Question Paper RRB Law Assistants Exam

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Below I am providing you some questions of from question paper of Law Assistants Exam:
Question Paper Law Assistants Exam
1. Before 1997, an appeal against the order of CAT had to be filed before:
a) High Court
b) Principal Bench
c) Supreme Court
d) None.
2. Limitation prescribed under AT Act, for filing case before CAT is
a) six months
b) One year
c) one year six months
d) three years.
3. An aggrieved employee, after submitting representation to Rly. Admn. Has to
normally wait for _____________ before filing case before CAT.
a) six months
b) One year
c) two years
d) three years
4. Sexual harassment of women at working place has been included in the conduct
rules as Rule 3C. This has been included after the judgement of Supreme Court
in:
a) Indira Sawaney
b) Vishaka Vs.State of Rajasthan
c) Shabano’s case
d) none of the above
5. Appointing authority in relation to a Railway Servant means:
a) an authority who actually appointed him
b) equal or higher authority empowered to make appointments to the post
c) any other authority
d) a&b only
6. RS (D&A) Rules are not applicable to:
a) any member of All India Services
b) RPF personnel
c) any person in casual employment
d) all of the above.
7. Which of the following not amounts to penalty:
a) Discharge of Railway servant for inefficiency due to failure to confirm to the
requisite standard of physical fitness
b) Discharge of Railway servant on reduction of the establishment
c) Both a &b
d) None of the above.
8. Report of fact finding enquiry when to be supplied to charged employee:
a) Always
b) Not necessary
c) When it is a listed document
d) None of the above
9. Under rules who can not act as Defense Helper:
a) Railway servant of lower rank
b) An Advocate
c) Law Asst
d) All the above persons
10. In how many enquiries a retired railway employee can participate simultaneously
as defense helper:
a) One
b) Three
c) Five
d) Seven
11. If additional documents are requested to be produced by the CE, IO:
a) Shall allow them
b) May agree if department has no objection
c) Shall permit if he feels relevant
d) Shall refer it to DA
12. When a prosecution witness is declared as hostile witness, the IO:
a) Can drop him
b) Can cross examine him
c) Can ask him not to attend the enquiry
d) None of the above
13. While holding enquiry, who have to fix the date, time & venue and inform the
Charged employee:
a) Inquiry officer
b) Disciplinary authority
c) presenting officer
d) Confidential section of the dept.
14. If the charged employee is illiterate, who has to explain him the charges during
preliminary enquiry:
a) CE has to arrange for it on his own
b) Inquiry Officer
c) Defense helper
d) None of the above
15. Inquiry into the truth of any imputation of misconduct or misbehaviour against a
railway servant is conducted under which rule of D&A rules 1968:
a) Rule 8
b) Rule 9
c) Rule 10
d) Rule 11
16. The President of India makes rules in exercise of the powers conferred by the
proviso of which Article of the Constitution:
a) Article 308
b) Article 309
c) Article 310
d) Article 311
17. Inquiry Officer can delegate his functions to:
a) Disciplinary authority
b) Defence helper
c) Presenting officer
d) He cannot delegate
18. D&A rules are applicable to the following persons only:
a) RPF personnel
b) Persons in casual employment
c) Every railway servant
d) All of the above
19. Inquiry Officer’s findings are binding on:
a) Charged employee
b) Disciplinary authority
c) Appellate authority
d) None of the above
20. When an Inquiry officer is replaced by another, the new IO has to proceed:
a) Afresh
b) From the stage left by the earlier IO
c) From the stage ordered by DA
d) From a stage considered just and proper by IO
21. Order passed by the Inquiring authority in the course of an enquiry is:
a)Appealable
b) Not appealable
c) Appeal lies to DA
d) Appeal lies to RA
22. During enquiry, who can allow additional defence documents/witnesses:
a) DA
b) Inquiry Officer
c) Presenting officer
d) All of the above
23. Where Inquiry Officer shall conduct Enquiry:
a) At his home
b) At official premises
c) At any place chosen by charged employee
d) None of the above
24. Who is competent to change IO when bias is alleged against him:
a) Disciplinary authority
b) Appointing authority
c) Revising authority
d) Any of the above
25. Standard of proof required in departmental enquiry:
a) As applicable in civil rules (CPC)
