Railway Department Exam Paper

Will you provide me the RRB Sample Question Paper of Previous Year of Railway Recruitment?

[Raman Vij]

As you want I am here providing you the Sample Question Paper of Previous Year of Railway Recruitment.

Railway Department Exam Paper

Railway Engineering
1. The bent-up length of rail used in front of nose of crossing which help in channelising the train
wheels in their proper routes are known as:
(a) lead rail (b) point rail (c) wing rail (d) splice rail
Ans:- C
2.The point up to which the new railway track laid, at any time is called:
(a) terminal (b) station (c) rail-head (d) base
Ans:- C
3.The good quality wood for sleeper is:
(a) Deodar (b) Sheesham (c) Teak (d) Sal
Ans:- C
4.Generally the life of wooden sleepers is taken as:
(a) 2 to 3 years (b) 12 to 15 years
(c) 35 to 50 years (d) 5 to 8 years
Ans:- B
5.The gradual or tapered widening of the flangeway which is formed by bending and splaying the end
of check rail or wing rail away from the gauge line is known as:
(a) Flare (b) Toe (c) Heel (d) Loop
Ans:- A
6.The minimum height of embankment above the highest flood mark in the area should be:
(a) zero cm (b) 30 cm (c) 100 cm (d) 60 cm
Ans:- D
7.The recommended depth of ballast cushion on a curved portion of a track is provided under
the ........ edge of the sleeper.
(a) upper (b) middle (c) inner (d) outer
Ans:- C
8. An outward slope provided on the tread of the wheel is:
(a) 1 in 5 (b) 1 in 10 (c) 1 in 20 (d) 1 in 25
Ans:- C
9.The granular material spread on the formation of a railway track for the sleepers to rest upon is
known as:
(a) anchors (b) ballast (c) subgrade (d) chairs
Ans:- B
10.Bone shaped section of fish plate is commonly used for connecting:
(a) double headed rails (b) flat footed rails
(c) bull headed rails (d) all above are correct
Ans:- B


11.The members laid transversely under the rails for supporting and fixing them at the gauge
distance apart are known as:
(a) fastenings (b) sleepers (c) ballast (d) fish plate
Ans:- B
12.The bottom width of foot in a flat footed rail is:
(a) 78.6 mm (b) 136.5 mm (c) 66.7 mm (d) 70 mm
Ans:- B
13.The rectangular pits in which wheels of the locomotives are taken out for repairs, are known as:
(a) Track pits (b) Inspection pits
(c) Drop pits (d) Siding pits
Ans:- C
14. The wheels are coned to prevent from rubbing the inside face of the rail head and to prevent
lateral movement of the axle with its wheels. The slope of cone is:
(a) 1 in 5 (b) 1 in 20 (c) 1 in 10 (d) 1 in 15
Ans:- B
15. Gauge is the distance measured in place of the between which faces of two parallel rails in a track.
(a) inner faces
(b) centre line of one rail to inner face of other rail
(c) centre lines (d) outer faces
Ans:- A
16. Most significant which imposes limitations in raising the high speeds is:
(a) adhesion of wheels (b) resistance due to oscillations
(c) flange resistance (d) air or wind resistance
Ans:- A
17. The rails are welded by:
(a) Thermit welding (b) Gas welding
(c) Arc welding (d) MIG welding
Ans:- A
18. Steel sleepers are ..... shaped in section.
(a) oval (b) rectangular (c) trough (d) semi-spherical
Ans:- C
19. In India generally the sleeper density of sleepers per rail length used is:
(a) 18 (b) 30 (c) 12 (d) 24
Ans:- A
20. The extra rails provided over bridge to prevent damage and danger in case of derailment on the
bridge are known as:
(a) Stock rails (b) Guard rails (c) Check rails (d) Wing rails
Ans:- B
21. The phenomenon of misalignment of rails due to temperature change is known as:
(a) cropping (b) creeping (c) bulging (d) buckling
Ans:- D
22. Creep is the ..... movement of rails.


