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  #2  
21st November 2014, 03:24 PM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Apr 2013
Re: Question Papers of PO Exam

Here I am giving you some previous year’s question papers for preparation of IBPS Bank’s PO Common Written Examination.

Computer Knowledge questions of IBPS PO exam:
Buffer is device/storage area–
1. Where data are temporarily stored
2. Where data is permanently stored
3. Where data error occurs
4. All of the above
5. None of these

A network geometric arrangement in which a single connecting line is shared by a number of nodes is called–
1. Car Topology
2. Bus Topology
3. Truck Topology
4. All of the above
5. None of these

An error in a computer program is referred as–
1. Bug
2. Bit
3. Virus
4. All of the above
5. None of these

Circuits that provide a communication path between two or more devices of a digital computer system is–
1. Car
2. Bus
3. Truck
4. All of the above
5. None of these

A fixed number of adjacent bits that represent a particular character or symbol are referred as–
1. Byte
2. Octal
3. Bubble
4. All of the above
5. None of these

Cache memory is a–
1. Small buffer storage
2. Permanent storage
3. Main memory
4. All of the above
5. None of these

The total number of digits (symbols) available to represent numbers in a positional number system is referred as–
1. Number system
2. Base
3. Power
4. All of the above
5. None of these

Cache memory is–
1. Smaller and faster than main storage
2. Bigger and slower than main storage
3. Smaller but slower than main memory
4. Bigger and faster than main memory
5. None of these

Cache memory–
1. Is a Static RAM
2. Increases the speed of processing by making current programs and data available to the CPU at a rapid rate
3. Both 1. and 2. are true .
4. Both 1. and 2. are false
5. None of these

Following is false for BASIC–
1. Beginners All-Purpose Symbolic Instruction Code
2. High-level interactive programming language
3. Works in time sharing environment
4. Low level object oriented language
5. None of these

A unit for measuring data transmission speed that describes the capacity of a carrier is referred as–
1. Baud
2. Bit
3. Bond
4. All of the above
5. Batch

A process of trying out a new product by independent users before it is finally manufactured/developed–
1. Alpha test
2. Beta Test
3. Gamma test
4. All of the above
5. None of these

A selection, choice, or condition involving two possibilities is referred as–
1. Unary
2. Binary
3. Octal
4. All of the above
5. None of these

Base band System is–
1. A networking system
2. Where the channel support a single digital signal
3. Both 1. and 2. are true
4. All of the above
5. None is true

One of the early coding systems, based on the idea of converting each digit of a decimal number into its binary equivalent rather than converting the entire decimal value into a pure binary form is–
1. ASCII code
2. BCD
3. ASCII-8
4. All of the above
5. None of these

In Batch processing–
1. Several computer programs runs one after another without human interaction to run each program individually
2. Several computer programs runs one after another with human interaction to run each program individually
3. Selected computer programs runs one after another with human interaction to run each program individually
4. All of the above
5. None is true

BISYNC is–
1. Binary synchronous
2. A process of transmitting data
3. A half-duplex, character oriented, synchronous data communication transmission method
4. All of the above
5. None of these

A device that is used to transmit data from one location to another is referred as–
1. Storage
2. Memory
3. Carrier
4. All of the above
5. None of these

Programs developed by an outside supplier and provided to the user in a machine readable form is known as–
1. Canned programs
2. Beta program
3. Alpha program
4. All of the above
5. None of these

A binary numbers are represented by–
1. Digits 0 and 1
2. Digits 0, 1, ..., 8
3. Digits AB, C,...
4. All of the above
5. None of these

BIOS is responsible for
1. Handling the particulars of input/output operations
2. Output operations
3. Input operations
4. All of the above
5. None of these

BIOS is an abbreviation for–
1. Binary Input/Binary Output
2. Binary synchronous
3. Binary digit
4. All of the above
5. None of these

BISYNC is an abbreviation for–
1. Binary Input/Binary Output
2. Binary synchronous
3. Binary digit
4. All of the above
5. None of these

The overall design, construction, organiz-ation and interconnecting of the various components of a computer system is referred as–
1. Computer Architecture
2. Computer Flowchart
3. Computer Algorithm
4. All of the above
5. None of these

A number system with a base of two is referred as–
1. Unary number system
2. Binary number system
3. Octal number system
4. All of the above
5. None of these