b) As applicable in Criminal rules (Cr PC)
c) Preponderance of probability
d) None of the above
26. Inquiry Officer shall submit his enquiry report to:
a) Defense helper
b) Charged employee
c) Revising authority
d) Disciplinary authority
27. Which of the following are the ingredients of a decree:
a) There must be adjudication
b) Such adjudication is given in a suit
c) Determination of rights of the parties
d) All of the above
28. An order means :
a) Formal expression of any civil court
b) It is not a decree
c) a & b
d) None of the above
29. Decree holder means:
a) Any person in whose favour a decree has been passed
b) Any person against whom a decree has been passed
c) a &b
d) None of the above
30. Judgement debtor means:
a) Any person in whose favour a decree has been passed
b) Any person against whom a decree has been passed
c) a &b
d) None of the above
31. A, residing in Hyderabad, beats B in Kolkotta. B may sue A at:
a) Hyderabad
b) Kolkotta
c) Either a or b
d) At any place in India
32. Pleadings should state :
a) Facts but not law
b) No evidence
c) a & b
d) None of the above
33. An ex parte decree means :
a) Decree passed in the absence of the defendant
b) Decree passed in the absence of the plaintiff
c) Decree passed in the absence of both the parties
d) None of the above
34. Sec 60 of CPC deals with:
a) Attachment of property
b) Auction of buildings
c) Declaring a person pauper
d) None of the above
35. Which of the following are liable for attachment under Sec 60:
a) Pension
b) Gratuity
c) Moiety calculated under the Act
d) None of the above
36. Garnishee means :
a) Judgement debtor
b) Decree holder
c) Judgement debtor’s debtor
d) None of the above
37. In execution of a decree, the following properties are not liable to attachment:
a) Tools of artisans
b) Necessary cooking utencils
c) Stipends and gratuities allowed to pensioners
d) All of the above
38. When suits are filed by or against the government, the authority to be named as
plaintiff or defendant, as the case may be, in the case of Central government
shall be:
a) Union of India
b) Designation of the authority
c) Name of the authority
d) Any of the above
39. When a suit is filed against railway, notice in writing under Sec 80 shall be
delivered on:
a) General Manager
b) Divisional Railway Manager
c) Officer concerned
d) None of the above
40. No suit shall be instituted against Central Government unless a notice in writing is
delivered. Which Section of CPC deals with this embargo:
a) Section 60
b) Sec 79
c) Sec 80
d) Sec 85
41. Under Sec 80 of CPC no suit shall be instituted unless a notice in writing is
delivered until the expiry of ____ months.
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
42. Without notice to the Central Government under Sec 80:
a) No suit can be filed
b) Suit can be filed with the leave of the court
c) Notice is not required to file suit
d) None of the above
43. Exemption from arrest and personal appearance of a public officer in respect of
any act purporting to be done by him in his official capacity is provided in CPC
under:
a) Sec 80
b) Sec 81
c) Sec 85
d) None of the above
44. Under Sec 82 of CPC, execution of decree against Union of India shall not be
issued unless it remained unsatisfied for a period of ________ months from the
date of decree:
a) One month
b) One and half
c) Two months
d) Three months
45. An appeal may lie against original decree passed:
a) Ex parte
b) In a consent decree
c) Both a & b
d) None of the above
46. Against orders passed in appeal on a decree, second appeal lies to High Court if:
a) A substantial question of law is involved
b) There is question of merit
c) Both a & b
d) None of the above
47. No second appeal lies from any decree, when the subject matter of the original
suit is for recovery of money not exceeding rupees :
a) Ten thousand
b) Twenty five thousand
c) Fifty thousand
d) Five thousand
48. A review by any aggrieved person can be filed against a decree or order when:
a) He filed an appeal
b) Though appeal is available but he did not prefer appeal
c) There is typographical error
d) None of the above
49. A review of order of principal munsiff court can be filed before :
a) Same court which passed the decree
b) Dist. court
c) High Court
d) Supreme Court
50. Caveat can be filed before the court in a suit or proceeding instituted or about to
be instituted. Such caveat shall remain in force for a period of:
a) 30 days
b) 60 days
c) 90 days
d) 120 days.
