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2nd December 2014, 01:32 PM
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Railway Recruitment Board Pharmacist Exam Papers

I am looking for last years question papers of pharmacist exam for Railway Recruitment Board so please provide me the same for preparation?
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  #2  
2nd December 2014, 02:49 PM
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Join Date: Apr 2013
Re: Railway Recruitment Board Pharmacist Exam Papers

Here I am providing you last years question papers of pharmacist exam for Railway Recruitment Board.
Recruitment Board Pharmacist Exam Paper 1
1. Mode of transmission of Pertussis:
(a) Vector transmission (b) Through contaminated water
(c) Droplet infection (d) Faecoaral
2. Time required to measure the Mantaux test:
(a) 24 to 48 hrs (b) 48 to72 hrs (c) 10 to12 hrs (d) 2 to 4 hrs
3. Name of the oral Polio Vaccine:
(a) BCG (b) TAB (c) Salk (d) Sabin
4. The following are the standard tuberculosis drug except:
(a) Chloromycin (b) Streptomycin (c) INH (d) PAS
5. Combination of Tripple Antigen:
(a) DPT (b) BCG (c) TAB (d) ECG
6. The time interval between infection of suspected person and the
appearance of signs and symptom of the disease is called
(a) Quarrentine (b) Recovery period
(c) Incubation (d) Isolation period
7. Route of transmission of Hepatitis B:
(a) Oral (b) Potential (c) Faeco oral (d) Contaminated water
8. Mode of transmission of typhoid fever:
(a) Intravenous (b) Oro faceal (c) Respiratory (d) Droplet
9. Causative organism of diphtheria:
(a) Mycobacteria (b) Streptococcus
(c) Coryne Bacterium diphtheria (d) Staphylococcus
10. Incubation period of measles:
(a) 1-7 days (b) 7-14 days (c) 14-21 days (d) 21-28 days
11. Site for mantaux test:
(a) Outer and upper quadrant of gluteus maximus (b) Deltoid region
(c) Posterior left forearm (d) Anterior left forearm
12. Media of transmission of bovine type of tubercle bacilli:
(a) Milk (b) Water (c) Air (d) Food
13. Painful Micturition:
(a) Eneuresis (b) Dysuria (c) Rentention of urine (d) Diarrhoea
14. Amount of solution used for evacuant enema in adults:
(a) 100-250 ml (b) 250-350ml (c) 500-1000ml (d) 1000-1500 ml
15. Drugs used to relieve pain:
(a) Anti inflammatory (b) Antipyretics (c) Antibiotics (d) Analgesics
16. Hormone secreted by the testes:
(a) Oestrogen (b) Pitocin (c) Androgens (d) Progesterone
17. One teaspoon contains …………. ml
(a) 2ml (b) 5ml (c) 10ml (d) 15ml
18. One ml contains ……….. drops
(a) 5 drops (b) 10 drops (c) 15 drops (d) 20 drops
19. Average weight of a new born baby:
(a) 2 kg (b) 4 Kg (c) 3kg (d) 5kg
20. How much salt must be added to one litre of water to make a solution of normal saline?
(a) 2 grams (b) 5 grams (c) 6 grams (d) 9 grams
21. Number of vertebra in the sacrum:
(a) 5 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 1
22. Number of chromosome in a cell:
16
(a) 23 (b) 44 (c) 46 (d) 40
23. A trial septal defect occurs due to the persistence of:
(a) Formen ovale (b) Ductus arteriosis (c) Ductus venosus (d) Mitral valve
24. ………. is a water soluble vitamin:
(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin K (c) Vitamin B (d) Vitamin D
25. Quickening means:
(a) Hearing of the fetal heart sound (b) Sudden cessation of Menstruation
(c) The movement of the feuts in the uterus felt by the mother (d) Nausa and vomiting in the morning
26. Cholera is caused by a kind of bacterium called:
(a) Tubercle bacillus (b) Vibrio cholerae (c) Protozoa (d) Entamoeba histolytica
27. Drinking of alcohol will severely effects the
(a) Kidney (b) Brain (c) Stomach (d) Liver
28. The disease in which the patients blood does not clot easily is:
(a) Sickle cell anaemia (b) Haemophilia (c) Rabies (d) Diabetes
29. Discolouration of teeth is caused by a kind of antibiotics called
(a) Streptomycin (b) Neomycin (c) Tetracycline (d) Penicillin
30. ……….. is caused by the fungus
(a) Malaria (b) Athletes foot (c) Filariasis (d) Typhus fever
31. The Filariasis is transmitted by ……..
(a) Anopheles female mosquito (b) Anopheles male mosquito (c) Culex female mosquito (d) Culex male
mosquito
32. The blood group contain no antibodies:
(a) A (b) B (c) O (d) AB
33. The disease that spread through sexual contact is ……….
(a) Leprosy (b) AIDS (c) Itches (d) Scabies
34. Typhoid is transmitted through –
(a) Water and food (b) Air (c) Touch (d) Personal contact
35. ………… is example for the disease caused by bacteria:
