Union Bank PO exam question paper

Hi I want the question paper of Union Bank PO exam so can you provide me?

[Quick Sam]

Ok, as you want the question paper of Union Bank PO exam so here I am providing you

Union Bank PO exam Aptitude Solved Question Paper

1. A certain type of mixture is prepared by mixing brand A at Rs.9 a kg.
with brand B at Rs.4 a kg. If the mixture is worth Rs.7 a kg., how many
kgs. of brand A are needed to make 40kgs. of the mixture?
Ans. Brand A needed is 24kgs.

2. A wizard named Nepo says “I am only three times my son’s age. My
father is 40 years more than twice my age. Together the three of us are
a mere 1240 years old.” How old is Nepo?
Ans. 360 years old.

3. One dog tells the other that there are two dogs in front of me. The
other one also shouts that he too had two behind him. How many are they?
Ans. Three.

4. A man ate 100 bananas in five days, each day eating 6 more than the
previous day. How many bananas did he eat on the first day?
Ans. Eight.

5. If it takes five minutes to boil one egg, how long will it take to
boil four eggs?
Ans. Five minutes.

6. Three containers A, B and C have volumes a, b, and c respectively; and
container A is full of water while the other two are empty. If from
container A water is poured into container B which becomes 1/3 full, and
into container C which becomes 1/2 full, how much water is left in
container A?

7. ABCE is an isosceles trapezoid and ACDE is a rectangle. AB = 10 and EC
= 20. What is the length of AE?
Ans. AE = 10.

8. In the given figure, PA and PB are tangents to the circle at A and B
respectively and the chord BC is parallel to tangent PA. If AC = 6 cm,
and length of the tangent AP is 9 cm, then what is the length of the
chord BC?
Ans. BC = 4 cm.

9 Three cards are drawn at random from an ordinary pack of cards. Find
the probability that they will consist of a king, a queen and an ace.
Ans. 64/2210.

10. A number of cats got together and decided to kill between them 999919
mice. Every cat killed an equal number of mice. Each cat killed more mice
than there were cats. How many cats do you think there were ?
Ans. 991.

11. If Log2 x – 5 Log x + 6 = 0, then what would the value / values of x
be?
Ans. x = e2 or e3.

12. The square of a two digit number is divided by half the number. After
36 is added to the quotient, this sum is then divided by 2. The digits of
the resulting number are the same as those in the original number, but they are in reverse order. The ten’s place of the original number is
equal to twice the difference between its digits. What is the number?
Ans. 46

13.Can you tender a one rupee note in such a manner that there shall be
total 50 coins but none of them would be 2 paise coins.?
Ans. 45 one paisa coins, 2 five paise coins, 2 ten paise coins, and 1
twenty-five paise coins.

14.A monkey starts climbing up a tree 20ft. tall. Each hour, it hops 3ft.
and slips back 2ft. How much time would it take the monkey to reach the
top?
Ans.18 hours.

15. What is the missing number in this series? 8 2 14 6 11 ? 14 6 18 12
Ans. 9

16. The minute hand of a clock overtakes the hour hand at intervals of 64
minutes of correct time. How much a day does the clock gain or lose?
Ans. 32 8/11 minutes.

17. Solve for x and y: 1/x – 1/y = 1/3, 1/x2 + 1/y2 = 5/9.
Ans. x = 3/2 or -3 and y = 3 or -3/2.

18. Daal is now being sold at Rs. 20 a kg. During last month its rate was
Rs. 16 per kg. By how much percent should a family reduce its consumption
so as to keep the expenditure fixed?
Ans. 20 %.

19. Find the least value of 3x + 4y if x2y3 = 6.
Ans. 10.

20. Can you find out what day of the week was January 12, 1979?
Ans. Friday.

21. A garrison of 3300 men has provisions for 32 days, when given at a
rate of 850 grams per head. At the end of 7 days a reinforcement arrives
and it was found that now the provisions will last 8 days less, when
given at the rate of 825 grams per head. How, many more men can it feed?
Ans. 1700 men.

