Tips to prepare for Infosys written exam

Will you please give me some good Tips to prepare for Infosys written exam?? Also provide me the placement paper…………..

[Raman Vij]

Infosys written exam consists of two sections

Aptitude (30 questions 40 minutes)
English (40 questions 30 minutes)

Here are some tips for the exam:

Understand the entire syllabus
Use only standard books
Solve previous year questions paper
Get the Shakuntala Devi puzzles book and puzzles and teasers by George Sammers.

Previous Year Model Papers Of Infosys Placement

Infosys Latest Job Interview Placement Paper Pattern, October 2010
Company Name : Infosys
Type : Fresher, Job Interview

Recently I attend Infosys off campus interview in VNR Vjit College and I share my experience with you, So that it will helpful to those who are attending off campus interview.
The test contains two rounds:
1. Aptitude (30 questions 40 Minute)
2. Verbal (40 questions 35 Minute)
Time management play a important role for exam. Be fast while writing the exam if once written cleared then 90% over so prepare well, friends prepare CAT material.
Aptitude Sections:
1. One logical passage with 5 questions (5 Marks)
2. Odd man out (not number series they will give figures) (5Marks)
3. Data Sufficiency (Easy 5 Marks)
4. Data interpretation (pie chart or table or bar graph based on that information they will ask five questions practice) (5 Marks)
5. Puzzle (like Rama, Laksham, Krishna married Geeta, Sita, Radha respectively.................blah blah who married Sita. This type of question.easy)
6. Syllogism (cat id rat ..rat is mat ...blah blah.... options (a) ABH (b) CHA, I mean in this they will give six sentence and we have to find the three sentence which are related)
Verbal:
1. One small passage not very lengthy.(5 Marks)
2. Reading comprehension (2 passage which are too long pick the word from question and search for it in passage and try to attempt like so that it saves time attempt this section last) (10 Marks)
3. Sentence correction. (practice from TIME). A sentence is given. And the wrong part is underlined, four options are given, choose the correct one(10 Marks )
4. Sentence Completion (one blank sentence and four options are given choose the correct word which suits for that blank) (5 Marks)
5. Theme Detection (10 Marks)2nd round is hr this is just to check our communications skills and our confident so prepare well.


Infosys Latest Fresher Placement Paper (Aptitude & Technical), September 2010 | Bhopal
Company Name : Infosys
Type : Fresher
Infosys came to Oriental college , Bhopal for open placement. Around 2500-2700 students appeared for written exam.
Written exam had two sections:-
Reasoning and English usage. Math's was totally absent. Reasoning had questions related to pattern making, syllogism, data sufficiency, two puzzles.
More or less this part was the easiest and one can clear it easily.
Then came the English part. It was tough. There were two passages ( very long and tricky). Questions were not direct ( except one passage but in that too you can't tick answers directly.). You will have to read passages fully. There were around 10-12 questions on error finding. 7-8 fill ups (mostly prepositions).
As far as I know , English is the qualifying paper. You will have to clear this part otherwise they will not check reasoning section, so try to do this seriously. You must be very fast in English section as the time allotted is less, They announced that there was no negative marking but i have doubt so please tick answers carefully.
After 4 hours first list of 64 students came. And then 3 more lists came, each after 30-30 min. So in all 256 students cleared the written exam (huge screening). My name came in the second list. Interview was in the another building. They gave us a form to fill the details. There were 13 panels, each sitting in separate rooms.
HR were mostly around 50-60 years of age.

After 2 hours they called my name for the interview. HR was very very friendly. (although he let me wait outside coz he was eating lays ..maybe he was testing my patience).

As i entered inside, he asked me to sit down and tell him about myself. But in between he stopped me and started asking about my dad and his job for next 10-15 min. Each of my answers were his next questions. So it was more like a rapid fire round. Then he asked me about my hobbies, other activities, major project. It was like a psychological test.