(a) Cold (b) Typhoid (c) Typhus fever (d) Chicken pox
36. ……… is the immunity get by the body after the first attack of disease.
(a) Natural immunity (b) Passive immunity (c) Artificial immunity (d) Acquired immunity
37. The cells that are responsible for the production of antibodies are …….
(a) Red blood cells (b) Platelets (c) Plasma (d) White blood cells
38. A healthy person can donate blood …… or ….. times a year.
(a) Six or seven (b) Five or six (c) Three or four (d) Two or three
39. Radio active cobalt and radium are used for the treatment of –diseases.
(a) Cholera (b) Haemophilia (c) Cancer (d) Sickle cell anaemia
40. World health day is on …….
(a) May 12th (b) April 7th (c) April 30th (d) December 18th
41. To relieve from dyspnoea the appropriate position to be used is:
(a) Prone position (b) Supine position (c) Side lying position (d) Fowler’s position
42. Protein requirement for a pregnant woman per day:
(a) 50grams (b) 55 grams (c) 60 grams (d) 65 grams
43. The findus is at the level of umbilicus during ………. week pregnancy
(a) 16 (b) 20 (c) 24 (d) 28
44. Total weight gain during pregnancy is
(a) 7-8 kg (b) 10-11 kg (c) 13-14 kg (d) 15-16 kg
45. The birth weight of the baby doubles at the age of
(a) 3 months (b) 6months (c) 9months (d) 12months
46. Infancy period is from
(a) Birth to one month (b) One month to 1 year (c) 1 years to 3 years (d) 3 years to 5 years
47. The following are the signs of dehydration except:
(a) Sunken tearless eyes (b) Loss of skin elasticity (c) Diuresis (d) depressed fintenelle
48. The following are the contests of ORS except:
(a) Sodium chloride (b) Sugar (c) Potassium Chloride (d) Calcium Carbonate
49. The most common from of malnutrition are the following except
(a) Beri-beri (b) Protein energy malnutrition (c) Marasmus (d) Kwashiorkor
17
50. The first course of oral pills should be stared on the ….. day of menstrual cycle.
(a) 2nd (b) 7th (c) 5th (d) 10th
51. The following are the natural method of contraception except:
(a) Foam tablet (b) Basal metabolic temperature (c) Rhythm method (d) Safe period
52. ……… is the permanent method of sterilization.
(a) MTP (b) Diaphragm (c) Tubectomy (d) D & C
53. The following organs are situated in the abdominal cavity except:
(a) Stomach (b) Oesophagus (c) liver (d) Spleen
54. The system of body which helps for the removal of waste matter from body:
(a) Digestive system (b) Endocrine system (c) Respiratory system (d) Excretory system
55. Total number of bones in human body:
(a) 306 (b) 206 (c) 106 (d) 406
56. Eruption of teeth starts at the age of ……. month
(a) 4 months (b) 6 months (c) 8 months (d) 10 months
57. The never, which carries messages from the brain and spinal cord muscles and glands:
(a) Motor nerve (b) Sensory nerve (c) Mixed nerve (d) Autonomic nerve
58. Speech centre is situated in:
(a) Perietal lobe (b) Frontal lobe (c) Occipital lobe (d) Temporal lobe
59. Largest gland in the body:
(a) Pituitary gland (b) Adrenal gland (c) Liver (d) Gall bladder
60. Head control of the infant occurs at the age of …… month
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 6
61. Peurparium is the period begins:
(a) As soon as the placenta is expelled and last for 6 to 8 weeks (b) As soon as the baby is expelled and last
for 6 to 8 weeks
(c) As soon as the membrane ruptures and last for 6 to 8 weeks (d) As soon as the placenta is expelled and
last for 10 to 12 weeks
62. When the umbilical cord lies in front of the presenting part and the membranes are intact it is known as:
(a) Cord prolapse (b) Cord presentation (c) Cord pulsation (d) Cord delivery
63. Starting of menstrual cycle is called:
(a) Ovulation (b) Menstruation (c) Menarche (d) Menopause
64. Normal blood urea level is:
(a) 40-60 mg% (b) 20-40 mg% (c) 10-20 mg% (d) 80-120 mg%
65. One gram of carbohydrate yields:
(a) 4 calories (b) 8 calories (c) 9 calories (d) 1 calorie
66. A method of making the victim to breath passively
(a) Artificial respiration (b) Spontaneous respiration (c) Deep breathing (d) Kusmal breathing
67. Minute, this walled blood vessels between the ends of the arteries and beginning of veins is called:
(a) Arteries (b) Veins (c) Capillaries (d) Alveoli
68. A waste gas produced by the body and exhaled through the lungs is:
(a) Carbon dioxide (b) Carbon monoxide (c) Nitrogen peroxide (d) Oxygen
69. A condition characterized by moving of bones out joint:
(a) Fracture (b) Sprain (c) Strain (d) Dislocation