Answers:
1. (1) 2. (2) 3. (1) 4. (2) 5. (1) 6. (1) 7. (2) 8. (1) 9. (3) 10. (4) 11. (1) 12. (2) 13. (2) 14. (3) 15. (2) 16. (1) 17. (4) 18. (3) 19. (1) 20. (1) 21. (1) 22. (1) 23. (2) 24. (1) 25. (2)


Mental Ability questions of IBPS PO exam:

1. If Step IV reads ‘to restrict the use of air conditioners”, which of the following will definitely be the input?
(1)use to of the air conditioners restrict
(2)restrict the to of air conditioners use
(3)the air conditioners of restrict use to
(4) Can’t be determined
(5) None of these

Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
A famous museum issues entry passes to all its visitors for security reasons. Visitors are allowed in batches after every one hour. In a day there are six batches. A code is printed on entry pass which keeps on changing for every batch. Following is an illustration of pass-codes issued for each batch.
Batch I: clothes neat and clean liked are all by
Batch II: by clothes neat all are and clean liked
Batch III: liked by clothes clean and neat all are and so on…

2. If pass-code for the third batch is ‘night succeed day and hard work-to for’, what will be the pass-code for the sixth batch?
(1)work hard to for succeed night and day
(2)hard work for and succeed night to day
(3)work hard for to succeed night and day
(4)hard work for to succeed night and day
(5) None of these

3. If ‘visit in zoo should the time day’ is the pass-code for the fifth batch, zoo we the should visit day time in’ will be the pass-code for which of following batches?
(1) II
(2) IV
(3) I
(4) III
(5) VI

4. Sanjay visited the museum in the fourth batch and was issued a pass-code ‘to fast rush avoid not do very run’. What would have been the pass-code for him had he visited the museum in the second bitch?
(1)rush do not avoid to run very fast
(2)rush not do-avoid to run very
(3)avoid rush not do to run very fast
(4) Date inadequate
(5) None of these

5. Subodh went to visit the museum in the second batch. He was issued a pass-code ‘length the day equal of an night are’. However, he could not visit the museum in the second batch as he was a little late. He then preferred to visit in the fifth batch. What will be the new pass-code issued to him?
(1)and of are night the length equal day
(2)and are of night the length equal day
(3)and of are night the equal day length
(4 )an d of are th e night len gth day equal
(5) None of these

6. If ass-code for the second batch is ‘to confidence hard you leads work and success’, what will be the pass-code for the fourth batch?
(1)leads success to you hard confidence and work
(2)leads success you to hard confidence and work
(3)leads success to you hard confidence work and
(4)leads to success you hard confidence and work
(5) None of these

7. If the pass-code issued for the last (sixth) batch is ‘and pencil by all boys used are pen’, what will be the passcode for the first batch?
(1)pencil and pen are used by all boys
(2)pen and pencil used are by all boys
(3)pen and pencil are used by all boys
(4)Pencil and pen are used all by boys
(5) None of these

8. If the pass-code for the sixth batch is ‘not go the way to of out do’, what will be the pass-code for the third batch?
(1)Of do to out go not way the
(2)of to do out not go way the
(3)of to go out do not way the
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these

Directions: Study the following information to answer the given questions:

A word rearrangement machine when given an input line of words, rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and the steps of rearrangement:
Input: Over you pat me crow easy to.
Steps: (I) pat over you crow easy to me
Steps: (II) crow pat over you to me easy
Steps: (III) over crow pal to me easy you
Steps: (IV) to over crow pat easy you me and so on.
As per the rule followed in the above steps, find out the appropriate step for the given input in the following questions:

9. If Step II of an input is ‘ge su but he for game free’, what would be step VI?
(1)a for but fine he game su
(2)for free ge game su he but
(3)free ge for but game su he
(4)he ge su but game free for
(5) None of these

10. If step IV of an input is ‘blue navy kit lime se get‘, which of the following would definitely be the input?
(1)navy get lime out kit se blue
(2)lime navy get kit se blue out
(3)lime blue navy kit get out se
(4)kit blue navy se get out lime
(5) None of these

11. Input: but calm free are so not eat. Which of the following will be the 3rd step for this input?
(1)so free but calm eat are not
(2)but calm are free not so eat
(3)are but calm free not eat so
(4)but so free eat are not calm
(5) None of these

