UGC Net Life Science Previous Question Papers

Hello… I am appearing for the UGC of the exam NET but I am facing the problem in understanding the science so please send me the previous year question paper which will help me in preparation please???

[Quick Sam]

As you are appearing for the Union Grant Commission exam for National Eligibility Test as you are asking for the previous paper question paper of science so the questions are posted below.


21. Which of the following bonds will be most difficult to break?
1. C–O
2. C–C
3. C–N
4. C–S
22. A solution of 1% (w/v) starch at pH 6.7 is digested by 15 µg of -amylase (mol wt
152,000). The rate of maltose (mol wt = 342) had a maximal initial velocity of 8.5 mg
formed per min. The turnover number is
1. 0.25 105 min–1.
2. 25 105 min–1.
3. 2.5 105 min–1.
4. 2.5 104 min–1.
23. The conformation of a nucleotide in DNA is affected by rotation about how many bonds?
1. 4
2. 6
3. 7
4. 3
24. Which of the following proteins acts as an energy transducer?
1. G-protein.
2. Bacteriorhodopsin.
3. Hemoglobin.
4. Heat shock protein.
25. Which of the following predicted property of lipid bilayers would result if the
phospholipids had only one hydrocarbon chain instead of two?
1. The bilayers formed would be much less fluid.
2. The diameter of the head group would be much larger than the acyl chain and would
tend to form micelles rather than bilayers.
3. the bilayers formed would be much more fluid.
4. the bilayers would be more permeable to small water-soluble molecules.
26. Which pump is responsible for initiating muscle contraction through depolarization of
muscle cell membrane?
1. Na+ pump.
2. K+ pump.
3. Ca2+ pump.
4. Mg2+ pump.
27. Which of the following statements is not true for transposable element system?
1. It consists of both autonomous and non-autonomous elements.
2. Dissociation elements are autonomous in nature.
3. Transposase is transcribed by the central region of autonomous elements.
4. Certain repeats in the genome remain fixed even after the element transposes out.
28. A set of virulence genes (vir genes), located in the Agrobacterium Ti-plasmid, is activated
by
1. octopine.
2. nopaline.
3. acetosyringone.
4. auxin.
29. When two mutants having the same phenotype were crossed, the progeny obtained showed
a wild-type phenotype. Thus the mutations are
1. non-allelic.
2. allelic.
3. segregating from each other.
4. independently assorting.
30. A conjugation experiment is carried out between F+ his+ leu+ thr+ pro+ bacteria and F– his–
leu– thr- pro- bacteria for a period of 25 minutes. At this time the mating is stopped, and the
genotypes of the recipient F– bacteria are determined. The results are shown below:
Genotype Number of colonies
his+ 0
leu+ 13
thr+ 26
pro+ 6
What is the probable order of these genes on the bacterial chromosome?
1. thr, leu, pro, his
2. pro,leu, thr and the position of his cannot be determined.
3. thr, leu, pro, and the position of his cannot be determined.
4. his, pro, leu, thr
31. Two varieties of maize averaging 48 and 72 inches in height, respectively, are crossed.
The F1 progeny is quite uniform averaging 60 inches in height. Of the 500 F2 plants, the
shortest 2 are 48 inches and the tallest 2 are 72 inches. What is the probable number of
polygenes involved in this trait?
1. Four.
2. Eight.
3. Sixteen.
4. Thirty two.
32. Repair of double strand breaks made during meiosis in the yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae
1. occurs mostly by non-homologous end joining.
2. occurs mostly using the sister chromatid as a template.
3. occurs mostly using the homologous chromosome as a template.
4. is associated with a high frequency of mutations.
33. Which of the following signaling molecules enters the cell to initiate its action?
1. Transferrin
2. Insulin
3. Glucagon
4. Thyroxine
34. The mode of action of the anticancer drug methotrexate is through its strong competitive
inhibition on
1. dihydrofolate reductase.
2. thymidine synthase.
3. thymidine kinase.
4. adenylate cyclase.
35. Which class of immunoglobulins will increase in case of a chronic infection?
1. IgA
2. IgG
3. IgM
4. IgE
36. When prospective neuroectoderm from an early amphibian gastrula is transplanted in the
prospective epidermal region of a recipient (early gastrula) embryo, the donor tissue will
give rise to
1. neural tube.
2. epidermis.
3. neural tube and notochord.
4. neural tube and epidermis.
37. Amphibian oocytes remain for years in the diplotene stage of meiotic prophase.
Resumption of meiosis is initiated by
1. gonodatropic hormone.
2. growth hormone.
3. oestrogen.
4. progesterone.
38. A group of six cells called 'equivalence group cells' divide to form the vulval structure in
Caenorhabditis elegans. They are called so because
1. they have similar fates during development of vulva.
2. all the six cells are competent to form vulva and can replace each other under various
experimental conditions.
3. they are all under the influence of the anchor cell, signals from which initiate
vulval development.
4. they interact with each other to form the vulval structure.
Previous year question paper questions.




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