22. From 5 different green balls, four different blue balls and three
different red balls, how many combinations of balls can be chosen taking
at least one green and one blue ball?
Ans. 3720.

23. Three pipes, A, B, & C are attached to a tank. A & B can fill it in
20 & 30 minutes respectively while C can empty it in 15 minutes. If A,
B & C are kept open successively for 1 minute each, how soon will the
tank be filled?
Ans. 167 minutes.

24. A person walking 5/6 of his usual rate is 40 minutes late. What is
his usual time?
Ans. 3 hours 20 minutes.

25. Mr. Shah decided to walk down the escalator of a tube station. He
found that if he walks down 26 steps, he requires 30 seconds to reach
the bottom. However, if he steps down 34 stairs he would only require 18
seconds to get to the bottom. If the time is measured from the moment the
top step begins to descend to the time he steps off the last step at
the bottom, find out the height of the stair way in steps?
Ans.46 steps.

Here I am looking for the previous year Question paper of Union Bank PO exam can you please provide me this?

[Kiran Chandar]

As you are looking for the Union Bank PO exam Question paper so here it is given below

General Awareness

1. The eleventh ‘five year plan’ of India is for the five years ranging from—
(1) 2009-2014
(2) 2008-2013
(3) 2007-2012
(4) 2006-2011
(5) None of these
2. DSCR indicates the ability of a company to—
(1) meet its current liabilities
(2) service its shareholders
(3) meet its long term debt obligations
(4) raise further capital
(5) None of these
3. Ah IPO is—
(1) initial price offered by a private limited company to its shareholders
(2) an offer by an unlisted company for sale of its shares for the time to the public
(3) used to increase the share capital of an unlisted company
(4) a book building process
(5) None of these
4. A decreasing current ratio indicates—
(1) a stable liquidity
(2) an increasing liquidity
(3) a strained liquidity
(4) satisfactory current solvency
(5) none of these
5. Private equity investors, invest in a company based mainly on—
(1) the age of the company
(2) the location of the company
(3) the activity undertaken by the company
(4) the credibility and the valuation of the company
(5) the existing profitability of the company
6. The synagogue is generally—
(1) an epic
(2) a religion
(3) Jewish House of Prayer
(4) the Parsi temple
(5) a palace
7. Deuce is a term used in—
(1) Polo
(2) lawn tennis
(3) badminton
(4) boxing
(5) volleyball
(1) a, b, c
(2) b, c, d
(3) a, b, e
(4) a, b, e
(5) b, c, e
8. ISI the intelligence agency of—
(1) United Kingdom
(2) Unites States of America
(3) Israel
(4) Pakistan
(5) India
9. Air Traffic Controller’s jobs involves—
(1) control of air traffic in and within vicinity of airport
(2) control of movement of air traffic between altitude, sectors and control centres
(3) following established procedures and policies for air traffic control
(4) control of commercial airline flights according to government regulations
(5) to authorize and regulate commercial airline flights
(1) (1), (2)
(2) (2), (3)
(3) (1), (2), (3), (4)
(4) (1), (2), (3), (4), (5)
(5) (3), (4), (5)
10. Animal assisted therapy is employed in—
(1) Operations
(2) ICU
(3) old age homes
(4) training animals
(5) natural healing