A research lab in Chennai requires 100 mice and 75 sterilized cages for a certain set of laboratory experiments . To identify the mice, the lab has prepared labels with numbers 1 to 100 , by combining tags numbered 0 to 9. The SPCA requires that the tags be made of toxin-free material and that the temperature of the cages be maintained at 27 degree Celsius. Also , not more than 2 mice can be caged together and each cage must be at least 2 sq.ft in area. The 5 experiments to be conducted by lab are to be thoroughly documented and performed only after a round of approval by authorities. The approval procedure takes around 48 hours. How many times is the tag numbered '4' used by the lab in numbering these mice?
a) 9
b)19
c) 20
d) 21

There are two water tanks A and B, A is much smaller than B. While water fills at the rate of one litre every hour in A, it gets filled up like 10, 20, 40, 80, 160... in tank B.( At the end of first hour, B has 10 litres , second hour it has 20, and so on). If tank B is 1/32 filled after 21 hours, what is the total duration required to fill it completely?
a) 26 hrs
b) 25 hrs
c) 5 hrs
d) 27 hrs

Q17) Consider two tumblers, the first containing one litre of coffee. Suppose you take one spoon of water out of the first tumbler and pour it into the second tumbler. After moving you take one spoon of the mixture from the second tumbler and pour it back into the first tumbler . Which one of the following statement holds now?
a) There is less coffee in the first tumbler than water in the second tumbler.
b) There is more coffee in the firs tumbler than water in the second tumbler
c) There is as much coffee in the first tumbler as there is water in the second tumbler
d) None of the statements holds true.

Francois Pachet , a researcher at Sony Computer Science laboratories is also a jazz musician. He decided to build a robot able to improvise like a pro. Named Continuator, the robot can duet with a live musician in real- time. It listens to a musical phrase and then computes a complementary phrase with the same playing style. If the cost of making the robot is divided between and then computes a complementary phrase with the same playing style. If the cost of making the robot is divided between materials , labour and overheads in the ratio of 4:6:2.If the materials cost $108. the cost of the robot is
a) $270
b) $324
c) $216
d) $ 648

A lady has fine gloves and hats in her closet- 18 blue- 32 red and 25 yellow. The lights are out and it is totally dark inspite of the darkness. She can make out the difference between a hat and a glove. She takes out an item out of the closet only if she is sure that if it is a glove. How many gloves must she take out to make sure she has a pair of each colour?
a) 50
b) 8
c) 60
d) 42

A man jogs at 6 mph over a certain journey and walks over the same route at 4 mph. What is his average speed for the journey?
a) 4 mph
b) 5 mph
c) 2.4 mph
d) 4.8 mph

Spores of a fungus, called late blight, grow and spread infection rapidly. These pathogens were responsible for the Irish potato famine of the mid-19th century. These seem to have attacked the tomato crops in England this year. The tomato crops have reduced and the price of the crop has risen up . The price has already gone up to $45 a box from $27 a box a month ago. How much more would a vegetable vendor need to pay to buy 27 boxes this month over what he would have paid last month?
a) $27
b) $ 18
c) $45
d) $ 486

Given a collection of 36 points P in the plane and a point equidistant from all points in P, which of the following are necessarily true?
A. The points in P lie on a circle.
B. The distance between any pair of points in P is larger than the distance between X and a point in P

a) A and B
b) Neither A nor B
c) B only
d) A only

In the year 2002, Britain was reported to have had 4.3m closed – circuit television (CCTV) cameras – one for every 14 people in the country . This scrutiny is supposed to deter and detect crime. In one criminal case, the police interrogates two suspects . The ratio between the ages of the two suspects is 6:5 and the sum of their ages is 6:5 and the sum of their ages is 55 years. After how many years will the ratio be 8:7.?
a) 11
b) 6
c) 10
d) 5

Susan made a block with small cubes of 8 cubic cm volume to make a block 3 small cubes long, 9 small cubes wide and 5 small cubes deep. She realizes that she has used more small cubes than she really needed. She realized that she could have glued a fewer number of cubes together to lock like a block with same dimensions, if it were made hollow. What is the minimum number of cubes that she needs to make the block?
a) 114
b) 135
c) 21
d) 71