(a) longitudinal (b) diagonal (c) horizontal (d) vertical
Ans:- A
23. Ballast best suited to steel sleepers is:
(a) sand (b) Gravel (c) Quartzite (d) All the above
Ans:- C
24. The section of a rail is decided on the basis of:
(a) Type of rails (b) Spacing of the sleepers
(c) Speed of trains (d) All of the above
Ans:- D
25. While preparing sub-grade of a railway line, the grubbing operation means:
(a) checking of subgrade
(b) filling or cutting of earth work in railway subgrade
(c) compaction and consolidation of earth work
(d) removal and disposal of stumps and roots trees
Ans:- D
26. The sinuous path taken by an engine as against the alignment of the track is known as:
(a) Rolling motion(b) Nosing motion
(c) Lurching motion(d) Vibration
Ans:- B
27. The mechanical device which transfer chemical energy of fuel into mechanical energy in the form
of motion is called:
(a) rolling stock (b) railway (c) wagon (d) locomotive
Ans:- D
28. Integrated coach factory is located in:
(a) Chennai (b) Bangalore (c) Jamshedpur (d) Mumbai
Ans:- A
29. C.T.C. stands for:
(a) Critical Track Control
(b) Critical Traffic Channeliser
(c) Centralised Traffic Control
(d) None of these
Ans:- C
30. To reduce the intensity of pressure particularly on soft variety of sleepers, a rectangular plate is
introduced between the rails and the sleepers. This is known as:
(a) Fish plate(b) Chair
(c) Saddle plate (d) Bearing plate
Ans:- D
31. Generally the rail sections used in India is:
(a) flat footed (b) double headed
(c) bull headed (d) all above
Ans:- A
32. The arrangement consisting of three tracks used for changing the direction of engine is called:


(a) three ladder track (b) turn table
(c) three throw switch (d) triangle
Ans:- B
33. The length of a wooden sleeper for broad gauge track is:
(a) 1.83 m (b) 1.52 m (c) 2.74 m (d) 1.676 m
Ans:- C
34. The technical officer of the rank of sectional officer in the maintenance organisation of Indian
Railways is called:
(a) Permanent Way Inspector
(b) Gangmate
(c) Assistant Permanent Way Inspector
(d) None of these are correct
Ans:- C
35. The depth of ballast section under sleeper for broad gauge track as per Indian standard should
be:
(a) 250 to 300 mm (b) 200 to 250 mm
(c) 150 to 200 mm (d) 150 mm
Ans:- B
36. The completed and finished railway line on which wheeled vehicles are drawn by locomotive is
known as:
(a) steel way (b) rails (c) railway (d) permanent way
Ans:- D
37. The horse power to weight ratio steam engine is generally of the order of:
(a) 10-15 kg/HP (b) 60-80 kg/HP
(c) 20-30 kg/HP (d) 100-150 kg/HP
Ans:- B
38. The cause of formation of kinks in a rail is:
(a) Loose packing at joints
(b) Defect in gauge and alignment
(c) Defect in cross level joints
(d) Any of the above
Ans:- D
39. The horizontal distance from the material depot to the rail head is called:
(a) lift (b) site distance (c) rail-head (d) lead
Ans:- D
40. On curves, to counteract the effect of centrifugal force, the level of outer rail is raised above the
inner rail by a certain amount. This is called:
(a) Track gradient (b) Track slope
(c) Super elevation (d) Horizontal gradient
Ans:- C
41. The measure of stiffness of track required to produce a unit depression in the track is known as:
(a) Tractive force(b) Load capacity


(c) Gauge(d) Track modulus
Ans:- D
42. The head of a gang in maintenance organisation of railway is called:
(a) P.W.I (b) Keyman (c) Ganger (d) A.P.W.I
Ans:- C
43. The fixed rail in a railway track against which the tongue rail fits s known as:
(a) wing rail (b) stock rail (c) lead rail (d) point rail
Ans:- B
44. The standard length of rail for Broad Gauge track in India is:
(a) 19.2 m (b) 25.6 m (c) 11.8 m (d) 12.8 m
Ans:- D
45. The thickness of fish plate generally used in Indian Railway is:
(a) 16 mm (b) 10 mm (c) 25 mm (d) 20 mm
Ans:- D
46. Thermal efficiency of a diesel engine may be expected to be in the range of:
(a) 50-65% (b) 25-35% (c) 15-20% (d) 10-15%
Ans:- B
47. Wear on top or head of rail occurs due to:
(a) Abrasion of rolling wheels
(b) Heavy axle load
(c) Constant brake application
(d) Any or all of the above
Ans:- D
48. Any movement of the locomotive in different planes, e.g., vertical, longitudinal, transversal etc.,
is known as:
(a) Oscillating motion(b) Lurching motion
(c) Shutting motion(d) Vibration
Ans:- A
49. In rainy season the dust in the ballast becomes mud and comes up by suction from below the rail
joint. Such joint is called:
(a) Wet joint (b) Water joint
(c) Pumping joint (d) Blowing joint
Ans:- C
50. Accidents can be avoided by adopting:
(a) interlocking (b) C.T.C. system
(c) pilot guard system (d) A.T.C. system
Ans:-A

I want to preaperation for railway department exam for staff nurse so kindly tip for examination.

