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5th August 2015, 08:45 AM
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SNAP Practice Test Papers Pdf
Will you please provide here SNAP test sample question paper here for practice for preparation of examination ?
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#2
5th August 2015, 03:19 PM
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Re: SNAP Practice Test Papers Pdf
As you want I am here giving you SNAP test sample question paper. Sample paper : SNAP test sample question paper SECTION 1 Directions for questions 1 to 8: In each of the following questions, statements 1 to 6 are respectively the first and last sentences of a paragraph. Statements A ,B ,C and D come in between them. Rearrange A, B, C and D in such a manner that they make a coherent paragraph together with statements 1 and 6. Select the correct order from the given choices and mark its number as your answer. 1. 1. Women’s health status is basic to their advancement in all the fields of endeavour. A The fundamental issues concerning women and their health are nutrition, sanitation, overwork, etc. B. They face high risk of malnutrition, retardation in growth and development, etc. at almost every stage of their lives. C. The main reason of this decline in the sex ratio is high mortality rates among females in all age groups. D. This has resulted in the fact that in India, there are fewer women than men. 6. In girls, malnutrition, under nutrition and limited access to health care are seen as the main causes of mortality. (1) DCAB (2) BADC (3) ACDB (4) ABDC 2. 1. One obvious explanation of the striking continuity and independence of the Chinese civilization is the following. A It was also endowed with an even greater capacity to assimilate alien influence, probably because the tradition of civilization rested on different foundations in different countries. B. Islamic rule made more difference to India than to any dynasty’s rise or fall in China. C. China was remote, inaccessible to alien influence, far from sources of disturbance in other great civilizations. D. In India, the great stabilizers were rested on the foundation of religion and a caste system inseparable from it. 6. In China they rested on the culture of an administrative elite which survived dynasties and empires and kept China on the same course. (1) CABD (2) CDBA (3) CBAD (4) ABCD 3. 1. The ethnographic composition and history of the Himalayan regions of Kumaon, Garwal and Himachal Pradesh form a fascinating field of study. A. Besides, the indepth study of place names offers interesting insights. B. ‘Himachal’ has been explained as ‘the land of snow’. C. The author has endeavoured to trace the roots of the Himalayan culture and discuss the cultural components of the ancient inhabitants of that society. D. More than a dozen communities which have played an important part in the formation of history and culture of this region are studied in the book called “The Ancient Communities of India”. 6. Similarly, ‘Kumaon’ has been derived from the name of Kurmavana. (1) CADB (2) ACBD (3) DCBA (4) DCAB 4. 1. The study of social change, in the view of the nebulous nature of its History is a difficult task. A. This job becomes more difficult in the case of a society like India’s. B. In this form, change ceases to be viewed as a normal social process. C. This is because India has a fathomless historical depth and a plurality of traditions, but it is also engulfed in a movement of nationalistic aspirations under which concepts of change and modernization have ideological meanings. D. Instead, change becomes desirable in itself, and must be sought for. 6. This phenomenon of change is treated by some social scientists as equivalent to ‘development’ and ‘progress’. (1) ACBD (2) CABD (3) CBDA (4) BADC 5. 1. The system of the composition of the Legislative Council of a State as laid down in the Constitution is not final. A. But until the Parliament legislates on the matter, the composition be as given in the Constitution, which is as follows. B. The final power of providing the composition of this chamber of the state Legislature is given to the Union Parliament. C. The Council will be a partly elected and partly nominated body. D. The election of the members will be an indirect one and in accordance with the principle of proportional representation by a single transferable vote. 6. The members being drawn from various sources, the Council shall have a variegated composition. (1) DABC (2) CBDA (3) BACD (4) DCAB 6. 