51. Under which section of CPC, inherent powers of courts can be exercised to pass
orders to meet the ends of justice:
a) Sec 150
b) Sec 151
c) Sec 152
d) Sec 136
52. A court has jurisdiction to correct any clerical or arithmetical mistakes in
judgements or orders or errors from any accidental slip or omission. This may be
done:
a) On its own motion
b) On the application by any of the parties
c) In both situations
d) Only in b
53. Execution Petition can be filed to execute a decree against government before
completion of _____ years from the date of decree.
[a] 1 year
[b] 3 years
[c] 5 years
[d] 12 years.
54. A money suit by Govt. arising out of a contract can be filed with in _____ years
from the date of cause of action arose.
[a] 3 years
[b] 5 years
c] 12 years
d] 30 years.
55. As per the Rly. Act 1989 “Rly Admn” in relation to a Govt. Rly. Means:
[a] Ministry of Rlys.
[b] DRM
[c] GM
[d] Chairman Rly. Bd.
56. Punitive charges are levied when:
a) Goods not removed from Rly. Premises.
b) Detention of rolling stock
c) Irregular Travelling detected
d) Wagons are over loaded
57. Wharfage Charges are levied for :
a) Goods not removed from Rly. Premises.
b) Detention of rolling stock
c) Irregular Travelling
d) Over loading of wagon
58. Demurrage Charges are levied for :
a) Not removing goods from Rly. Premises.
b) Detention of rolling stock
c) Irregular Travelling
d) Over loading of wagon
59. Excess charges are levied for:
a) Goods not removed from Rly. Premises.
b) Detention of rolling stock
c) Irregular Travelling
d) Over loading of wagon
60. Maximum carrying capacity of wagons and trucks shall be fixed under Sec. 72 [1]
of Rlys Act by:
[a] General Manager
b) Railway board
[c] Central Govt.
[d] State Govt.
61. According which section of Rly. Act, the property in the consignment covered by
a railway receipt shall pass to the consignee or the endorsee.
[a] 73
[b] 74
[c] 75
[d] None.
62. Maximum carrying capacity of wagons and trucks shall be fixed under Sec. 72 [1]
of Rlys Act by:
[a] General Manager
b) Railway Board
[c] Central Govt.
[d] State Govt.
63. Where a person loads goods in a wagon beyond its permissible carrying capacity
as exhibited, Rly. Admn. may recover:
[a] Extra charges
[b] Damages from consignee
[c] Charges by way of penalty form the consignor, the consignee or the endorsee, as
the case may be
[d] a& b
64. According which section of Rly. Act, the property in the consignment covered by
a railway receipt shall pass to the consignee or the endorsee.
[a] 73
[b] 74
[c] 75
[d] None.
65. The liability of Railway Administration for any loss, destruction, deterioration, nondelivery
of goods carried at owners risk rate is prescribed under Sec____ of
Railways Act:
[a] 94
[b] 95
[c] 96
[d] 97
66. Responsibility of a Railway Administration after termination of transit is governed
by Sec_________ of Railways Act.
[a] 99
[b] 98
[c] 97
[d] 96
67. Exceptions to General responsibility of a Railway Administration as carrier of
goods are enumerated under Sec:
[a] 91
[b] 92
[c] 93
[d] 94
68. When any goods entrusted to a Railway Administration for carriage are in a
defective conditions as a consequence of which they are liable to damage,
deterioration, leakage, wastage, Rlys liability is governed by Sec.
[a] 96
[b] 97
[c] 98
[d] 99
69. The responsibility of Railway Administration for the loss, destruction, damage,
deterioration or non-delivery of any luggage shall be in accordance with Sec.