70. A tube of muscular tissue carrying ingested food from the mouth to stomach:
(a) Oesophagus (b) Duodenum (c) Trachea (d) Pharynx
71. A red pigment in the blood cells which combines with oxygen and carbon dioxide for carrying them:
(a) Red blood cells (b) Haemoglobin (c) Platelet (d) Plasma
72. Information given by the sufferer about his illness:
(a) Sign (b) Symptom (c) Observation (d) Diagnosis
73. Normal respiratory rate in adults is:
(a) 20â€╕40/min (b) 40â€╕60/min (c) 16â€╕20/min (d) 10â€╕15/min
74. The normal body temperature is …….. 0C.
(a) 350C (b) 370C (c) 400C (d) 420C
75. Characteristic of the blood flow due to arterial bleeding is the following except:
(a) Bright red in colour (b) Spunts at each cartrachian of the heart
(c) Flow is pulsatile (d) Dark red in colour
76. An agent that has power to kill Micro-organism:
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(a) Bacteriostat (b) Bacteriocide (c) Antiseptic (d) Bacteriostasis
77. Strength of savlon forcleaning of wounds:
(a) 1:10 (b) 1:100 (c) 1:1000 (d) 1:10000
78. Inflammation of the tongue:
(a) Glossitis (b) Gingivitis (c) Stomatitis (d) Parotitis
79. Following are predisposing cause for bedsore except:
(a) Impaired circulation (b) Lowered vitality (c) Emaciation (d) Anorexia
80. Inability to sleep is termed as:
(a) Dyspepsia (b) Dyspnaea (c) Anorexia (d) Insumania
81. Tobacco contains a poisonous substance called
(a) Nicotine (b) Narcotics (c) Alcohol (d) Caffeine
82. A disease caused by allergic disease is called
(a) Asthma (b) Tuberculosis (c) Cancer (d) Gastroenteritis
83. An adult has …… litres of blood in his body.
(a) 7-8 (b) 5-6 (c) 9-10 (d) 2-3
84. Several persons in a town got the attack of leukemia. Which of the following can be possible reason for
that?
(a) Exposed to radiation (b) Drinking polluted water (c) Smoking (d) Breathing in impure air
85. The energy value of ……… is more than that of others
(a) Fats (b) Starch (c) Protein (d) Sugar
86. The product formed when amino acid molecules combine together is called
(a) Nucleic acid (b) Starch (c) Carbohydrate (d) Proteins
87. Women having normal limbs may sometimes give birth to babies with deformed limbs. This must be due
to:
(a) Spontaneous generation (b) Mutation (c) Inheritance of acquired character (d) Natural selection
88. Hormones are transported to all parts of the body through the
(a) Nerves (b) Blood (c) Lymph (d) Muscles
89. Deficiency of ……. in food causes simple goiter.
(a) Sodium (b) Iron (c) Iodine (d) Calcium
90. Cortisone is used as an effective anti-inflamatory drug in the treatment of ……….
(a) High blood pressure (b) Arteroisclerosis (c) Arthritis (d) Diabetes
91. Deficiency of thyroxin in adults leads to a condition called:
(a) Tetani (b) Cretinism (c) Myxoedema (d) Graves diseases
92. The hormone that is injected to pregnant women at the time of delivery is
(a) Vasopressin (b) Oxytocin (c) Androgen (d) Oestrogen
93. The outer layer of the eye ball is
(a) Sclera (b) Choroids (c) Retina (d) Conjunctiva
94. The smallest bone in the human body is
(a) Malleus (b) Incus (c) Stapes (d) Sternum
95. Central nervous system includes:
(a) The brain and cranial nerves (b) The cranial nerves and spinal cord
(c) The spinal nerves and brain (d) The spinal nerves and brain
96. Short sightedness can be corrected by using spectacles with ….. lens.
(a) Concave (b) Convex (c) Cylindrical (d) Opaque
97. Normal sugar level in our blood is:
(a) 95-125 mg/100ml (b) 65-130 mg/100ml (c) 80-120 mg/100ml (d) 90-140 mg/100 ml
98. Labour takes place after …… days of last menstrual period
(a) 300 (b) 280 (c) 365 (d) 240
99. Signs of true labour are the following except:
(a) Painful rhythmic uterine contraction (b) Dilatation of the OS
(c) Fetal movement (d) Show
100. Signs of separation of placenta are the following except:
(a) Lengthening of the cord at vulva (b) Gush of blood is seen
(c) Fundus risas upto umbilicus (d) Temperature rises
19
Answers
1 C 11 D 21 A 31 C 41 D 51 A 61 A 71 B 81 A 91 C
2 B 12 A 22 C 32 D 42 B 52 C 62 B 72 B 82 A 92 B
3 D 13 B 23 A 33 B 43 C 53 B 63 C 73 C 83 B 93 D
4 A 14 C 24 C 34 A 44 C 54 D 64 B 74 B 84 A 94 C
5 A 15 D 25 C 35 B 45 B 55 B 65 A 75 D 85 A 95 C
6 C 16 C 26 B 36 D 46 B 56 B 66 A 76 B 86 D 96 A
7 B 17 B 27 D 37 D 47 C 57 A 67 C 77 A 87 B 97 C
8 B 18 C 28 B 38 C 48 D 58 A 68 A 78 A 88 B 98 B
9 C 19 C 29 C 39 C 49 A 59 C 69 D 79 D 89 C 99 C
10 B 20 D 30 B 40 B 50 C 60 C 70 A 80 D 90 C 100 D