1. Green Revolution refers to a significant improvement in agricultural production in a short period and the sustenance of higher level of agricultural production over a fairly long period of time. A. This new strategy envisaged raising farm output through the use of High - Yielding Varieties (HYV) pr seeds, chemical fertilizers, implements and machinery, etc. B. It was sponsored by the Ford Foundation which was invited by the Government of India to suggest means to increase agricultural production. C. The necessity for such increase arose due to the continued stagnation of production and the rapidly increasing demands. D. This type of green revolution has occurred in India as a result of adopting the ‘new agricultural strategy’ in 1964-65. 6. As one of the results, the increase in the demand for some cereals has been met with to some extent. (1) BADC (2) DABC (3) CDBA (4) BCAD 7. 1. Economists differ over the causes that lead to inflationary rise in prices. A. Cost-Push inflation is caused by wage -push and profit -push to prices. B. There are the quantity theorists or monetarists who attribute inflation to demand pull or excess demand. C. Other economists ascribe inflation to cost-push factors. D. According to them, inflation is the result of excessive increase in money supply in the face of an elastic supply of goods and services. 6. The basic cause of wage-push inflation is the rise in money wages more rapidly than the productivity of labour. (1) ABCD (2) BDAC (3) CBAD (4) BDCA 8. 1. The first of the recent spate of conventions aiming to govern global industrial activity is the one to protect the ozone layer. A. India signed the Montreal Protocol on 17 September 1992. B. But China has, till recently, not signed the treaty, calling its provisions unfair and discriminatory. C. The convention, known as the Vienna Convention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer, 1985, was followed by the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer. D. It was signed in 1987 by the United States, the European Community and 22 other countries, including India. 6. Such an act came unexpectedly from China which is one of the most rapidly developing countries. (1) CDBA (2) CDAB (3) ABCD (4) CADB DIRECTIONS for questions 9 TO 14: A number of sentences are given below which, when properly sequenced , form a coherent paragraph. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the four choices given to construct a coherent paragraph. 9. A. By releasing an ultraviolet photon, the atom falls back to the original energy level. B. From this high energy level, the atom will almost always release an electron, whereby the energy of the ultraviolet photon is dissipated. C. In the absence of green light, when a strontium atom absorbs a photon of ultraviolet radiations, its energy increases by a discrete amount. D. But, ever so often, the high -energy atom will emit a photon of other ultraviolet or green light. (1) CBDA (2) CBAD (3) CADB (4) CABD 10. A. Frictions accruing from bilateral trade have been on the increase since the 1980s. B. Apart from the electronic problem, the automobile issue began to assume the character of a significant irritant. C. The protective policy followed by Japan has its adverse impact on trading partners, particularly the US. D. Japan in the 1970s continued to maintain an exceptionally high tariff even after lifting of quantitative restrictions on imports of automobiles. (1) DBCA (2) DBAC (3) BDCA (4) BDAC 11. A. Instead, one could always help in averting these situations. B. Often in a religion, people fight with each other on issues that are thoroughly irrational and illogical. C. If one used scientific reasoning and logic, examined facts and the basis. D. Much of the rising and blood shed in communal violence can be avoided if the people involved don’t blindly believe the rumours or get swayed by those who preached hatred. (1) CBAD (2) BDCA (3) DBCA (4) CADB 12. A. With the pressure on resources of development becoming increasingly severe, the issue of tapping the agricultural surplus cannot be put off. B. But the methods of utilizing these resources more efficiently have not been debated sufficiently C. The existence of a substantial surplus in this sector is not in doubt. D. There has been a tendency to concentrate on the possibilities of using an agricultural income tax to tap these resources. (1) ABCD (2) ACBD (3) CBDA (4) DCBA 13. A. And, at its best such programming represents a creative collaboration between the educational faculty and production teams. B. Tele-education or telecourses have been beamed in the United States since the early 1950s. C. Today, televised learning