[a] 98
[b] 100
[c] 99
[d] 97
70. Responsibility of a Railway administration for the loss, destruction, damage,
deterioration or non-delivery of any consignment due to false description of the
consignment is determined under Sec.
[a] 99
[b] 100
[c] 101
[d] 102
71. Where any consignment is entrusted to a railway Administration for carriage by
railway and the value of such consignment has not been declared, the amount of
liability shall be fixed with reference to its weight as laid down under Sec:
[a] 100
[b] 101
[c] 102
[d] 103
72. Where any goods, which under ordinary circumstances, would be carried in
covered wagon and would be liable to damage if carried otherwise, are carried in
open wagon with the consent of the consigner then the liability shall be as per
Sec:
[a] 104
[b] 103
[c] 102
[d] 101
73. A person shall not be entitled to claim compensation against railway
Administration for the loss, destruction etc., of goods carried by Railway unless a
notice there of is served by him as prescribed under Sec:
[a] 102
[b] 104
[c] 106
[d] 101
74. Notice of claim for compensation and refund of overcharge has to be served to
the railway Administration within a period of six months from the date of:
[a] Booking of consignment
[b] Loading of consignment
[c] Submission of forwarding note
[d] Entrustment of goods.
75. Notice of claim for compensation and refund of overcharge has to be served on
the railway Administration from the date of entrustment of goods within a period
of:
[a] Three months
[b] Six months
[c] One year
[d] Three years.
76. Compensation for the loss, destruction, damage, deterioration non-delivery of
goods is payable to:
[a] Consignee
[b] Endorsee possessing RR
[c] a or b
[d] None of the above
77. In any application before claims tribunal for compensation for loss, destruction,
damage, deterioration or non-delivery of goods, the burden of proving the
monetary loss actually sustained shall be in accordance with Sec.
[a] 108
[b] 109
[c] 110
[d] None
78. In an application before claims tribunal for compensation for loss, destruction,
damage, deterioration or non-delivery of goods, the burden of proving the
monetary loss actually sustained shall lie on:
[a] Consigner
[b] Consignee
[c] Endorsee
[d] Person claiming compensation.
79. Which of the following is not dependent as defined under Sec. 123 of the Act:
[a] Unmarried sister
[b] Widowed sister
[c] Widowed daughter-in-law
[d] Widowed mother-in-law.
80. Who are dependents as per Sec. 123 of Act:
[a] Son’s son
[b] Daughter’s daughter
[c] Daughter’s son
[d] Description not sufficient .
81. Central Govt. have the power to make rules with respect to compensation
payable for death as well as injuries under the Sec.
[a] 129
[b] 128
[c] 127
[d] 126
82. A railway servant where employment is essentially intermittent shall not be
employed for more than ___________ hours in a week.
[a] 72
[b] 75
[c] 76
[d] 78
83. A railway servant whose employment is continuous shall not be employed for
more than _________ has in a week on a two-weeks period of fourteen days.
[a] 64
[b] 54
[c] 74
[d] None
84. A railway servant whose employment is intensive shall not be employed for more
than ___ hours in a week on an average in a two-weekly period of fourteen days.
a) 45
[b] 54
[c] 64
[d] 72
85. Penalty for making a false statement in an application for compensation is
prescribed under Sec:
[a] 148
[b] 149
[c] 150
[d] 151
86. Which of the following is an attempt to wreck a train if a person:
[a] Takes up, removes, looses or displaces any rail or sleeper belonging to any
railway.
[b] Makes or shows or hides or removes any signal or light upon or near to any
railway
[c] Puts or throws upon or across any railway any wood, stone or other matter or
thing
[d] All the above.