Quantitative Aptitude

1. 117 389 593 627 (?)
(1) 654
(2) 640
(3) 634
(4) 630
(5) None of these
2. 7 21 23 51 103 (?)
(1) 186
(2) 188
(3) 185
(4) 187
(5) None of these
3. 18 27 49 84 132 (?)
(1) 190
(2) 183
(3) 180
(4) 193
(5) None of these
4. 33 43 65 99 145 (?)
(1) 201
(2) 203
(3) 205
(4) 211
(5) None of these
5. 655 439 314 250 223 (?)
(1) 205
(2) 210
(3) 195
(4) 190
(5) None of these
6. Veena’s monthly income is equal to the cost of 34 kg of nuts. Cost of 10 kg of nuts is equal to the cost of 20 kgs of apples. If cost of 12 kg of apples is Rs. 1500/-. What is Veena’s annual salary? (At some places annual income and in some place monthly income is given)
(1) Rs. 1 lac 20 thousand
(2) Rs. 1 lac 2 thousand
(3) Rs. 2 lac 20 thousand
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
7. Rohit has some 50 paisa coins, some 2 rupees coins, some 1 rupee and some 5 rupee coins. The value of all of coins is Rs. 50/-. Number of 2 rupee coin is 5 more than the 5 rupee coins. 50 paisa coins are double in number than 1 rupee coin. Value of 50 paisa coins and 1 rupee coins is Rs. 28/-. How many 2 rupee coins does he have?
(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 7
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
8. Puneet scored 175 marks in a test and failed by 35 marks. If the passing percentage of the test is 35 percent, what are the maximum marks of the test?
(1) 650
(2) 700
(3) 750
(4) 600
(5) None of these
9. The length of a rectangle is twice the diameter of a circle. The circumference of the circle is equal to the area of a square of side 22 cm. What is the breadth of the rectangle if its perimeter is 668 cm?
(1) 24 cm
(2) 26 cm
(3) 52 cm
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
10. 4 girls can do a piece of work in 8 days, 3 boys can do the same piece of work in 9 days, 7 men do the same piece of work in 2 days and 5 women can do the same piece of work in 4 days. Who is least efficient?
(1) Boys
(2) Girls
(3) Women
(4) Men
(5) Boys and men both


Computer Knowledge

1. You can keep your personal files/folders in—
(1) My folder
(2) My Document
(3) My Files
(4) My Text
(5) None of these
2. The primary purpose of software is to turn data into—
(1) Wed sites
(2) information
(3) programs
(4) objects
(5) None of these
3. A directory within a directory is called—
(1) Mini Directory
(2) Junior Directory
(3) Part Directory
(4) Sub Directory
(5) None of these
4. A complier translates a program written in a high-level language into—
(1) Machine language
(2) An algorithm
(3) A debugged program
(4) Java
(5) None o these
5. When you turn on the computer, the boot routine will perform this test—
(1) RAM test
(2) disk drive test
(3) memory test
(4) power-on self-test
(5) None of these
6. A _______ is a unique name that you give to a file information—
(1) device letter
(2) folder
(3) filename
(4) filename extension
(5) None of these
7. Hardware includes ________.
(1) all devices used to input data into a computer
(2) sets of instructions that a computer runs or executes
(3) the computer and all the devices connected to it that used to input and output data
(4) all devices involved in processing information including the central processing unit, memory, and storage
(5) None of these
8. A _______ contains specific rules and words that express the logical steps of an algorithm.
(1) programming language
(2) syntax
(3) programming structure
(4) logic chart
(5) None of these
9. All the deleted files go to—
(1) Recycle Bin
(2) Task Bar
(3) Tool Bar
(4) My Computer
(5) None of these
10. The simultaneous processing of two or more programs by multiple processors is—
(1) multiprogramming
(2) multitasking
(3) time-sharing
(4) multiprocessing
(5) None of these

Will you please provide the Union Bank Of India, Probationary Officers entrance Exam Question Paper ?