Hey, I am want to get railway department exam paper, will you provide me the sample paper of the South Eastern Railway exam , as I am looking for the same ?

[Arun Vats]

As you want I am here providing you sample paper of the South Eastern Railway exam.

Sample paper:

1. The lowest pay Scale in railway is ___________________

2. New Pension scheme has come into effect from_______________

3. E.S ____________ deals with the latest schedule of powers on Establishment

matters in S.E.Railway.

4. The General Manager of the South Eastern Railway is __________________

5. A person convicted by a court of law can be removed from service without

conducting enquiry in terms of Ruls_________ of D&A rules 1968.

6. Central Administrative Tribunals were established with effect from___________

7. The official languages Act. Was passed in the year ______________

8. ____________percent of post are required to be reserved for Physically

Handicapped Category.

9. The Enquiry in a D&A case should be conducted on terms of Rule________of

D&A rules 1968.

10. The lowest competent authority to approved grant of compassionate appointment

to a divorced daughter of the Ex-employee is _________________

11. Pay fixation on promotion from a lower to a higher grade is done in terms of

FR_____________

12. In a normal selection where mode of selection, is written test only, the Record of

service shall carry _______ marks in terms of latest instructions.

13. An employee can be taken up for bringing outside political influence in service

matters in terms of Rule__________ of Rly. Service conduct Rules.

14. SF___________ is used for appointment of Enquiry Officer in a Major Penalty

Case.

15. An employee was drawing Rs.6500/- as his emoluments at the time of his death

after 6 years of service. The amount of Death Gratuity payable to him will be

Rs__________.

16. The pay scale of a Gang-mate of Engineering Dept. is ______________

17. The selection Board should consist of JAG officers for selection to posts in

Scale________________ and above.

18. Compassionate appointment in the case of missing employee can be processed

after_________ months from the date of missing of the employee.

19. The present rate of Dearness Allowance is _________ Percent.

19. An employee convicted by a court of law can be removed from service

without holding an enquiry in terms of Rule _________ of D&A Rules,

1968.

21. E.S 57/2000 deals with _________________.

22. The staff of S.E.Rly. Co-operative Society who has completed 15 years of

service will be eligible for issue of _________ sets of Privilege passes every

year.

23. The Principal Bench of Central Administrative Tribunal is at __________.

24. The qualifying service calculated for grant of pensionary benefit of an

employee who has takes voluntary retirement after 25 years of service will be

________ years.

25. All kinds of leave takes together cannot exceed ______ months at one time.

26. Maximum amount of LAP which can be granted at one time can not exceed

__________ days.

27. The maximum numbers of stagnation increments which can be granted are

____________.

28. The participants in PREM meeting are

29. Maximum amount of LAP that can be taken at a time is _____

30. Rightsizing implies.

31. only live permanent post can be surrendered. ( True/False)

32. Statutory canteen id required where no. of employees is .

33. SBF Committee consists of

34. Medical Category for Gangman is

35. EA on CG for missing cases can be processed after

36. Any Rly. Dues of a retirement employee can be recovered from (i) DCRG

only. (ii) DCRG and Commuted value of pension or (iii) Last month’s Salary.

37. Expand RELHS.

38. SLP.

39. General Selection implies

40. Show the division of DRQ/DPQ and LDCE in this hypothetical cadre.

Category Santioned Strength

MCM 08

Tech-I 25

Tech-II 56

Tech-III 146

41. SCL for sportspersons I available for ____________ days in a year.

42. Safety Related Retirement Scheme is available for which categories ?

43.Salary payment through banks is essential/non-essential for the Gr.C

employees in South Eastern Railway.

44. An employee’s ACR can be filled by his supervisory authority only if he has

worked under his for a minimum period of __________.

45. Matching surrender required for creation of posts for new assets is in the ratio

________.

46. IRLDA stands for .

47. Joining time admissible in the case of temporary transfer not exceeding 180

days is _____________.