Alok and Bhanu play the following coins in a circle game. 99 coins are arranged in a circle with each coin touching two other coin. Two of the coins are special and the rest are ordinary. Alok starts and the players take turns removing an ordinary coin of their choice from the circle and bringing the other coins closer until they again form a (smaller) circle. The goal is to bring the special coins adjacent
to each other and the first player to do so wins the game. Initially the special coins are separated by two ordinary coins O1 and O2. Which of the following is true ?

a) In order to win, Alok should remove O1 on his first turn.
b) In order to win, Alok should remove one of the coins different from O1 and O2 on his first turn.
c) In order to win, Alok should remove O2 on his first turn.
d) Alok has no winning strategy.

would you plz let me know some Tips to prepare for infosys written exam to get good marks in this exam so will you plz let me know about the same here ??

[sumit]

As you want here I am telling some Tips to prepare for Infosys written exam for good marks:

Question Paper Structure

Online Test.( Duration 95 Minutes.)
Three Sections.
Sectional Cut-off applied, No Negative marking.
Sections are to be completed one by one, cant switch in between.
Auto saved once stipulated time is up for each section.
Can be switched into next section before stipulated time if the section is completed.
Attempt all Questions,Choose same answer option for unsolved/unknown questions.
Sections

Section 1 (Quantitative Ability) Mathematical Critical Thinking, 10 Questions 35 Minutes
Section II (Analytical Ability) Reasoning, 15 Questions 25 Minutes
Section III (Verbal Ability) English Communication, 40 Questions 35 Minutes
Section I (Quantitative Ability) To test Problem Solving and Analytical skills.

Time consuming, higher difficulty questions. Focus is more on Numbers and Advance concepts like Permutation and Combination, Probability.
Few questions from topics like Time and Work, Time Speed and Distance.
One or two Crypt arithmetic Questions.
Other less important topics are: Mensuration, Ration & Proportion, Percentage, Profit & Loss, Cube & Cuboid, Analytical Puzzles (like seating arrangement).
Section I: Strategy

50 % of questions need in depth understanding of the concept and hence difficult. Remaining 50% questions can be solved with sufficient practice.
Choose less time consuming 6 Questions and attempt with-in the first 15 minutes. Out of 6, 3 to 4 are very easy which can be solved in less than 5 Minutes.
Remaining 4 Questions can be solved in excess 20 Minutes. Expected Cut-off is 6 7 correct answers.
Key is to identify the 6 less time consuming questions.
Section II (Analytical Ability)

Key areas are:
Data Interpretation (Bar Graph,Table Chart, etc.)
Data Sufficiency,
Syllogism/ Logically Following Questions.
Other areas are:
Data Arrangement.
Visual Reasoning
Puzzles.
Section II: Strategy

Attempt Individual questions first, like questions from Syllogism, Data Sufficiency,Visual Reasoning and Puzzles. These questions doesnt have common data to be solved and each question might take a maximum of 2 minutes to solve and a majority can be solved in less than a minute.
9 such questions can be with-in first 15 Minutes.
Then attempt Data Interpretation, leave Data Arrangement to solve at last.
Expected Cut-off is 10 11 correct answers.
Section III (Verbal Ability)

Consists of two Reading Comprehension Questions (2*5 = 10 sub questions). The remaining 30 questions are from the following topics.
Sentence Correction/Sentence Improvement/Spot the Error (Approx 10 questions).
Sentence Completion Filler (underlined a part of sentence and asked to insert correct phrase in it from given 4 options) (Approx 7 questions).
Critical Reasoning/Theme Detection (Approx 6 questions).
Fill in the blanks covering Grammar, One word substitute, Preposition, Idioms/Phrases etc (Approx 7 questions).
Section III: Strategy

Attempt Sentence Correction or Error Spotting and Vocabulary first. Next go for Reading Comprehension.
If you get a short passage better attempt it at the end because the questions will be tougher
Attempt lengthy passage first.
Dont try to read and understand the passage completely.
You can comfortably attempt only the direct questions with-in 5 minutes and take a chance in the other type of questions since there is no negative marks.
Last type of question is Critical Reasoning and try to attempt such 5 to 6 questions with-in 10 Minutes.
Expected Cut-off is 20 correct answers.