87. Endangering safety of persons traveling by willful act or omission is an offence
according to:
[a] Sec. 152
[b] Sec. 153
[c] Sec. 154
[d] Sec. 155
88. Penalty for intoxication under Sec. 172 of Railways Act is prescribed for:
[a] Railway servant
[b] Any person
[c] Traveling public
[d] None
89. Which section of Rlys Act restricts execution of railway property such as rolling
stock, machinery, plant, tools etc., in a decree or order of any court:
[a] 185
[b] 186
[c] 187
[d] 188
90. As per Sec. 192 of Rlys Act, any notice or other document required by Railways
Act to be served on a Railway Administration may be served in the case of a
Zonal Railway, or the General Manager:
[a] By delivering to him
[b] By leaving it at his office
c] By regd. Post to his office address
[d] Either a, b or c
91. As per Sec. 126 of Railways Act, interim relief to the persons who are injured in a
train accident can be paid by:
[a] RCT
[b] Railway Administration
[c] DRM under whose jurisdiction accident occurred
[d] None of the above.
92. Which of the following comes under the definition of consumer:
a) A person who buys any goods for own consumption
b) A person who buys goods for commercial purpose
c) Any organisation which buys goods for resale
d) All of the above
93. A complainant means:
a) A consumer
b) A voluntary consumer organisation
c) A Central or State government which makes a complaint
d) All of the above
94. An Appeal against the order of Dist. Forum can be preferred to State Commission
within a period of JJ.. from the date of the order.
[a] 30 days
[b] 60 days
[c] 90 days
[d] 45 days
95. Dist. Forum shall have jurisdiction to entertain complaints where the value of the
goods or services and the compensation of any does not exceed rupees:
[a] 5 lakhs
[b] 20 lakhs
c) 21 lakhs
d) 25 lakhs
96. An appeal against the order of State Commission can be preferred to National
Commission with in a period of JJdays from the date of the order.
[a] 45
[b] 90
[c] 60
[d] 30
97. National Commission shall have the jurisdiction to entertain complaint where the
value of the goods or services and compensation, if any, claimed exceed JJ..:
[a] Rs. 50 lakhs
[b] Rs. 75 lakhs
[c] Rs. 1 crore
[d] Rs. 1.5 crores.
98. An appeal can be preferred to the Supreme Court against the order of National
Commission within a period of JJ from the date of order.
[a] 45 days
[b] 30 days
[c] 60 days
[d] 80 days
99. Section J.. of the Consumer Protection Act provides for penalties for failure or
omission to comply with any order made by the District Forum, State Commission
& National Commission:
[a] 26
[b] 27
[c] 28
[d] 30
100. The RCT Act, 1987 came into force w.e.f. JJJ.:
[a] 1-11-87
[b] 1-11-89
[c] 8-11-89
[d] 8-11-87
101. Limitation to make claim before RCT for loss destruction damage,
deterioration or non-delivery of animals or goods is JJ from the date on which
goods in question entrusted to Rlys.
[a] 1 year
[b] 2 years
[c] 3 years
[d] 6 years.
102. Application before RCT for compensation under Sec. 124, 124 A of the
Rly. Act 1989 can be made within JJ.. of the occurrence of the accident.
[a] 6 months
[b] 1 year
[c] 2 years
[d] 3 years
103. Application before RCT for claims refund of fare & freight can be made
within JJ years from the date on which the fare or freight is paid to the Rly.
Admn.
[a] 6 months
[b] 1 year
[c] 2 years
[d] 3 years.
104. Under Arbitration and conciliation Act,1996 number of members that can
constitute Arbitral Tribunal is
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Any odd number
105. Arbitral proceedings are deemed to have been commenced from the
date:
a) Arbitral Tribunal is constituted
b) Claim statement is filed
c) Reply to claim statement is filed
d) Notice demanding arbitration is served on the other party
106. Arbitrator is a judge:
a) Chosen by parties
b) Appointed by court at the request of party
c) Named in the arbitration agreement
d) Any one of the above
107. Arbitral Tribunal is bound by:
a) CPC
b) Evidence Act
c) a&b
d) None of the above
108. Arbitral Tribunal can take:
a) Only oral evidence b) Only documentary evidence
c) Both oral and documentary evidence
d) No evidence can be taken
109. Arbitral Tribunal is empowered to pass:
a) Interim order
b) Interim award
c) a or b
d) a & b
110. Under the Arbitration and conciliation Act, an Arbitral award will be
enforceable like a decree:
a) After expiry of 3 months
b) Immediately
c) After expiry of six months
d) It cannot be enforced.