[Quick Sam]

Here I am providing the list of few questions of Union Bank PO exam question paper which you are looking for .
Union Bank PO exam question paper
1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word GUARDIAN each of which has
as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the onethat does
not belong to that group ?
(A) 19
(B) 17
(C) 23
(D) 29
(E) 27
3. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters TEBI using each letter only once
in each word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
4. In a certain code LONG is written as 5123 and GEAR is written as 3748. How is LANE written in
that code ?
(A) 5427
(B) 5247
(C) 5847
(D) 5237
(E) None of these
5. ‘BD’ is related to ‘EG’ and ‘MO’ is related to ‘PR’ in the same way as ‘FH’ is related to ……….
(A) JM
(B) IL
(C) JL
(D) IK
(E) None of these
6. How many such digits are there in the number 58674139 each of which is as far away from the
beginning of the number as when the digits within the number are rearranged in descending order ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
7. In a certain code BREAKDOWN is written as BFSCJMVNC. How is ORGANISED written in that
code ?
(A) PSHBMCDRH
(B) BHSPMCDRH
(C) BHSPOCDRH
(D) BHSPNHRDC
(E) None of these
8. In a certain code language ‘pik da pa’ means ‘where are you’; ‘da na ja’ means ‘you may come’ and
‘na ka sa’ means ‘he may go’, which of the following means ‘come’ in that code language ?
(A) da
(B) ja
(C) na
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
9. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does
not belong to that group ?
(A) Copper
(B) Iron
(C) Aluminium
(D) Zinc
(E) Steel
10. What should come next in the following number series ?
9 8 9 8 7 9 8 7 6 9 8 7 6 5 9 8 7 6 5 4 9 8 7 6 5
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) 1
(E) None of these
11. Which of the following is the middle digit of the second highest among the following five
numbers ?
254 319 963 842 697
(A) 5
(B) 1
(C) 6
(D) 4
(E) 9
12. Meeta correctly remembers that her father’s birthday is after 8th July but before 12th July. Her
brother correctly remembers that their father’s birthday is after 10th July but before 15th July. On
which day of July was definitely their father’s birthday ?
(A) 10th
(B) 11th
(C) 10th or 11th
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
13. In a class of 50 students M is eighth from top. H is 20th from bottom. How many students are there
between M and H ?
(A) 22
(B) 23
(C) 24
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
14. Among A, B, C, D and F each scoring different marks in the annual examination, D scored less than
only F among them. B scored more than A and C but less than D. Who among them scored least marks
among them ?
(A) A
(B) C
(C) B
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does
not belong to that group ?
(A) B D F
(B) V X Z
(C) F I K
(D) M O Q
(E) L N P
Directions—(Q. 16-22) In each question below are three statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at
variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows
from the three statements disregarding commonly
known facts. Give answers :
(A) If only conclusion I follows.
(B) If only conclusion II follows.
(C) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(D) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(E) If both conclusions I and II follow.
16. Statements :
Some desks are tents.
Some tents are rivers.
All rivers are ponds.
Conclusions :
I. Some ponds are tents.
II. Some ponds are desks.
17. Statements :
All chair are pens.
Some pens are knives.
All knives are rats.
Conclusions :
I. Some rats are chairs.
II. Some rats are pens.
18. Statements :
Some forests are huts.
Some huts are walls.
Some walls are nets.
Conclusions :
I. Some nets are forests.
II. Some nets are huts.
19. Statements :
All tables are windows.
All windows are rooms.
All rooms are buses.
Conclusions :
I. Some buses are tables.
II. Some rooms are tables.
20. Statements :
Some trees are boxes.
All boxes are bricks.
All bricks are dogs.
Conclusions :
I. Some dogs are trees.
II. Some bricks are trees.
21. Statements :
All goats are flowers.
No flower is branch.
Some branches are roots.
Conclusions :
I. Some roots are goats.
II. No root is goat.
22. Statements :
All pots are rings.
All bangles are rings.
All rings are paints.
Conclusions :
I. Some paints are pots.
II. Some bangles are paints.
Directions—(Q. 23-29) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given
below—
B # A R 5 8 E % M F 4 J 1 U @ H 2 © 9 T I 6 * W 3 P # K 7 $ Y