Recruitment Board Pharmacist Exam Paper 2
1. For education of measles, immunization coverage should be at least
(a) 80% (b) 85% (c) 96% (d) 100%
2. Period of maximum infectivity in mumps is during
(a) incubation period (b) onset of swelling (c) after swelling appears (d)
prodromal period
3. Major epidemics of influenza A occur at intervals of
(a) 1 year (b) 2-3 years (c) 10-15 years (d) 20-25 years
4. The most common source of infection for diphtheria is a
(a) case (b) sub clinical case (c) carrier (d) all of the above
5. Shick test is done in
(a) meningitis (b) diphtheria (c) pertussis (d) polimyelitis
6. Adjuvant present in DPT vaccine is
(a) aluminium phosphate (b) aluminium hydroxide (c) zinc phosphate (d) magnesium
phosphate
7. Recommended site of administration of DPT in infants is
(a) gluteal (b) deltoid (c) lateral aspect of thigh (d) forearm
8. The most severe complications following DPT are due to …….. component
(a) diphtheria (b) pertussis (c) tetanus (d) adjuvant
9. The vaccine usually given to pilgrims to the Middle East is
(a) DPT (b) influenza (c) yellow fever (d) meningitis
10. Best index to estimate case load of T.B. in a community is
(a) incidence of infection (b) prevalence of infection (c) incidence of disease
(d) prevalence of disease
11. Prevalence of T.B. infection in a community is estimated by
(a) tuberculin test (b) sputum microscopy (c) culture (d) chest X-ray
12. The amount of PPD used in mantoux test in India is
(a) 1 TU (b) 5 TU (c) 25 TU (d) 250 TU
13. Result of mantoux test is read after
(a) 6 hours (b) 24 hours (c) 48 hours (d) 72 hours
14. Present day BCG vaccine is supplied as
(a) liquid vaccine (b) freeze dried vaccine (c) both (d) none of the above
15. The diluent used for reconstituting BCG vaccine is
(a) normal saline (b) distilled water (c) dextrose (d) none of the above
16. Reconstituted BCG vaccine should be used with in
RRB PARAMEDICAL EXAM HEALTH INSPECTOR
QUESTIONS
2
(a) 3 hours (b) 6 hours (c) 18 hours (d) 24 hours
17. The age for BCG vaccination is recommended at
(a) birth or at 6th week (b) only 6th week (c) 6-8 weeks (d) within 1 year
18. At the village level sputum for AFB is collected and fixed by
(a) anganwadi worker (b) village health guide (c) health worker male (d) health
worker female
19. Source of most polio infections are
(a) clinical cases (b) sub clinical cases (c) carrier (d) both (b)&(c)
20. Risk factors for development of paralytic polio include
(a) 1/M injections (b) Tonsillectomy (c) DPT (d) all of the above
21. Major route of transmission of Hepatitis A is
(a) Facco oral route (b) parentral route (c) sexual transmission (d) perinatal
transmission
22. Vaccine vial monitor is present on which of these vaccines
(a) BCG (b) DPT (c) OPV (d) Measles
23. Immunity after Hepatitis A lasts for
(a) 6 months (b) 1 year (c) 6 years (d) life long
24. Following methods destroy vibrio cholerae except
(a) boiling (b) drying (c) bleaching powder 1 mg/L (d) cresol
25. Best method of collecting choleric stools for diagnosis is by
(a) rectal catheter (b) rectal swab (c) disinfected stool (d) all of the above
26. All are vaccines included under the Universal Immunization Programme
except
(a) diphtheria (b) pertussis (c) measles (d) MMR
27. The MTP act was passed in the year
(a) 1975 (b) 1971 (c) 1986 (d) 2000
28. All are Anti Rabies vaccine currently used in Kerala except
(a) chick embryo cell vaccine (b) human diploid cell vaccine (c) vero cell
vaccine (d) neural tissue vaccine
29. Annual Parasitic incidence is used to measure the problem of
(a) Filariasis (b) Dengue fever (c) Malaria (d) Japanese encephalitis
30. The causative organism of plague is
(a) Y pestis (b) R. Prowazeki (c) Coryne bacterium (d) Arbovirus
31. Which of these is a Conventional Contraceptive
(a) Combined pill (b) IUD (c) Condom (d) Mini pill
32. Which of these insecticides is used as a space spray
(a) paris green (b) abate (c) pyrethrum (d) mineral oil
33. Chemical ideally used for disinfecting sputum is
(a) cresol (b) dettol (c) savlon (d) phenol
34. Census is carried out at regular intervals of
3
(a) 5 years (b) 10 years (c) 7 years (d) 15 years
35. Vaccine carrier should ideally have number of ice packs
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
36. The dose of elemental iron in Folifer tablet given to pregnant women
under the RCH programme is
(a) 60 mg (b) 80 mg (c) 50 mg (d) 100 mg
37. Sanitary latrine should be located at least …. feet from source of
contamination
(a) 15 (b) 25 (c) 50 (d) 75
38. For calculating Bacterial index in Leprosy a minimum of ….. sites
should be examined
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 9
39. Number of Tetanus toxoid doses to be given to an antenatal mother with
last child birth 2 years back is
(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d) none
40. As per the Birth and Deaths Registration Act all births are to be
registered with in a period of
(a) 7 days (b) 14 days (c) 21 days (d) 1 month
41. Dengue fever is transmitted by the bite of ……. mosquito
(a) anopheles (b) aedes (c) mansonia (d) culex
42. Route of administration of BCG vaccine is
(a) intramuscular (b) intradermal (c) subcutaneous (d) intrathecal
43. Pasteurisation of milk kills all organisms except
(a) Anthrax (b) M. Tuberculosis (c) Streptococcus (d) Brucella
44. Prevalence of hook worm infection in a community is assessed by
(a) pearl index (b) breteaux index (c) chandler index (d) none of the above
45. The level of iodisation of iodised salt at the consumer level as
specified under the IDD control programme is
(a) 40 ppm (b) 30 ppm (c) 15 ppm (d) 50 ppm
46. All are steps in Primary Prevention of diseases except
(a) promotion of healthy life styles (b) good nutrition (c) immunization (d)
treatment
47. Communicability of measles declines
(a) after onset of fever (b) during prodromal period (c) at the time of eruption
(d) after appearance of rash
48. After effective chlorination of water free residual chlorine should
not be less than
(a) 0.5 mg/L (b) 1 mg/L (c) 50 mg/L (d) 200 mg/L
49. All are side effects of oral contraceptives except
(a) hypertension (b) cervical cancer risk (c) gall bladder disease (d) iron
deficiency anameia
4
50. World AIDS day is observed on
(a) December 1st (b) January 31st (c) May 1st (d) October 1st
51. Highest source of vitamin A is seen in
(a) Cod liver oil (b) green leafy vegetables (c) papaya (d) carrot
52. Which is a live vaccine
(a) Hepatitis B vaccine (b) Hepatitis A vaccine (c) Oral polio vaccine (d) DPT
vaccine
53. Scurvy is a deficiency disease due to
(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin D (c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin B12