12. If step V of an input is ‘put down col in as mach sa’ , what would be the 8th step?
(1)down in put much sa as col
(2)in put down cot much sa as
(3)much in put down sa as col
(4)col put down as much sa in
(5) None of these

13. Input: rim bye eat klin fe to low Which of the following steps would be ‘fe low rim to bye klin eat’?
(1) VIth
(2) vth
(3) IVth
(4) IIIrd
(5) None of these

Directions: A word arrangement machine, when given a particular input, rearranges it following a particular rule. The following is the illustration of the input and the steps of arrangement:
Input: Put pocket hand watch he for them.
Step I: Put for he watch hand pocket them.
Step II: Put he for watch pocket hand them.
Step III: Put hand pocket watch for he them.
Step IV: Put pocket hand watch he for them.
And so on goes the machine. Study the logic and answer the questions that follow:

14. If Step III of a given input be ‘fly sky birds my su fur say’, what is the seventh step of the input?
(1)fly sky birds my su fur say
(2)fly birds sky my fur su say
(3)fly fur su my birds sky say
(4)fly su fur my sky birds say
(5) None of these

15. If Step VII of an input is ‘slow ran dhurwa pat hak dig vi’, what is step V of that input?
(1)slow dig hak pat dhurwa ran vi
(2)slow hak dig pat ran dhurwa vi
(3)slow hak dig pat ran dhurwa vi
(4)slow ran dhurwa pat hak dig vi
(5) None of these

Answers
1. (2) 2. (3) 3. (4) 4. (1) 5. (1) 6. (1) 7. (3) 8. (5) 9. (3) 10. (1) 11. (4) 12. (5) 13. (2) 14. (1) 15. (2)
  #3  
26th November 2014, 08:50 AM
Unregistered
Guest
 
Question Papers of PO Exam

I want to give IBPS PO Exam so please give me important details and previous years question papers for preparation of exam?
  #4  
26th November 2014, 09:42 AM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Apr 2013
Re: Question Papers of PO Exam

IBPS conduct Common Written Exam (CWE) is held for recruitment to nationalized banks in India for jobs of Probationary Officer (PO).

Eligibility Criteria:

1. Nationality
A candidate must be one of the followings:
• A citizen of India
• A subject of Nepal or Bhutan
• A Tibetan refugee who came over to India before 01/01/1962 with the intention of permanently settling in India
• A person of Indian origin who has migrated from other countries (detailed list of countries available on official website) with the intention of permanently settling in India

2. Age Limit
Age should be between 20 – 30 years

Relaxation of upper age limit:
SC/ST: 5
OBC: 3
PWD: 10
Domiciled in J&K: 5

3. Educational Qualification
You must have completed graduation in any discipline from a recognized University or any equivalent qualification recognized as such by the Central Government.

Exam Pattern:
Reasoning
English Language
Quantitative Aptitude
General Awareness
Computer Knowledge

Participating Banks in IBPS CWE (PO):
Allahabad Bank
Indian Overseas Bank
Andhra Bank
Oriental Bank of Commerce
Bank of Baroda
Punjab National Bank
Bank of India
Punjab & Sindh Bank
Bank of Maharashtra
Syndicate Bank
Canara Bank
UCO Bank
Central Bank of India
Union Bank of India
Corporation Bank
United Bank of India
Dena Bank
Vijaya Bank
ECGC
IDBI Bank
Indian Bank
Bharatiya Mahila Bank


Here I am giving you previous years question papers for preparation of IBPS PO Exam.