for the distant learner has come to use all the capabilities of the medium to bring a subject alive. D. The early programmes merely telecast the teacher at a black board, or used the simplest of visual aids. (1) BCDA (2) BDCA (3) DCBA (4) BDAC 14. A. Yet, paradoxically, there is greater mass discontent in nearly the whole of Latin America, the Caribbean, the Middle East and parts of Asia. B. Commodity prices have been at levels yielding much better terms of trade than they were before the war. C. Real income has risen faster than ever before, social services have improved. D. The decade and a half since the end of the war, has over-all been a good period for the underdeveloped countries. (1) CADB (2) DCBA (3) DBCA (4) CDBA DIRECTIONS for questions I5 to 19: Select the correct word/words from the choices that complete the given sentence as your answer. Please note that more than once choice may fit in to make synta ctically correct sentence but select the choice that is logical in the context of the sentence 15. An experienced politician, who knew better than to launch a campaign in troubled political waters, she intended to wait for a more____ occasion before she announced her plans. (1) propitious (2) provocative (3) questionable (4) perfect 16. The judge ruled that the evidence was inadmissible on the grounds that it was not___ to the issue at hand (1) useful (2) germane (3) manifest (4) inchoate 17. To seek ____ from the ____ summer of the plains many people prefer going to cooler climes during the summer months. (1) refuge ……. scalding (2) shelter………. boiling (3) respite…….. scorching (4) solace ………..blazing 18. The columnist was almost__________ when he mentioned his friends but he was unpleasant and even ____ when he discussed people who irritated him. (1) recalcitrant. . . sarcastic (2) reverential……..acrimonious (3) sensitive ….... remorseful (4) insipid ………… militant 19. Quick-breeding and immune to most pesticides, cockroaches are so _______ that even a professional exterminator may fail to_______ them. (1) Vulnerable……. Eradicate (2) widespread …….. discern (3) Fragile ……. destroy (4) hardy ……..eliminate Directions: for question 20-24: Each pair of CAPITALIZED words given below is followed by four pairs of words Choose the pair which exhibit the relationship similar to that expressed in the capitalized pair 20. ROTATE: GYRATE (1) Putrefy: Reject (2) Anachronism: Cubism (3) Accolade: Criticism (4) Absolve: Exonerate 21. TEPEE: RED INDIAN (1) Tree: Bark (2) Tent: Camping (3) Igloo: Eskimo (4) House: Man 22. WOOL: ACRYLIC (I) Minutes: Day (2) Cotton: Polyester (3) India: Assam (4) Nylon Rayon 23. COMMITMENT: GROW TH (1) Ingenuity: Invention (2) Gullibility: Experiment (3) Loquaciousness: Sobriety (4) Taciturnity: Silence 24. FISH: MERMAID (I) Unicom: Tapestry (2) Horse: Centaur (3) Pegasus: Fly (4) Cat: Lion SECTION 2 1. A person who has a certain amount with him goes to the market. He can buy 50 oranges or 40 mangoes. He retains 10% of the amount for taxi fare and buys 20 mangoes, and of the balance he purchases oranges. The number of oranges he can purchase is: (1) 36 (2) 40 (3) 15 (4) 20 2. Two-fifths of the voters promise to vote for P and the rest promise to vote for Q. Of these, on the last day, 15% of the voters went back on their promise to vote for P and 25% of voters went back of their promise to vote for Q, and P lost by 2 votes. Then the total number of voters is: (1) 100 (2) 110 (3) 90 (4) 95 3. Two positive integers differ by 4 and the sum of their reciprocals is 10/21. One of the numbers is: (1) 3 (2) 1 (3) 5 (4) 21 4. ABCD is a square of area 4, which is divided into four non -overlapping triangles as shown in the figure. The sum of the perimeters of the triangles is: A B C D (1) 8(2 + 2) (2) 8(1 + 2) (3) 4(1 + 2) (4) 4(2 + 2) 5. What is the va lue of m which satisfies 3m² - 21m + 30 < 0? (1) m < 2, or m > 5 (2) m > 2 (3) 2 < m < 5 (4) m < 5 6. The value of 2 45 45 55 2 55 3 45 3 55 is: (1) 100 (2) 105 (3) 125 (4) 75 7. PQRS is a square. SR is a tangent (at point S) to the circle with centre O and TR = OS. The ratio of the area of the circle to the area of the square is: (1) /3 (2) 11/7 (3) 3/ (4) 7/11 P S R T Q O 8. 