54. Number of sputum smears to be taken for confirmation of tuberculosis
under the Revised National Tuberculosis control
programme is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
55. The target population under the Universal Immunization Programme is
(a) infants and antenatal mothers (b) infants (c) under fives (d) under fives
and antenatal mothers
56. RCH programme was launched in the year
(a) 1997 (b) 1992 (c) 1990 (d) 1998
57. Additional energy requirement to be supplemented for a lactating
mother is
(a) 200 calories (b) 550 calories (c) 350 calories (d) 100 calories
58. Dental caries is caused due to deficiency of
(a) Iodine (b) Iron (c) Fluorine (d) Copper
59. Most ideal equipment for vaccine storage in a PHC is
(a) domestic refrigerator (b) ice lined refrigerator (c) cold box (d) vaccine
carrier
60. Village Health Guide is present in all these states except
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Bihar (c) Orissa (d) Kerala
61. Route of transmission of pneumonic plague is
(a) Vector (b) Droplet (c) Formite (d) Food
62. Most simple way of data presentation to a common man is
(a) Bar chart (b) Line diagram (c) Pictogram (d) Histogram
63. The best method for operation theatre disinfection is
(a) dettol (b) phenol (c) lysol (d) fromaldehyde
64. Primary schedule of hepatitis B immunization is
(a) 0,1,6 months (b) 1,3,6 months (c) 1,2,12 months (d) 0,1,5 years
65. The control of ….. has led to the eradication of guinea worm disease
(a) mosquito (b) rat flea (c) sand fly (d) cyclops
66. The confirmatory test for paralytic poliomyelitis is a
5
(a) stool examination (b) CSF examination (c) blood examination (d) nerve
examination
67. The drug given to peripheral health worker under the Actute
Respiratory infection Control Programme is
(a) Tetracycline (b) Cotrimoxazole (c) Doxy cycline (d) Chloroquine
68. The fitration technique in modern water treatment plant is
(a) slow sand filter (b) rapid sand filter (c) activated sludge process (d)
double pot method
69. World Health Day is observed every year on
(a) May 9th (b) July 11th (c) April 7th (d) July 1st
70. Health education technique most suited for introducing the correct use
of O.R.S. among Rural mothers is
(a) group discussion (b) flash card (c) demonstration (d) flannel graph
71. All are anti scabies preparations except
(a) BHC (b) permethrin (c) benzyl benzoate (d) malathion
72. All are tests used for bacteriological quality testing of drinking water
except
(a) multiple tube method (b) membrane filtration technique (c) colony count (d)
biological oxygen demand
73. During an epidemic of cholera, wells should be disinfected ideally
(a) Every day (b) 2 days (c) 3 days (d) 1 week
74. All are components of under five clinic except
(a) immunization (b) growth monitoring (c) oral rehydration (d) referral
treatment
75. All are true of prevention of Food Adulteration Act except
(a) prescribes minimum standards (b) is not mandatory
(c) punishment includes imprisonment (d) latest amendment was in the year 1986
76. Physical quality of life index includes all except
(a) infant mortality (b) life expectancy at age one (c) per capita GNP (d)
literacy
77. Incubation period is less than 3 days in all the following except
(a) influenza (b) cholera (c) mumps (d) staphylococcal food poisoning
78. The type of influenza virus causing epidemics every year is
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) Any one of the above
79. The incubation period of Rabies in men is determined by
(a) Site of bite (b) Severity of bite (c) Number of wounds (d) All of the above
80. Noso comial infection means
(a) infection of nose (b) hospital acquired infection (c) notifiable disease (d)
new disease
81. All of the following are mosquito borne diseases except
(a) Malaria (b) Filaria (c) Kysanur forest disease (d) Dengue fever
6
82. Which is not true of small pox
(a) No animal reservoir (b) No carrier stage (c) No sub-clinical infection (d)
No air borne transmission
83. ORS contains all except
(a) sodium chloride (b) potassium sulphate (c) trisodium citrate (d) glucose
84. The danger zone for bacterial growth in food is
(a) 10-49 degree C (b) 20-49 degree C (c) 10-60 degree C (d) 20-60 degree C
85. Aldehyde test is used for the diagnosis of
(a) Malaria (b) Kala Azar (c) Japanese encephalitis (d) Typhus fever
86. The period from disease initiation to disease detection in chronic
disease is called
(a) incubation period (b) serial interval (c) latent period (d) median period
87. Herd immunity does not protect an individual in
(a) Diphtheria (b) Poliomyelitis (c) Small pox (d) Tetanus
88. Vaccines which should not be frozen include
(a) Typhoid (b) DPT (c) TT (d) All of the above
89. ILR stands for
(a) Income Literacy Ratio (b) Illiteracy- Literacy Ratio
(c) Ice Lined Refrigerator (d) Infant Living Rate
90. Cold chain equipment used at out reach sites is
(a) cold box (b) vaccine carrier (c) ice pack (d) freezer
91. Most heat sensitive vaccine is
(a) BCG (b) Polio (c) Measles (d) DPT
92. Zero dose of polio vaccine means
(a) no vaccination (b) dose before first dose (c) no antibody response (d)
vaccination at mobile camps
93. Pasteurisation of milk is an example disinfection
(a) Pre current (b) Con current (c) Terminal (d) Absolute
94. Boiling for 5-10 minutes kills
(a) bacteria (b) spores (c) virus (d) none of the above
95. All of the following can be sterilized by Auto claving except
(a) gloves (b) culture media (c) plastics (d) linen
96. All are suitable for disinfection of faces and urine except
(a) 8% bleaching powder (b) 1% crude phenol (c) 5% cresol (d) 1-2% formalin
97. Ideally bed pans and urinals are sterilized using
(a) 1% cresol (b) bleaching powder (c) steam (d) all of the above
98. Sputum is best disposed by
(a) burning (b) boiling (c) 5% cresol (d) any of the above
99. Immunity conferred by an attack of small pox is for
7
(a) 10 years (b) 15 years (c) 20 years (d) life long
100. Which is not true regarding measles
(a) source of infection is a case (b) secondary attack rate is 80%
(c) carries do not occur (d) sub clinical measles not known
Answers:
1 B 11 A 21 A 31 C 41 B 51 A 61 B 71 D 81 C 91 B
2 A 12 A 22 B 32 C 42 A 52 C 62 C 72 D 82 C 92 B
3 D 13 C 23 A 33 A 43 B 53 C 63 D 73 A 83 B 93 A
4 B 14 B 24 D 34 B 44 C 54 C 64 A 74 D 84 C 94 D
5 A 15 A 25 A 35 D 45 C 55 C 65 D 75 B 85 B 95 C
6 C 16 B 26 C 36 C 46 D 56 B 66 A 76 D 86 A 96 D
7 C 17 A 27 B 37 D 47 D 57 B 67 B 77 C 87 B 97 B
8 D 18 A 28 C 38 C 48 A 58 C 68 A 78 B 88 D 98 C
9 C 19 C 29 A 39 C 49 A 59 B 69 C 79 D 89 C 99 D
10C 20 D 30 A 40 C 50 A 60 C 70 C 80 D 90 B 100B