23. Which of the following is the twelfth to the left of the twentieth from the left end of the above
arrangement ?
(A) %
(B) W
(C) $
(D) J
(E) None of these
24. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately
preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a symbol ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
25. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately
preceded by a letter and also immediately followed by a number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
26. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately
preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
27. If all the numbers in the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be the
eleventh from the right end ?
(A) U
(B) T
(C) F
(D) H
(E) None of these
28. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement each of which is either immediately
preceded by a symbol or immediately followed by a symbol or both ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
29. Four of the following are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement
and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) 1 @ 4
(B) © T H
(C) W P 6
(D) # 7 3
(E) 9 2 I
Directions (Q. 30–36)—In each question below is given a group of digits/symbols followed by four
combinations of letters lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to find out which of the combinations
correctly represents the group of digits/symbols based on the following letter coding system and mark
the letter of that combination as the answer. If none of the letter combinations correctly represents the
group of digits/ symbols, mark (E) i.e. ‘None of these’ as the answer.
Digit/Symbol :
4 % 3 9 $ 1 8 @ © 2 # 5 6 * 7 δ
Letter Code :
P M I T R Q J F H A E U N B G L
Conditions :
(i) If the first element in the group is a symbol and the last element is a digit, the codes are to be
interchanged.
(ii) If the first element in the group is a digit and the last element is a symbol both are to be coded as
the code for the digit.
(iii) If both the first and the last elements are even digits both are to be coded as ‘X’.
(iv) If both the first and the last elements are odd digits, both are to be coded as ‘Y’.
30. 4%@93*
(A) PMFTIB
(B) PMFTIP
(C) BMFTIB
(D) XMFTIX
(E) None of these
31. $1896©
(A) RQJTNH
(B) HQJTNR
(C) RQJTNR
(D) YQJTNY
(E) None of these
32. 2*#836
(A) YBEJIY
(B) ABEJIN
(C) NBEJIA
(D) XBEJIX
(E) None of these
33. 8732@9
(A) TGIAFJ
(B) YGIAFY
(C) JGIAFT
(D) XGIAFX
(E) None of these
34. 7#$%35
(A) GERMIU
(B) UERMIG
(C) GERMIG
(D) XERMIX
(E) None of these
35. 931%©δ
(A) TIQMHL
(B) LIQMHT
(C) LIQMHL
(D) TIQMHT
(E) None of these
36. 46*389
(A) PNBIJT
(B) XNBIJX
(C) TNBIJP
(D) PNBIJP
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 37–43) In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, %, $ and δ are used with the
following meanings illustrated.
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is greater than Q’.
‘P δ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is smaller than Q’.
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is either smaller than or equal to Q’.
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is either greater than or equal to Q’.
In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find out which of the two
conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true. Give answers :
(A) If only conclusion I is true.
(B) If only conclusion II is true.
(C) If either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
(D) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.
(E) If both conclusions I and II are true.
37. Statements : M @ J, J © R, R δ K
Conclusions : I. K δ J
II. K % J
38. Statements : N $ T, T δ H, N @ W
Conclusions : I. W % T
II. H © N
39. Statements : F @ R, R © V, V $ T
Conclusions : I. V % F
II. F @ T
40. Statements : W © D, D $ B, B @ H
Conclusions : I. H % D
II. W @ B
41. Statements : F δ T, T $ M, M © R
Conclusions : I. R $ F
II. M © F
42. Statements : H $ N, N % R, R @ J
Conclusions : I. R @ H
II. J % H
43. Statements : V % B, B $ D, D © E
Conclusions : I. E δ B
II. D @ V
Directions—(Q. 44–49) Study the following information and answer the questions given below—
M, N, P, R, T, W, F and H are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. P is third to the left of M and
second to the right of T. N is second to the right of P. R is second to the right of W who is second to the
right of M. F is not an immediate neighbour of P.
44. Who is to the immediate right of P ?
(A) H
(B) F
(C) R