56 - 1 is divisible by (1) 13 (2) 31 (3) 5 (4) None of these 9. The sides of a triangle are 5, 12 and 13 units respectively. A rectangle is constructed which is equal in area to the triangle and has a width of 10 units. Then the perimeter of the rectangle is (1) 30 (2) 26 (3) 13 (4) None of these 10. Which one of the following cannot be the ratio of angles in a right-angled triangle? (1) 1: 2 : 3 (2) 1 : 1 : 3 (3) 1 : 3 : 6 (4) None of these 11. Three bells chime at an interval of 18, 24 and 32 minutes respectively. At a certain time they begin to chime together. What length of time will elapse before they chime together again? (1) 2 hours 24 minutes (2) 4 hours 48 minutes (3) 1 hour 36 minutes (4) 5 hours 12. A, B, C and D are four towns, any three of which are non -collinear. The number of ways to construct three roads each joining a pair of towns so that the roads do not form a triangle is: (1) 7 (2) 8 (3) 9 (4) more than 9 13. For the product n(n + 1) (2n + 1), n N, which one of the following is necessarily false? (1) It is always even (2) Divisible by 3. (3) Always divisible by the sum of the square of first n natural numbers (4) Never divisible by 237. 14. Ram purchased a flat at Rs. 1 lakh and Prem purchased a plot of land worth Rs. 1.1 lakh. The respective annual rates at which the prices of the flat and the plot increased were 10% and 5%. After two years they exchanged their belongings and one paid the other the difference. Then: (1) Ram paid Rs. 275 to Prem (2) Ram paid Rs. 475 to Prem (3) Ram paid Rs. 2750 to Prem (4) Prem paid Rs. 475 to Ram 15. The remainder obtained when a prime number greater than 6 is divided by 6 is: (1) 1 or 3 (2) 1 or 5 (3) 3 or 5 (4) 4 or 5 16. In a race of 200 meters, A beats S by 20 meters and N by 40 metres. If S and N are running a race of 100 metres with exactly the same speed as before, then by how many metres will S beat N? (1) 11.11 metres (2) 10 metres (3) 12 metres (4) 25 metres 17. In the adjoining figure, AC + AB = 5 AD and AC - AD = 8. The area of the rectangle ABCD is: D C A B (1) 36 (2) 50 (3) 60 (4) cannot be answered. 18. The rate of inflation was 1000%. What will be the cost of an article, which costs 6 units of currency now, two years from now? (1) 666 (2) 660 (3) 720 (4) 726 19. Boxes numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 are kept in a row, and they are to be filled with either a red or a blue ball, such that no two adjacent boxes can be filled with blue balls. How many different arrangements are possible, given that all balls of a given colour are exactly identical in all respects? (1) 8 (2) 10 (3) 15 (4) 22 Directions Q. 20 to 21: are based on the following information: There are three different cable channels namely Ahead, Luck and Bang. In a survey it was found that 85% of viewers respond to Bang, 20% to Luck, and 30% to Ahead. 20% of viewers respond to exactly two channels and 5% to none. 20. What percentage of the viewers responded to all three? (1) 10 (2) 12 (3) 14 (4) None of these 21. Assuming 20% respond to Ahead and Bang, and 16% respond to Bang and Luck, what is the percentage of viewers who watch only Luck? (1) 20 (2) 10 (3) 16 (4) None of these 22. One root of x² + kx - 8 = 0 is square of the other. Then, the value of k is: (1) 2 (2) 8 (3) - 8 (4) - 2 23. AB is diameter of the circle and the points C and D are on the circumference such that CAD = 300. What is the measure of ACD? D C 700 A B (1) 400 (2) 500 (3) 300 (4) 900 24. The length of a ladder is exactly equal to the height of the wall it is resting against. If lower end of the ladder is kept on a stool of height 3 m and the stool is kept 9 m away from the wall, the upper end of the ladder coincides with the top of the wall. Then, the height of the wall is: (1) 12 m (2) 15 m (3) 18 m (4) 11 m 25. The largest value of min (2 + x², 6 - 3x) when x > 0 is (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 26. A man invests Rs. 3000 at a rate of 5% per annum. How much more should he invest at a rate of 8%, so that he can earn a total of 6% per annum? (1) Rs. 1200 (2) Rs. 1300 (3) Rs. 1500 (4) Rs. 2000 27. Three consecutive positive even numbers are such that thrice the first number exceeds double the third by 2; then the third number is: (1) 10 (2) 14 (3) 16 (4) 12 Directions Q. 28 to 31: use the following data: A and B are running along a circular course of radius 7 km in opposite directions such that when they meet they reverse their directions and when they meet, A will run at the speed of B and vice-versa. Initially, the speed of A is thrice the speed of B. Assume that they start from M0 and they first meet at M1, then at M2, next at M3, and finally at M4. 28. What is the shortest distance between M1 and M2? (1) 11 km (2) 72 km (3) 7 km (4) 14 km 29. What is the shortest distance between M1, and M3 among the course? (1) 22 km (2) 142 km (3) 222 km (4) 14 km 30. Which is the point that coincides with M0? (1) M1 (2) M2 (3) M3 (4) M4 Here is the attachment. |
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