and ® are true, but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, (R) is true.
33. Which one of the following is not an interpersonal
role ?
(a) Figurehead (b) Leader
(c) Liaison (d) Boss
34. The one who makes short-term adjustments and
long-term structural changes to maintain the
equilibrium is called
(a) Disseminator
(b) Resource allocator
(c) Disturbance handler
(d) Negotiator
35. Which one of the following is the reason for
displaying the positive personal signal of learning
forward?
(a) Concentration
(b) Extreme confidence
(c) Taking time to think
(d) Relaxation
36. Which one of the following is known as the
avoiding style of conflict resolution ?
(a) Satisfying your own needs at the expense
of others
(b) Satisfying other's needs while Neglecting
your own
(c) Neglecting interest of both parties by postponing
a decision
(d) Asking both parties to make sacrifices
37. Which one of the following refers to the need to
associate with others ?
(a) Need for inclusion
(b) Need for individuation
(c) Need for control
(d) Need for affection
38. In conflict resolution which one of the following
explains the emphasizing of areas of agreement
and deemphasizing areas of difference over
conflictual issues ?
(a) Smoothing (b) Smoothing
(c) Compromising (d) Confrontation
39. Which one of the following is not a characteristic
of empathic listening ?
(a) Putting oneself in the position of a speaker
(b) Being evaluative
(c) Observing body language
(d) Focussing both on feeling and content of
the message
40. Match items of List - I with those of List - II and
select your correct answer from the codes give
below correct answer from the codes given below
the lists :
List - I List - II
Barriers to Types of Barriers
Communication
A. Vocabulary 1. Structural
B. Distance 2. Situational
C. Haste 3. Circumstantial
D. Noise 4. Language
Codes :
A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 4 1 3 2
41. A manager who is helping a customer return
some articles that he purchased earlier is dealing
with a
(a) programmed decision
(b) non-programmed decision
(c) uncertainty
(d) bounded rationality
42. You are a Deputy Secretary in a Ministry of the
Government of India where you are dealing with
the appointment of 'Technical Assistants'. On
the basis of a written examination, 10 candidates
have been short-listed for the two posts.
Based on their educational and previous work
experience you have to make your recommendation
in order of preference. A senior official in
the Ministry who is known to you asks you to
recommend the name of a candidate Y amongst
the first two choices. What will you do?
(a) Bring the matter to the knowledge of your
immediate superior officer and do as he
verbally directs.
(b) Comply to the request of the senior officer
who approached you and recommend the
name of his candidate in the top two despite
knowing that he is not among the best
two.
(c) Examine the profile of all ten candidates
and take decision on merits even if it means
that candidate Y is eventually selected.
(d) See to it that the candidate Y is not selected
at all by placing him down in the preference.
43. Decision making based on the use of subjective
experience, self-confidence and self-motivation
to process information data refers to
(a) intuitive decision making
(b) rational decision making
(c) bounded rationality approach
(d) administrative decision making
44. Find out the missing number :
(a) 860 (b) 1140
(c) 3240 (d) 2880
45. In a cricket series India defeated Australia twice,
West Indies defeated India twice, Australia
defeated West Indies twice and India defeated
West Indies and New Zealand twice. Which
country lost largest number of matches?
(a) India (b) Australia
(b) West Indies (d) New Zealand
46. Sheela is older than Meena, Kamini is as sold as
Nalini, Neetu is younger than Sindhu who is as
old as Nalini while Meena is older than Kamini.
Who is the oldest of all?
(a) Meena (b) Kamini
(c) Nalini (d) Sheela
47. Hema and Sadhana are very good at music and
dancing. Madhuri and Sadhana are equally
good at yoga and music. Madhuri and Reeta are
good at acting and painting. Who may be appointed
as Art's Coordinator?
(a) Hema (b) Sadhana
(c) Madhuri (d) Reea
48. Which of the following would come in place of
the question mark (?) in the series?
Series : B, E, H, K, N, Q, T, W, Z, (?)
(a) C F I (b) D G H
(b) P R S (d) F I J
49. A watch is one minute slow at 1.00 p.m. on
Tuesday and two minutes fast at 1.00 p.m. on
Thursday. When did it show the correct time?
(a) 1.00 a.m. on Wednesday
(b) 5.00 a.m. on Wednesday
(c) 1.00 p.m. on Wednesday
(d) 5.00 p.m. on Wednesday
50. A girl was born on September 6, 1970 which
happened to be a Sunday. Her birthday would
have fallen again on Sunday in
(a) 1975 (b) 1977
(c) 1981 (d) 1982
51.In a certain office, 72% of the workers prefer cold
drink and 44% prefer tea. If each of them prefers
cold drink or tea and 40 like both, then the total
number of workers in the office is
(a) 250 (b) 240
(c) 220 (d) 210
52. Paschim Express left Delhi for Mumbai at 14.30
hours travelling at a speed of 60 kmph. August
Kranti Express left Delhi for Mumbai on the
same day at 16.30 hours travelling at a speed of
80 kmph. How far away from Delhi will the two
trains meet (stoppages excluded)?
(a) 500 kms (b) 480 kms
(c) 360 kms (d) 240 kms
53. Fill in the dice given below by replacing alphabets
in place of question marks.
(a) L N (b) C F
(c) E O (d) M G
54. Supply the missing number (?)
48, 24, 72, 36, 108, (?)
(a) 115 (b) 216
(c) 121 (d) 54
55. Which number will occur in the place of question
mark (?) ?
235 (648) 413; 809 (1321) 512, 136 (?) 325
(a) 461 (b) 462
(c) 358 (d) 432
56. Keshav knows that Kapil's marks are more than
3 but less than 8 in a unit test. Mangal knows
that these are more than 6 but less than 10. If
both of them are correct, which of the following
statements about Kapil's marks in definitely true?
(a) It has either of two values
(b) It has any of three values
(c) It has only one value
(d) It has any of four values
57. If South-East becomes North and North-East becomes
West and all the rest directions are
changed in the same manner, what will be the
direction for the West?
(a) North-East (b) South
(c) South-East (d) South-West
58. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Seeds should be treated with fungicide
before sowing.
Reason (R): Without treating with fungicides,
the seeds to not germinate.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) correctly
explains (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not
correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
59. Consider the following statements:
Statement: Students are influenced more by their
teachers.
Conclusions:
(1) Students are influenced by intellectuality.
(2) Students consider their teachers as their role
models.
(3) Much time of students is spent at school.
Of these conclusions:
(a) Only (1) is implicit in the statement.
(b) (1) and (2) are implicit in the statement.
(c) (1) and (3) are implicit in the statement.
(d) (1), (2) and (3) are implicit in the statement.
60. Find out the odd item.
(a) Pensive (b) Truthful
(c) Sly (d) Virtuous
61. Among five friends A is heavier than B, C is
lighter than D, B is lighter than D but heavier
than E. Who among the following is the heaviest?
(a) B (b) C
(c) A (d) E
62. Analyze the following statement and choose
your correct answer from the given options:
"Conservatives are seldom intolerant."
(a) Whoever is conservative is intolerant.
(b) May conservatives are intolerant.
(c) Quite a few conservatives are tolerant.
(d) All conservatives are intolerant.
Directions regarding questions 63 and 64 :
The pie charts below show the breakup of the
Total Revenue and Total Sales Volume for a
company for one year ending 31st March.
Total Revenue = _ 11,39,200 millions
Total Sales Volumes = 653610 units
Based on the data provided in both the figures
answer the two questions that follow:
63. What is the approximate net revenue per Esteem
sold?
(a) _ 13,26,000 (b) _ 13,48,000
(c) _ 14,36,000 (d) _ 14,81,000
64. If the volume of sales of Omni was increased by
25% and this sales increase was entirely at the
cost of M800, then what is the percentage decrease
in M800 sales?
(a) 4.8% (b) 4.75%
(c) 4.3% (d) 4.25%
Directions for the following three questions (Q.
65 to 67) :
Read the passage and answer the questions that
follow. Your answers to these questions should
be based on the passage only.
Like many people I was convinced that the broad
range of health benefits that physical activity
offers including weight loss, lower blood pressure
and cholesterol levels and hardier immune
system. So three times a week I sweated on a
treadmill and exercise bicycle at my local gym.
At the end of two months, I was trimmer, more
energetic, and felt fitter. If I could accomplish
this by working three times a week, I reasoned,
the more exercise should bring me even greater
benefits.
In the next six months, I included an hour long
running six times a week and initially felt an
improved fitness level. However, soon I was
plagued by muscular soreness and aching knees.
I felt fatigued rather than fresher after a work
out. What is more? I found myself suffering from
frequent colds. Wasn't the exercise meant to
protect me from all this?
Exercise only up to a point. A prescription of
exercise does not mean running to the point
of lameness or swimming endless laps until
your arms cramp. So, forget 'no pain, no gain'.
The key to maximizing the benefits of exercise
is a safe and sensible programme. Choose exercises
that are safe and enjoyable and will
stay with you a life time. The initial enthusiasm
of high impact exercises gives way to
diminishing enjoyment.
65. To get maximum benefits of exercise one must
(a) follow a rigid fitness routine
(b) do high impact exercises
(c) exercise infrequently
(d) follow a guided exercise schedule
66. 'Work out' in this passage means
(a) a cessation of physical exercise
(b) to work outdoors
(c) a session of physical exercise
(d) anything that works eventually
67. One feels fatigued because of
(a) over-exercising
(b) long working hours
(c) poor diet
(d) lack of exercise
68. Give the correct meaning of the word 'osmosis'.
(a) Burning off of impurities
(b) Movement of underground water in an
oasis
(c) Movement of liquid through a membrane
(d) Lowering of the freezing point
69. Transform the following sentence without a
change of meaning.
"Besides being poor he is in debt"
Choose your answer from the following:
(a) He is poor inspite of his debt
(b) He is poor so he is in debt
(c) He is poor yet he is in debt
(d) He is poor as well as in debt
70. Which one of the following is the correct active
voice of the sentence given below ?
"Wasn't the rebuked by his officer ?"
(a) His officer rebuked him.
(b) Did his officer rebuke him ?
(c) Didn't his officer rebuke him ?
(d) Was not his officer rebuke him ?
71. Which of the following is the correct indirect
form of the sentence given below ?
I said to you, "You can see my shop tomorrow".
(a) I told you that you could see my shop next
day.
(b) I told you to see my shop tomorrow.
(c) I told you that you could see my shop next
day.
(d) I said to you that you could see my shop
tomorrow.
72. Which one of the following is the correct transformation
of the sentence given below without
a change of meaning ?
"None but a fool would say this"
(a) A foolish person would say this.
(b) Only a fool would say this.
(c) None despite a fool would say this.
(d) Neither except a fool would say this.
73. Fill in the blanks in the following sentence and
choose your answer from the option given below
the sentence :
"John got … the examination."
(a) up (b) at
(c) down (d) through
74. Choose the correctly spelt world.
(a) embarrass (b) emarass
(c) embarras (d) embarrass
75. Which of the following would you associate
with the world "gregarious" correctly ?
(a) A little tipsy (b) Egocentric
(c) Fond of company (d) Markedly rude
76. The phrase "Palmy days" means
(a) Old days (b) Middle ages
(c) Bad days (d) Prosperous days
1. d
2. a
3. d
4. a
5. d
6. c
7. b
8. a
9. b
10. c
11. c
12. b
13. d
14. c
15. c
16. b
17. b
18. b
19. d
20. a
21. d
22. d
23. b
24. c
25. d
26. a
27. c
28. b
29. d
30. c
31. a
32.
33. a
34. d
35. a
36. c
37. a
38. d
39. b
40. d
41. b
42. c
43. a
44. d
45. c
46. d
47. c
48. a
49. c
50. d
51. a
52. b
53. c
54. d
55. a
56. c
57. c
58. d
59. b
60. a
61. c
62. c
63. d
64. b
65. d
66. c
67. a
68. c
69. d
70. c
71. b
72. b
73. d
74. a
75. c
76. a
Reply With Quote Quick reply to this message
Reply