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
45. Who is to the immediate right of H ?
(A) R
(B) F
(C) M
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
46. Who is to the immediate left of R?
(A) P
(B) H
(C) W
(D) T
(E) Data inadequate
47. Who is third to the right of H ?
(A) T
(B) W
(C) R
(D) F
(E) Data inadequate
48. Who is second to the right of F ?
(A) M
(B) R
(C) T
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
49. In which of the following is the first person sitting in between the second and the third person ?
(A) NHM
(B) PHN
(C) TRP
(D) TWF
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 50–55) In each of the following questions, two rows of numbers are given. The
resultant number in each row is to be worked out separately based on the following rules and the
questions below the rows of numbers are to be answered. The operations of numbers progress from the
left to the right.
Rules :
(i) If an odd number is followed by another composite odd number, they are to be added.
(ii) If an even number is followed by an odd number they are to be added.
(iii) If an even number is followed by a number which is the perfect square, the even number is to be
subtracted from the perfect square.
(iv) If an odd number is followed by a prime odd number, the first number is to be divided by the
second number.
(v) If an odd number is followed by an even number the second one is to be subtracted from the first
number.
50. 15 8 21
p 3 27
If ‘p’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 58
(B) 76
(C) 27
(D) 82
(E) None of these
51. 12 64 17
20 m 16
If ‘m’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 69
(B) 85
(C) 101
(D) 121
(E) None of these
52. 85 17 35
16 19 r
If ‘r’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 175
(B) – 5
(C) 75
(D) 210
(E) None of these
53. 24 15 3
d 6 15
If ‘d’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 37
(B) 8
(C) 22
(D) 29
(E) None of these
54. 28 49 15
h 3 12
If ‘h’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 13
(B) 15
(C) 19
(D) 27
(E) None of these
55. 36 15 3
12 3 n
If ‘n’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 15 / 17
(B) 32
(C) 12 / 17
(D) 36
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 56–60) Below in each question are given two statements I and II. These statements
may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of
these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of
the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements. Mark
answers :
(A) If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
(B) If statement II is the cause and statement I is effect.
(C) If both the statements I and II are independent causes.
(D) If both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
(E) If both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.
56. I. This year, the cut off percentage for admission to junior colleges have increased over the last
year.
II. This year performance of students in Xth final exam was considerably higher than the previous year.
57. I. The conditions of most of the national highways are very bad.
II. Govt. has now sanctioned a huge amount of money to maintain the national highways.
58. I. Many students of the local school have failed in English Language paper in the annual
examination.
II. Many students of the local school have failed in Mathematics paper in the annual examination.
59. I. Rain and thunder showers bashed the city during the past three days.
II. Many people stayed indoor during the past three days.
60. I. There has been a considerable increase in the sale of fat free food articles.
II. Now people have become more conscious about their health condition and food
habits.
Answers with Hints
1. (D)
2. (E) All the rest are prime numbers.
3. (B) B I T E
4. (A) 5. (D) 6. (C) 7. (B) 8. (B)
9. (E) All the rest are pure metals.
10. (B) 98 987 9876 98765 987654 98765 4
11. (D) 963, 8 4 2, 697, 319, 254
12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (D) 15. (C)
16. (A) 17. (B) 18. (D) 19. (E)
20. (E) 21. (C) 22. (A)
23. (A) 20th from the left end is T and 12th to the left of T is %.
24. (C) H 2 © and K 7 $
25. (A)
26. (B) M F 4
27. (D) After dropping all the numbers.
B # A R E % M F J U @ H © T I * W P # K $ Y
11th from the right end is H.
28. (D) # A, E % and U @
29. (E) 30. (B) 31. (A) 32. (D) 33. (C) 34. (E)
35. (D) 36. (A) 37. (C) 38. (E) 39. (A)
40. (D) 41. (B)
42. (A) 43. (B) 44. (A) 45. (E) 46. (D) 47. (D) 48. (C)
49. (A) 50. (A) 51. (E) 52. (B) 53. (C) 54. (D) 55. (A)
56. (D) 57. (A) 58. (E) 59. (A) 60. (B)