Recruitment Board Pharmacist Exam Paper 3
1. A sub-center is meant to be there for every ……. population in Hilly areas
(a) 1000 (b) 3000 (c) 5000 (d) 10000
2 One primary health center should be there for every …….. rural
population in the plains
(a) 10000 (b) 20000 (c) 30000 (d) 40000
3 Hind Kusht Nivaran Sangh is a voluntary agency related to the disease:
(a) Tuberculosis (b) Leprosy (c) Malaria (d) Filaria
4 The colour of the center square in the vaccine vial monitor in a well
stored polio vaccine should be:
(a) White (b) Violet (c) Blue (d) Pink
5 The world Health Day is celebrated on
(a) March 1st (b) April 7th (c) July 1st (d) December 1st
6 GOBI campaign of the UNICEF includes all except:
(a) Growth monitoring (b) Observation (c) Breast feeding (d) Immunization
7 The international agency providing support for the National Blindness
Control Programme is:
(a) DANIDA (b) SIDA (c) USAID (d) CARE
8 Major symptoms of an AIDS patient is:
(a) Weight loss (b) Diarrhea (c) Fever (d) All of the above
9 The ideal weight for an adult person is calculated on the basis of his:
(a) Age (b) Height (c) Economic status (d) All of the above
10 Risk factors for developing coronary heart disease include:
(a) Smoking (b) Hypertension (c) Serum Cholesterol (d) All of the above
11 The salt intake per day should be kept to a limit of:
(a) 1 gm daily (b) 5 gm daily (c) 10 gm daily (d) 15 gm daily
12 A normal blood pressure is said to be about:
(a) 300 / 200 (b) 200 / 150 (c) 120 / 80 (d) 70 / 40
13 Pulse rate of babies is:
(a) More than adults (b) Less than adults (c) Same as adults (d) No fixed
pattern
14 Normal respiratory rates in adults is about:
(a) 5/ min (b) 10/min (c) 17/min (d) 27/min
15 Streptococcal throat infection can later lead to:
(a) Tuberculosis (b) Leprosy (c) Rheumatic heart Disease (d) Malaria
16 India’s population at present is about:
(a) Ten Thousand (b) One Million (c) One Billion (d) Ten Billion
9
17 While calculating birth rates the denominator used is:
(a) live births (b) mid-year population (c) census population (d) any of the
above
18 The objective of National population policy is to bring the total
fertility rates to replacement level by:
(a) 2005 (b) 2010 (c) 2015 (d) 2020
19 A woman is expected to attend the antenatal clinic at least ….. / month
during the first 7 months:
(a) one (b) twice (c) thrice (d) four times
20 On an average a normal healthy woman should gain about ….. kg of weight
during pregnancy
(a) 5 kg (b) 12 kg (c) 20 kg (d) 30 kg
21 An unimmunised mother should be given ….. doses of Tetanus toxoid
during pregnancy
(a) one (b) two (c) three (d) four
22 The extra amount of calories required during pregnancy is:
(a) 300 Kcal (b) 440 Kcal (c) 550 Kcal (d) 600 Kcal
23 At one year of age a baby should weigh around:
(a) 5 kg (b) 10 kg (c) 15 kg (d) 20 kg
24 As per Baby friendly hospital initiative breast feeding by the mother
after normal delivery should be started within:
(a) one hour (b) five hours (c) 10 hours (d) 24 hours
25 Under the ICDS programme the amount of protein provided for children
between 1-6yrs is:
(a) 5 gms (b) 10 gms (c) 15 gms (d) 20 gms
26 Father of medicine is:
(a) Hippocrates (b) Aesculapius (c) Susrutha (d) Thomas Syndenham
27 James Lind is related to the disease:
(a) small pox (b) scurvy (c) scabies (d) scoliosis
28 DPT vaccination is related to the disease:
(a) Polio (b) Measles (c) Pertussis (d) All of the above
29 Chicken pox is caused due to a:
(a) Virus (b) Bacteria (c) Fungus (d) Protozoa
30 Measles vaccine is given under the National Immunization Programme
(a) 1 month (b) 6 months (c) 9 months (d) 15 months
31 The classical triad of Rubella include:
(a) Cataract (b) Cardiac Malformation (c) Deafness (d) all of the above
32 BCG vaccination is given to protect against:
(a) Tuberculosis (b) Meningitis (c) Chicken pox (d) All of the above
33 Oral polio vaccine:
10
(a) Live vaccine (b) Killed vaccine (c) Freeze dried vaccine (d) Recombinant
vaccine
34 Hepatitis A virus is mainly transmitted through:
(a) facial-oral route (b) parental route (c) sexual transmission (d) blood
transmission
35 Rice water stools is seen in:
(a) Cholera (b) Typhoid (c) Salmonellosis (d) Botulism
36 DOTS is related to the disease:
(a) Leprosy (b) Tuberculosis (c) Hepatitis (d) Malaria
37 Ancylostomiasis is the other name for
(a) Hook worm (b) Round worm (c) Tape worm (d) Guinea worm
38 The worm infestation eliminated from India is:
(a) Hook worm (b) round worm (c) Tape worm (d) Guinea worm
39 Dengue fever is transmitted by:
(a) aedes (b) culex (c) anopheles (d) mansonia
40 Malaria is caused by:
(a) bacteria (b) protozoan (c) virus (d) fungus
41 The disease not present in India is
(a) dengue (b) yellow fever (c) Japanese encephalitis (d) kyasanur forest
disease
42 Leptospirosis is transmitted through:
(a) rat urine (b) rat bite (c) mosquito (d) dog bite
43 Beef tape worm is:
(a) Taenia saginata (b) Taenia solium (c) Echinococcus granulosis (d) Guenia
worm
44 Trachoma is a disease related to:
(a) eyes (b) ears (c) nose (d) throat
45 Leprosy should be treated for a minimum period of:
(a) life long (b) 20 yrs (c) 5 yrs (d) 6-12 months
46 Gonorrhea is a disease transmitted through
(a) food (b) needle prick (c) blood transfusion (d) sexually
47 Modifiable risk factors in case of hypertension include all except
(a) age (b) obesity (c) salt intake (d) alcohol intake
48 Rheumatic heart disease is related to the condition:
(a) throat infection (b) ear infection (c) eye infection (d) leg infection
49 Goiter is related to the gland:
(a) pancreas (b) thyroid (c) parotid (d) adrenals
50 Diabetes is caused due to deficiency of:
(a) insulin (b) ptyalin (c) thyroxin (d) glucagon
51 Most common cause of blindness in India is:
11
(a) cataract (b) glaucoma (c) refractive index (d) vitamin A deficiency
52 Barrier method of contraception is:
(a) condom (b) intraâ€â•oeuterine device (c) oral pills (d) injectables
53 One gram of protein will give …. Kcal/gm