IBPS PO Exam Paper 1

Direction (1 – 5) : In the following questions, groups of four words are given. In each group one word is
wrongly spelt. Find the wrongly spelt word and mark your answer in the Answer Sheet.
Q.1)
(1) Preposterous (2) Disasterous
(3) Murderous (4) Onerous
Q.2)
(1) Severity (2) Cruelity
(3) Sincerity (4) Superiority
Q.3)
(1) Begining (2) Winning
(3) Mining (4) Running
Q.4)
(1) Complement (2) Compliment
(3) Supplement (4) Requirement
Q.5)
(1) Amelirate (2) Zealot
(3) Penetrate (4) Stain
Direction (6 – 15) : In the following questions, a part of the sentence is printed in bold. Below are given
alternatives to the bold part as 1, 2 and 3 which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In
case no improvement is needed, you answer is ‘4’. Blacken the appropriate rectangle in the answer sheet.
Q.6) She teaches us grammar, isn’t it?
(1) isn’t she? (2) doesn’t she?
(3) doesn’t it? (4) no improvement
Q.7) The struggle for independent is gaining movement every day.
(1) motion (2) movement
(3) momentum (4) no improvement
Q.8) She is quite without affection and has no false pride.
(1) admiration (2) affliction
(3) affectation (4) no improvement
Q.9) I complimented Raju for his promotion.
(1) with (2) on
(3) about (4) no improvement
Q.10) The food tastes deliciously.
(1) delicacy (2) delicious
(3) badly (4) no improvement
Q.11) I have seen much of the plays of Shakespeare acted.
(1) a few (2) many
(3) most (4) no improvement
Q.12) I have bought this house in 1970 for Rs. Two lakhs.
(1) had bought (2) bought
(3) have been bought (4) no improvement
Q.13) To child died from jaundice.
(1) with (2) of
(3) by (4) no improvement
Q.14) I will phone you after I shall arrive.
(1) after I shall have arrived
(2) after I arrive
(3) after I arrived
(4) no improvement
Q.15) It’s high time you come to a decision.
(1) came (2) had come
(3) have come (4) no improvement
Direction (16 – 20) : In the following questions, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive Voice. Out of the
four alternatives suggested below, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive / Active
Voice.
Q.16) You surprise me.
(1) I am to be surprised (2) You are surprised
(3) I am surprised (4) Me is surprised
Q.17) The boys killed the snake with a stick.
(1) The snake was killed by the boys with a stick.
(2) A stick was killed by the boys with a snake.
(3) A snake with a stick was killed by the boys.
(4) A snake is killed by the boys with a stick.
Q.18) Let me do this.
(1) Let us do this. (2) This be done by me.
(3) Let this be done by me. (4) Let do this.
Q.19) The tiger caught a fox.
(1) A fox has been caught by the tiger.
(2) A fox was caught by the tiger.
(3) A fox is caught by the tiger.
(4) A fox had been caught by the tiger.
Q.20) Someone has lit the fire.
(1) The fire was lit by someone.
(2) You are requested to light the fire by someone.
(3) The firs has been lit by someone.
(4) The fire had been lit by someone.
Direction (21 – 25) : In the following passage, the first and the last parts of the sentence are numbered 1 and 6.
The rest of the sentence is split into four parts and named, P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their
proper order. Read the parts and find out which of the four combinations is correct. Then find the correct
answer and blacken the appropriate rectangle in the Answer Sheet.
Q.21) 1. Once a week Deesa led Moti Guj, the elephant, down to the river.
P. After inspection the two would stand up.
Q. Then Deesa looked at his feet and examined his whole body for sores.
R. The animal knew it was time to return.
S. The elephant lay down on his side, while Deesa rubbed him with a coir scrubber.

6. Both the elephant and the trainer would return home.
(1) SQPR (2) QSRP
(3) QPRS (4) RQSP
Q.22) 1. Anna had longed to see her son.
P. “He will arrive at the station at 10 O’clock, she said to herself.
Q. She prepared herself for it.
R. She looked at the clock.
S. There were only five minutes left.
6. She rushed out of her house and hailed a taxi to reach the station in time.
(1) QPRS (2) SPRQ
(3) PRQS (4) QSRP
Q.23) 1. Mr. Ramaswamy is a very strict man.
P. He earns nearly three thousand rupees a month.
Q. He also believes that it is foolish to waste one’s time or money.
R. He is not a poor man.
S. He believes that life means work only.
6. But he wants his children to lead a simple life.
(1) PSQR (2) SQRP
(3) RQPS (4) SRQP
Q.24) 1. It will be better.
P. to a few than enrol.
Q. to provide quality education.
R. them out as graduates.
S. en masse and churn.
6. after perfunctory teaching.
(1) QRSP (2) RSPQ
(3) QPSR (4) SRQP
Q.25) 1. ‘I was born here in the old city’ the girl told us.
P. her answer suggested that her family has roots.
Q. when we inquired.
R. as opposed to the modern towns that consist mostly of hotels.
S. and belongs to the traditional part where the temple are.
6. Some day people here are more ethnically pure.
(1) QPSR (2) SRPQ
(3) PSRQ (4) SRQP