Similar Threads
Thread Thread Starter Forum Replies Last Post
BARC Previous Question Papers for EEE Unregistered Main Forum 1 30th March 2016 11:14 AM
Previous Question Papers of PTU Unregistered Main Forum 1 26th December 2015 11:11 AM
TNUSRB Previous Question Papers Unregistered Main Forum 1 25th December 2015 03:53 PM
HP CMAT Previous Question Papers Unregistered Main Forum 1 18th August 2015 11:36 AM
Previous Question Papers of SSC Unregistered Main Forum 1 5th August 2015 01:54 PM
SSC Previous Question Papers Unregistered Main Forum 0 30th May 2015 02:29 PM
IAF Previous Question Papers Unregistered Main Forum 0 23rd May 2015 12:00 PM
GRE Question Papers Previous Unregistered Main Forum 3 22nd May 2015 11:37 AM
Previous Question Papers Of UGC NET Unregistered Main Forum 0 8th May 2015 04:53 PM
Dce Previous Question Papers Unregistered Main Forum 0 8th May 2015 04:29 PM
EIL Exam Previous Question Papers Unregistered Main Forum 1 14th August 2014 05:33 PM
IIT JEE Previous Solved Question Papers Unregistered Main Forum 1 1st August 2014 11:58 AM
VTU Previous Year Question Papers 7th SEM EEE ketanner Main Forum 2 6th November 2013 11:10 AM
RRB Previous Question Papers Je kapilsac9 Main Forum 1 8th February 2013 12:48 PM
IIT JAM Previous Question Papers yash mehortraqe Main Forum 1 31st January 2013 05:56 PM
Previous Question Papers of VTU 7th SEM mridul sahu Main Forum 2 22nd January 2013 10:53 AM
Previous Question Papers prajwal aditya deva.6 Main Forum 1 29th September 2012 12:31 PM
JNTU Previous Papers Question Papers Kakinada N.SAMPATH Main Forum 1 11th July 2012 12:53 PM


Quick Reply
Your Username: Click here to log in

Message:
Options

Thread Tools Search this Thread



All times are GMT +5.5. The time now is 11:59 AM.


Powered by vBulletin® Version 3.8.8
Copyright ©2000 - 2017, vBulletin Solutions, Inc.
SEO by vBSEO 3.6.0 PL2

1 2 3