(a) 4 (b) 9 (c) 12 (d) 15
54 The reference protein is:
(a) egg (b) milk (c) meat (d) fish
55 Limiting Amino acid in plus is:
(a) lysine (b) threonine (c) methionine (d) valine
56 The amount of protein required by an Indian adult is …… grm protein/kg
body wt.
(a) 0.5 (b) 1 (c) 5 (d) 10
57 Saturated fatty acids are all except
(a) lauric (b) palmitic (c) stearic (d) oleic
58 Deficiency of vitamin D causes
(a) rickets (b) scurvy (c) night blindness (d) all of the above
59 Pellagra is a deficiency disease caused due to the deficiency of
(a) riboflavin (b) thiamine (c) niacin (d) folate
60 Rich source of vitamin A is
(a) ripe papaya (b) ripe mango (c) green leafy vegetables (d) all of the above
61 The mineral that is associated with anemia is:
(a) calcium (b) iron (c) magnesium (d) sodium
62 Infections primarily of animals that can be transmitted through milk is
all except
(a) tuberculosis (b) brucellosis (c) Q fever (d) malaria
63 The addition of colouring agents to food is called
(a) food additives (b) food adulteration (c) food fortification (d) none of the
above
64 As per the Mid-day meal programme the meals should supply at least ……
of the total energy requirement
(a) 1/3rd (b)1/4th (c) ½ (d) 3/4th
65 The type of learning relating to skills is:
(a) cognitive (b) affective (c) psychomotor (d) all of the above
66 The average population of a village in India is estimated to be:
(a) 5000 (b) 2500 (c) 1500 (d) 550
67 The amount of bleaching powder required to disinfect 1000 liters of
water is
(a) 1.5 gms (b) 2.5 gms (c) 3.5 gms (d) 4.5 gms
68 Hardness of water can be caused due to
12
(a) chlorides (b) sulphates (c) nitrates (d) all of the above
69 Free and combined chlorine in water can be determined using:
(a) orthotoludine test (b) methylene blue test (c) phosphatase test (d) all
of the above
70 In a house window area should be at least …. of the floor area
(a) 1/20th (b) 1/10th (c) 1/5th (d) 1/2
71 Overcrowding is said to exist if …. no of persons over 9 yrs of age not
husband and wife, of opposite sexes are obliged to
sleep in the same room
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
72 The method of waste disposal in which waste is disposed along with
night soil is known as
(a) dumping (b) tipping (c) composting (d) incineration
73 The mosquito which lays its eggs on the leaves of certain aquatic
plants is
(a) aedes (b) anopheles (c) mansonia (d) culex
74 The tiger mosquito is
(a) anopheles (b) culex (c) aedes (d) mansonia
75 Biological control of mosquitoes is by using
(a) minerals oils (b) fishes (c) insecticides (d) all of the above
76 Lindane is a:
(a) DDT (b) BHC (c) malathion (d) fention
77 Zinc phosphide is an efficient
(a) rodenticide (b) insecticide (c) bactericide (d) disinfectant
78 Bird flu is caused by:
(a) virus (b) bacteria (c) fungus (d) protozoa
79 The normal human body contains
(a) 20 chromosomes (b) 25 chromosomes (c) 36 chromosomes (d) 46 chromosomes
80 Among the blood groups the blood group considered as the universal
donor is
(a) A group (b) B group (c) AB group (d) 0 group
81 The sex chromosome composition of XO is related to
(a) turners syndrome (b) klienfelters syndrome (c) super female (d) none of
the above
82 Erythroblastosis foetalis is a disease related to
(a) blood groups (b) red blood cells (c) white blood cells (d) platelets
83 Births and deaths should be registered with in
(a) 7 days (b) 14 days (c) 21 days (d) 30 days
84 The census is taken at intervals of
(a) 5 yrs (b) 10 yrs (c) 15 yrs (d) 20 yrs
13
85 The diseases notifiable to the WHO under the international Regulation
Act are all except
(a) cholera (b) plague (c) yellow fever (d) diphtheria
86 The best method to present data to the man on the street is:
(a) bar chart (b) pie chart (c) pictogram (d) frequency polygon
87 When a set of numbers is arranged in ascending or descending order and
the center number is taken it is called a:
(a) mean (b) median (c) mode (d) range
88 Socratic method of communication is
(a) one-way (b) two-way (c) verbal (d) non-verbal
89 The recommended illumination required for casual reading is
(a) 50 lux (b) 100 lux (c) 300 lux (d) none of the above
90 A daily exposure of …dB is about the limit people can tolerate without
substantial damage to bearing
(a) 35 (b) 55 (c) 65 (d) 85
91 The best method that can be used to teach mothers on how to use oral
rehydration solution is
(a) Lecture (b) Flash cards (c) Demonstration (d) Panel discussion
92 Message in a poster created for health education should be
(a) short (b) simple (c) direct (d) all of the above
93 Resource for health planning are:
(a) man power (b) money (c) material (d) all of the above
94 The committee that visualized the development of primary health center
is:
(a) Bhore Committee (b) Mukerji Committee (c) Chadah Committee (d) Shrivastav
Committee
95 Zila parishad is at the:
(a) Village level (b) Town level (c) Block level (d) District level
96 The drug used for tuberculosis include all except
(a) dapsone (b) rifampicin (c) ethambutol (d) isoniazid
97 Crude death rate in India as per the latest population statistics is:
(a) 25 (b) 20 (c) 15 (d) 8
98 Infant mortality rate in Kerala is about ….. / 1000 live births
(a) 67 (b) 50 (c) 25 (d) 14
99 Sex ratio in Kerala is …… / 1000 males
(a) 850 (b) 933 (c) 1000 (d) 1058
100 As per the ICDS scheme an Anganwadi worker is meant to be there for
every….population
(a) 500 (b) 1000 (c) 3000 (d) 5000
14
Answers
1 B 11 D 21 B 31 D 41 B 51 A 61 B 71 A 81 A 91 C
2 C 12 C 22 A 32 A 42 A 52 A 62 D 72 C 82 A 92 D
3 B 13 A 23 B 33 A 43 A 53 A 63 A 73 C 83 C 93 D
4 A 14 C 24 A 34 A 44 A 54 A 64 A 74 C 84 B 94 A
5 B 15 C 25 D 35 A 45 D 55 C 65 C 75 B 85 D 95 D
6 B 16 C 26 A 36 B 46 D 56 B 66 D 76 B 86 C 96 A
7 A 17 B 27 B 37 A 47 A 57 D 67 B 77 A 87 B 97 D
8 D 18 B 28 C 38 D 48 A 58 A 68 D 78 A 88 B 98 D
9 B 19 A 29 A 39 A 49 B 59 C 69 A 79 D 89 B 99 D
10D 20 B 30 C 40 B 50 A 60 D 70 C 80 D 90 D 100B
  #3  
2nd November 2015, 04:24 PM
Unregistered
Guest
 