ANSWERS

1. (2)
2. (2)
3. (1)
4. (4)
5. (1)
6. (2)
7. (3)
8. (3)
9. (2)
10. (4)
11. (2)
12. (2)
13. (2)
14. (2)
15. (1)
16. (3)
17. (1)
18. (3)
19. (2)
20. (3)
21. (1)
22. (1)
23. (2)
24. (3)
25. (1)

IBPS PO Exam Paper 2

NUMERICAL APTITUDE QUESTIONS
1 (95.6x 910.3) ÷ 92.56256 = 9?
(A) 13.14
(B) 12.96
(C) 12.43
(D) 13.34
(E) None of these
2. (4 86%of 6500) ÷ 36 =?
(A) 867.8
(B) 792.31
(C) 877.5
(D) 799.83
(E) None of these
3. (12.11)2 + (?)2 = 732.2921
(A)20.2
(B) 24.2
(C)23.1
(D) 19.2
(E) None of these
4.576÷ ? x114=8208
(A)8
(B)7
(C)6
(D)9
(E) None of these
5. (1024—263—233)÷(986—764— 156) =?
(A)9
(B)6
(C)7
(D)8
(E) None of these
6. ?125÷5x ?=6265
(A)1253
(B) 1250
(C)1245
(D) 1550
(E) None of these
7.(42)2÷6.3 x 26 =?
(A)7182
(B) 7269
(C)7260
(D) 7240
(E) None of these
8.384×12×2=?
(A)9024
(B) 9216
(C)6676
(D) 6814
(E) None of these
9.6534÷40÷33=?
(A)3.06
(B) 5.25
(C)4.82
(D) 6.12
(E) None of these
10. ?2704 x ?2209=?
(A)1996
(B)2444
(C)2452
(D)1983
(E)None of these
11.2536+4851—?=3450+313
(A)3961
(B)4532
(C)3624
(D)4058
(E) None of these
12. (2560 x 1.4) +(7400 x 0.6) =?
(A)7512
(B) 9746
(C)6523
(D) 8024
(E) None of these
13. 36%of 850+? %of 592 = 750
(A)73
(B)89
(C)82
(D)75
(E) None of these
14.64%of 2650+40% 0f 320=?
(A)1824
(B) 1902
(C)1829
(D) 1964
(E) None of these
15. 486+32×25—59=?
(A) 514
(B) 528
(C) 599
(D) 507
(E) None of these

16. 1827÷ 36 x ?=162.4
(A)4.4
(B)3.2
(C)2.1
(D) 3.7
(E) None of these
17. 1008÷36=?
(A)28
(B) 32.5
(C)36
(D) 22.2
(E) None of these
18. 56.21 +2.36+5.41 —21.4+1.5=?
(A)40.04
(B) 46.18
(C)44.08
(D) 43.12
(E) None of these
19. 65%of 320+?=686
(A) 480
(B) 452
(C)461
(D) 475
(E) None of these
20. 83250÷?=74×25
(A)50
(B) 45
(C)40
(D) 55
(E) None of these
21. ?7744=?
(A)88
(B)62
(C)58
(D)78
(E)None of these
22.35%of ?=242
(A)729
(B)652
(C)693
(D)759
(E) None of these
23. 1256+4813+765=?
(A)5642
(B) 5876
(C)6788

(D) 6878
(E) None of these
24. 22 x4+(?)2=(13)2
(A) 81
(C) 27
(B) 9
(D) 64
(E) None of these
25. 432+2170+35=?
(A)494
(B) 475
(C)481
(D) 469
(E) None of these
26. Three numbers are in the ratio of 3: 4 :5 respectively. If the sum of
the first and third numbers is more than the second number by 52, then
which will be the largest number?
(A) 65
(B) 52
(C) 79
(D) 63
(E) None of these
27. The compound interest on a certain amount for 2 years at the rate of
8 p.c.p.a. is Rs.312. What will be the simple interest on the same amount
and at the same rate and same time?
(A)Rs. 349.92
(B) Rs. 300
(C)Rs. 358.92
(D) Rs. 400
(E) None of these
28. The length of a rectangle exceeds its breadth by 7 ems. If the length
is decreased by 4 cm. and the breadth is increased by 3 cms., then the
area of the new rectangle will be the same as the area of the original
rectangle. What will be the perimeter of the original rectangle?
(A)45 cms.
(B)40 cems.
(C)50 cms.
(D)55 cms.
(E)None of these
29. The sum of the digits of a two digit number is 12. If the new number
formed by reversing the digits is greater than the original number by 54,
then what will be the original number?
(A)28
(B) 48
(C)39
(D) 93
(E) None of these