48. Provision of an attendant to a Railway employee referred to Rly. or

recognized hospital may be considered by the authorized medical officer

depending upon the severity of the case ( True/False )

49. No Railway servant shall be granted leave of any kind for a continuous period

exceeding ____________.

50. In no circumstances shall the resignation of a Railway servant whose conduct

is under investigation be accepted without the sanction of the authority

competent to dismiss him. ( True/false ).

51. The headquarter of a Railway servant under suspension is his last place of

duty( True/False ).

52. A Rly servant who has acquired lien on a post ceases to retain lien on that post

while on foreign service. ( True/False ).

53. Extraordinary leave granted on Medical Certificate can be converted

retrospectively into “ leave not due “( True/False).

54. Hospital leave is granted to Rly. servants other than in _______ or ________.

55. No Rly. servant shall accept any gifts as per Rule________of Rly. conduct

Rules.

56. Accident allowance is admissible to running staff who are held up at any

station other than their HQ due to an accident for a period exceeding.

57. Example of a major penalty.

58. Change in name of a female Rly. servant consequent to her marriage can be

done with the personal approval of CPO.( True/False ).

59. Hutting allowance is admissible during accidents to the affected Rly.

servants(True/False ).

60. IRCTC stands for

61. Competent authority to remove OS-II is under D&A is .

62. PREM stands for.

63. JCM stands for.

64. TDS

65. Khalasi Helper is now redesignated as __________________.

66. Provision for warm clothing allowance exists when an employee is transferred

from plains to hiss ( True/False.)

67. Adhoc promotion can be granted with the approval of CPO for a period of

_____________.

68. Laundry allowance to nurses will not be admissible if the period of leave

exceeds 15 days at a time ( True/False ).

69. Present Rate of DA is __________.

70. change in name due to clerical error can be rectified at the Divisional Level

itself ( True/False ).

71. MPP

72. SLP

73. OS-II post is a selection/non-selection post.

74. Revocation of suspension is done through form________.

75. An employee who has passed a suitability test once need not be called again

(True/False).

76. Appeal against the order of CAT lies in ________________.

77. only women can be members of Vishaka Committee (True/False.)

78. Chairman of SBF committee at Zonal level is _____________.

79. CTG is equivalent to only one month’s basic salary ( True/False.)

80. TC from unrecognized school is acceptable for EA on CG ( True/False)

81. Promotion can be effected during punishment (True/False)

82. Allotment of Qr. is done on the basis of Seniority/date of application.

83. The highest pay scale in railway is Rs. 30,000/- fixed.

84. Employment assistance in case of a missing employee can be granted with the

approval of DRM.

85. Gr.D employee who retires after 10 years of qualifying service shall be

eligible for grant of 2 sets of Post retirement Complimentary passes in a year.

86. The pay scale of a technician –III in 4000-6000/-.

87. It is permissible for the same office to both set of questing paper and evaluate

the answer in a selection.

88. An employee is not eligible for pension if he is compulsorily retired from

service.

89. Compassionate appointment in the case of missing employee can be processed

after _________months from the date of missing of the employee.

90. The present rate of Dearness Allowance is _________ percent.

91. An Employee convicted by a court of law can be removed from service

without holding an enquiry in terms of Rule_______of D&A Rules,1968.

92. E.S. 57/2000 deals with ____________.

93. The staff of S.E.Rly. Co-operative Society who has completed 15 years of

service will be eligible for issue of __________ sets of Privisege passes every

year.

94. The Principal Bench of Central Administrative Tribunal is as __________.

95. The qualifying service calculated for pensionary benefit of an employee who

has taken Voluntary retirement after 25 years of service will be ___________

years.

96. All kind of leave takes together cannot exceed___________months at once.

97. Maximum amount of LAP which can be grated at one time can not exceed

___________ days.

98. The maximum number of stagnation increments which can be granted are

_________________.

Super friends. Next time with answer in details

Hi buddy here I am looking for Railway Department Exam question paper to do preparation of this exam so will you plz let me know from where I can collect it ??