Re: Railway Recruitment Board Pharmacist Exam Papers

Hello brother I want the exam paper of Railway Recruitment Board Pharmacist so please provide it to me?
  #4  
2nd November 2015, 04:29 PM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: May 2012
Re: Railway Recruitment Board Pharmacist Exam Papers

Hello brother as you asked for the exam paper of Railway Recruitment Board Pharmacist so here I am providing


1. Mode of transmission of Pertussis:
(a) Vector transmission (b) Through contaminated water

(c) Droplet infection (d) Faecoaral
2. Time required to measure the Mantaux test:
(a) 24 to 48 hrs (b) 48 to72 hrs (c) 10 to12 hrs (d) 2 to 4 hrs

3. Name of the oral Polio Vaccine:
(a) BCG (b) TAB (c) Salk (d) Sabin

4. The following are the standard tuberculosis drug except:
(a) Chloromycin (b) Streptomycin (c) INH (d) PAS

5. Combination of Tripple Antigen:
(a) DPT (b) BCG (c) TAB (d) ECG

6. The time interval between infection of suspected person and the
appearance of signs and symptom of the disease is called
(a) Quarrentine (b) Recovery period
(c) Incubation (d) Isolation period

7. Route of transmission of Hepatitis B:
(a) Oral (b) Potential (c) Faeco oral (d) Contaminated water

8. Mode of transmission of typhoid fever:
(a) Intravenous (b) Oro faceal (c) Respiratory (d) Droplet

9. Causative organism of diphtheria:
(a) Mycobacteria (b) Streptococcus
(c) Coryne Bacterium diphtheria (d) Staphylococcus

10. Incubation period of measles:
(a) 1-7 days (b) 7-14 days (c) 14-21 days (d) 21-28 days

11. Site for mantaux test:
(a) Outer and upper quadrant of gluteus maximus (b) Deltoid region
(c) Posterior left forearm (d) Anterior left forearm

12. Media of transmission of bovine type of tubercle bacilli:
(a) Milk (b) Water (c) Air (d) Food

13. Painful Micturition:
(a) Eneuresis (b) Dysuria (c) Rentention of urine (d) Diarrhoea

14. Amount of solution used for evacuant enema in adults:
(a) 100-250 ml (b) 250-350ml (c) 500-1000ml (d) 1000-1500 ml

15. Drugs used to relieve pain:
(a) Anti inflammatory (b) Antipyretics (c) Antibiotics (d) Analgesics

16. Hormone secreted by the testes:
(a) Oestrogen (b) Pitocin (c) Androgens (d) Progesterone

17. One teaspoon contains …………. ml
(a) 2ml (b) 5ml (c) 10ml (d) 15ml

18. One ml contains ……….. drops
(a) 5 drops (b) 10 drops (c) 15 drops (d) 20 drops

19. Average weight of a new born baby:
(a) 2 kg (b) 4 Kg (c) 3kg (d) 5kg

20. How much salt must be added to one litre of water to make a solution of normal saline?
(a) 2 grams (b) 5 grams (c) 6 grams (d) 9 grams


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