30. In a fraction, twice the numerator is two more than the denominator.
If 3 is added to the numerator and the denominator each, then the
resultant fraction will be 2/3 .What was the original fraction ?
(A)5/18
(B)6/13
(C)13/6
(D)7/12
(E) None of these
31. Four-fifth of a number is 10 more than two-third of the same number.
What is the number?
(A) 70
(B) 75
(C) 69
(D) 85
(E) None of these
32. A shopkeeper purchased 200 bulbs for Rs. 10 each. However, 5 bulbs
were fused and had to be thrown away. The remaining were sold at Rs. 12
each. What will be the percentage
profit?
(A) 25
(B) 15
(C) 13
(D) 17
(E) None of these
33. What should come in the place of question mark (?) in the number
series given below?
25, 34, 52,79, 115,?
(A)160
(B) 140
(C)153
(D) 190
(E)None of these
34. What number should replace both the question marks (?) in the
following question ?
?/144= 49 /?
(A)95
(B) 76
(C)82
(D) 84
(E)None of these
35. The sum of three consecutive even numbers is 252. What is the sum of
the smallest and the largest numbers?
(A)158
(B) 148
(C)168
(D) 198
(E) None of these

36. Ajay spends 25% of his salary on house rent, 5% on food, 15% on
travel, 10% on clothes and the remaining amount of Rs. 27,000 is saved.
What is Ajay’s income?
(A) Rs. 60,000
(B) Rs. 80,500
(C) Rs. 60,700
(D) Rs. 70,500
(E) None of these
37. In how many different ways, can the letters of the word ‘CRISIS’ be
arranged ?
(A) 150
(B) 240
(C) 120
(D) 200
(E) None of these
38. At each corner of a square park with side equal to 40 m, there is a
flower bed in the form of a sector of radius 14 m. What is the area of
the remaining part of the park?
(A)984 Square m
(B) 789 Square m
(C) 1014 Square m
(D) 1024 Square m
(E) None of these
39. The length of a rectangular field is thrice its breadth. If the cost
of cultivating the field at Rs. 367.20 per square meter is Rs. 27,540,
then what is the perimeter of the rectangle?
(A)47m
(B) 39m
(C)52m
(D)40m
(E) None of these
40. If the fractions8/5,7/2,9/5,5/4,4/5 are arranged in descending order
of their values, which one will be fourth?
(A)4/5
(B)5/4
(C)9/5
(D)8/5
(E) 7/2
41. The present ages of Chetna and Shikha are in the ratio of 5 :7
respectively. After 7 years, their ages will be in the ratio of 11:14
respectively. What is the difference between their ages?
(A)9 years
(B) 4 years
(C)5 years
(D) 7 years
(E) None of these

42. If 13 men can complete a piece of work in 36 days, then in how many
days will 18 men complete the same work?
(A)16 days
(B) 20 days
(C)26 days
(D) 30 days
(E) None of these
43. If the area of a circle is 75.44 square cm then what is the
circumference of the circle?
(A)29.2 cm
(B) 28.9 cm
(C)30.8 cm
(D) 40.2 cm
(E) None of these
44. Girish started a business investing Rs. 45,000. After 3 months, Vijay
joined him with a capital of Rs. 60,000. After another 6 months, Ankush
joined them with a capital of Rs. 90,000. At the end of the year, they
made a profit of Rs. 16,500. What is Girish’s share of profit ?
(A) Rs. 5,500
(B) Rs. 6,000
(C) Rs. 6,600
(D) As. 5,900
(E) None of these
45. What is the average age of a family of five members, whose ages are
42, 49, 56, 63 and 35 years respectively?
(A)60 years
(B) 49 years
(C)45 years
(D) 58 years
(E) None of these
46. A and B are two taps which can fill a tank individually in 10 minutes
and 20 minutes respectively. However, there is a leakage at the bottom
which can empty a filled tank in 40 minutes. If the tank is empty
initially, how much time will both the taps take to fill the tank
(leakage is still there) ?
(A) 8 minutes
(B) 7 minutes
(C) 10 minutes
(D)15 minutes
(E) None of these
47. What is 50% of 40% of Rs. 3,450?
(A) Rs. 690
(B) As. 520
(C) Rs. 517.5
(D) Rs. 499.2
(E) None of these
48. If an amount of Rs. 5,86,700 is distributed equally amongst 25
persons, then how much would each person get?