[sumit]

As you want here I am giving bellow Railway Department Exam question paper on your demand :

1. To stop increment of pay up to three year, which effect pension is a -..penalty.
(a) major (b) minor (c)medium (d)None of these
2. S.F.-3 is given for -…….
(a) Vehicle allowance (b)substance allowance (c)transport allowance(d)None of these
3. During suspension ……. percentage basic pay and D.A. is given.
(a) 60 (b)50 (c)40 (d)70
4. There is no limit of duty for - category.
(a) Intensive(b)continuous (c) essentially intermittent (d)excluded
5. Children below …….. years cannot work in factories.
(a) 21 (b) 12 (c) 18 (d) 25
6. Welfare inspector works under -. department.
(a) personal (b) mechanical (c) operating (d) commercial
7. LAP charged at the rate - day per month.
(a) 2.5 (b) 3.0 (c) 3.5 (d) 2.0
8. Group of employees involved in employment close the work is called -...
(a) Protest (b) leave (c) strike (d) None of these.
9. Generally deduction should be up to-. %.
(a) 40 (b) 30 (c) 60 (d) 50
10. As per Factory act overtime should not be more than -. hours in a week.
(a) 50 (b) 52 (c) 45 (d) 60
11. Dispensary is required for more than - employees.
(a) 5000 (b) 500 (c) 200 (d) 150
12. Encashment given at the time of retirement for - nos. of LAP leave.
(a) 300 (b) 280 (c) 350 (d) 250
13. Child care leave for female employee given up to - days maximum.
(a) 660 (b) 560 (c) 700 (d) 730
14. Silver pass given from - grade officer.
(a) JAG (b) Senior Scale (c) SAG (d) none of these.
15. School pass grant for Group ‘C employee -. full set and …….. half set.
(a) 03-06 (b) 04-08 (c) 02-04 (d) None of these
16. Minimum -.. workers without power required for factory act.
(a) 10 (b) 15 (c) 20 (d) 30
17. Head quarter of railway safety commission is -.
(a) Delhi (b) Calcutta (c) Mumbai (d) Chennai.
18. Tuition fees given to -. serving child of employee.
(a) Younger two (b) Elder two (c) Any two (d) None f
19. The work of concentration difficult or exhaustion is called - work in those of employment (HOER).
(a) Continuous (b) Excluded (c)essentially intermittent (d) Intensive
20. Canteen required in factory for more than -. employees.
(a) 500 (b) 200 (c) 250 (d) 700
21. -.days given for joining in out station at transfer.
(a) 15 (b) 10 (c) 07 (d) 30
22. Within -days salary will be given for more than 1000 person according to payment wages act.
(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 15 (d) 07
23. Compensation on full permanent disability ---
(a)50 % x basic x age factor (b) 60 % x basic x age factor
(c) 80 % x basic x age factor (d) None of these
24. The pension which is obtained on retirement within a fix age limit is called as -…….
(a) Supremeannuation (b) Upperannuation (c) Superannuation
(d) None of these
25. Employee is eligible for pension after minimum- years of continuous service.
(a) 25 (b) 10 (c) 05 (d) 20
26. Minimum compensation money is - Rs on permanent full disability.
(a) 140000 (b) 100000 (c) 240000 (d) 200000
27. Supervisor has to communicate the message within - hours to the respective officer in case of employee death during working hours.
(a) 24 (b) 48 (c) 56 (d) 66
28. -. is the Chief of safety Deptt. Of Railway .
(a) CSO (b) CME (c) COM (d) CRSE
29. According to the Rajbhasa Act country is divided in -regions.
(a) 03 (b) 02 (c) 05 (d) 08
30. Maternity leave is permissible for ….days, on 02 survivals children.
(a) 180 (b) 90 (c) 15 (d) 00
31. -….. Form is used for Major Penalty.
(a) SF 1 (b) SF 5 (c) SF 9 (d) None of them
32. ------------ is the highest authority of Mechanical Department in Indian Railway.
(a) GM (b) MM (c) CME (d) CWE
33. Chairman of PNM at HQ is -….
(a) CME (b) SDGM (c) CPO (d) None of these
34. -….. days LAP is given to group ‘C employee?
(a) 15 (b) 30 (c) 08 (d) 12
35. AAC is for -….. item .
(a) Stock (b) Non stock (c) Imported Stock (d) Emergency Stock
36. PL No. is denoted by -------------digit.
(a) 08 (b) 10 (c) 12 (d) 06
37. Suspension is a --------------penalty
(a) Major (b) Minor (c) Smallest (d) None of them
38. Stock items are drawl on Form No. -------------.
(a) Requisition (b) Issue Ticket (c) DS 8 (d) None of them
39. ….days, CL is admissible in workshop.
(a) 08 (b) 10 (c) 12 (d) 15
40. Maternity leave is admissible for -.. days .
(a) 30 (b) 90 (c) 180 (d) None of them