(A) Rs. 2,54,876
(B) Rs. 2,34,68
(C) Rs. 3,74,20
(D) Rs. 1,95,62
(E) None of these
49. An urn contains 9 blue, 7 white and 4 black balls. If 2 balls are
drawn at random, then what is the probability that only one ball is
white?
(A) 71/190
(B) 121/190
(C) 91/190
(D) 93/190
(E) None of these
50. If the price of 5 transistors and 2 pen stands is Rs. 810, then what
will be the price of 7 transistors and 9 pen stands?
(A) Rs. 1,320
(B) Rs. 1,500
(C) Rs.1,150
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these

ANSWERS:

1 - D 2 - C 3 - B 4 - A 5 - D 6 - A 7 - E 8 - B 9 - E 10 - B 11 - C 12
- D 13 - D 14 - A 15 - B
16 - B 17 - A 18 - C 19 - E 20 - B 21 - A 22 - C 23 - E 24 - B 25 - A 26
- A 27 - B 28 - C 29 - C 30 - D 31 - B 32 - D 33 - A 34 - D 35 - C 36 -
A 37 - E 38 - A 39 - D 40 - B 41 - E 42 - C 43 - C
44 - A 45 - B 46 - A 47 - A 48 - B 49 - E 50 - D
  #5  
24th March 2015, 12:03 PM
Unregistered
Guest
 
Re: Question Papers of PO Exam

Can you provide me the SBI PO (State Bank of India Probationary Officer) exam previous year question paper as I need it for preparation?
  #6  
24th March 2015, 12:29 PM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Mar 2013
Re: Question Papers of PO Exam

Below I am providing you some questions of from question paper of SBI PO (State Bank of India Probationary Officer) and attaching a PDF attachment which has detail information regarding this that you can down load for free:

State Bank of India Probationary Officer Question Paper

1. In a certain code ‘TREAMWORK’ is written as ‘NBFUJQNV’ and ‘SOME’ is written as ‘PTDL’. How is ‘PERSON’ written in that code?

(a) QDOOPT
(b) QDOMNR
(c) SFQMNR
(d) SFQOPT
(e) None of these

2. How many such pairs of letters are three in the word ‘SUBSTANCE’ each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as in the English alphabets?

(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) More than three

3. How many meaningful English words, not ending with ‘D’ can be made with the third, the fifth, the seventh and the ninth letters of the word ‘STEADFAST’ using each letter only once in each word?

(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) More than three

4. In a certain code ‘BASKET’ is written as ‘5$3%#1’ and ‘THIRD’ is written as ‘14*#2’. How is ‘SKIRT’ written in that code?

(a) 3%*41
(b) 3/%41
(c) 3%#41
(d) 3#4%1
(e) None of these

5. The positions of the first and the fifth digits of the number 81943275 are interchanged. Similarly the positions of the second and the sixth digits are interchanged and so on till the fourth and the eight digits. Which of the following will be the third digit from the right end after the rearrangement?

(a) 1
(b) 9
(c) 2
(d) 4
(e) None of these

Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:

M3 # R A T 1 E J $ K @ F U 5 4 V I 6©D 8 * G B 7 δ 2 W

6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(a) T E R
(b) U4 @
(c) 6 D V
(d) J 1 K
(e) N δ *

7. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a letter but not immediately followed by a letter?

(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) More than three

8. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement? R T 1 $ @ F

(a) 8 * H
(b) 8 H N
(c) 8 H 7
(d) D * H
(e) None of these

9. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a letter?

(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) More than three

10. Which of the following is the seventh to the left of the twentieth from the left end of the above arrangement?

(a) V
(b) @
(c) δ
(d) ©
(e) None of these


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