111. Under Sec 31 (8) of A&C Act, the costs of Arbitral Tribunal can be fixed
by:
a) The parties
b) Courts
c) Arbitral Tribunal itself
d) None of the above
112. According to the arbitration Act, ‘waiver’ means:
a) To waive right to object
b) To waive right to claim
c) To waive right to appoint arbitrator
d) To waive right to defend claims
113. If the Arbitral Tribunal fails to conduct proceedings, it can be terminated:
a) By the claimant
b) By respondent
c) By the authority who appointed the Arbitral Tribunal
d) Court on an application by aggrieved party
114. If the Arbitral Tribunal consisting three members, the arbitral award
passed should be signed by:
a) All the members
b) Presiding arbitrator
c) Majority of the members
d) Any of the above
115. Out of three, only two members have signed the award:
a) It is not valid
b) It is valid provided reasons for not signing by the third arbitrator are recorded
c) It will be valid after obtaining 3rd member’s signature
d) None of the above
116. If the parties are aggrieved of the costs and expenses fixed by the Arbitral
Tribunal, they may approach civil court under:
a) Sec 34
b) Sec 37
c) Sec 39
d) Sec 21
117. As per the arbitration Act, the procedure to be followed by Arbitral
Tribunal by default will be:
a) As agreed by parties
b) As decided by the tribunal
c) Court procedure
d) As decided by presiding arbitrator
118. Once Arbitral Tribunal parts with the final award:
a) No corrections are permitted
b) Typographical errors only can be rectified
c) any mistakes can be corrected
d) none of the above
119. Additional award means:
a) there is no such definition
b) award passed with respect to additional claims
c) additional amounts for the same claims
d) award for the claims omitted in the original award.
120. Arbitral Tribunal can decide its own jurisdiction under:
a) Sec 13
b) Sec 14
c) Sec 15
d) Sec 16.
121. If the appointed arbitrator is not possessing requisite qualifications, then
the aggrieved party has to file application under:
a) sec 11
b) sec 12
c) sec 13
d) sec 16
122. The Chairman of the drafting committee of constituent assembly of India
was:
a) Dr.B.R.Ambedkar
b) Sri Babu Rajendra Prasad
c) Dri Sarvepalli Radha Krishnan
d) Sri Jawaharlal Nehru
123. The term “State’ defined in:
a) Article 12
b) Article 13
c) Article 14
d) Article 15
124. An appeal from the order of CAT lies to:
[a] High Court
[b] Supreme Court
[c] Industrial Tribunal
[d] Rly Board.
125. Equality before law – “the State shall not deny to any person equality
before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India” to
which Article this fundamental right refers?
a) Article 14
b) Article 15
c) Article 16
d) Article 17
126. Which Article states “The State shall not discriminate against any citizen
on the grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex place of birth or any of them” :
a) Article 14
b) Article 15
c) Article 16
d) Article 17
127. Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment is provided in:
a) Article 14
b) Article 15
c) Article 16
d) Article 17
128. ‘Creamy layer’ concept was expounded by Supreme Court in:
a) Indira Sawaney Vs.UOI
b) Balaji Vs. State of Mysore
c) Devasan Vs.UOI
d) Akhil Bharatiya Karmachari Sangh Vs.UOI
129. The Supreme Court in the following case, held that reservation shall not
exceed 50%:
a) Balaji Vs. State of Mysore
b) Devadasan Vs UOI
c) State of Kerala Vs.N.M.Thomas
d) Indira Sawaney Vs.UOI
130. Double jeopardy means:
a) A person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence twice
b) No person shall be punished for the same offence twice
c) No person shall be punished for any offence
d) A person shall be punished for an offence without committing it by him
131. Which Article of the Constitution says “No person shall be prosecuted and
punished for the same offence more than once”:
a) Article 20 (1)
b) Article 20 (2)
c) Article 20 (3)
d) Article 21
132. “Right to pollution free air” falls under which Article of Constitution:
a) Article 21
b) Article 22
c) Article 23
d) Article 24
133. Dr. Ambedkar, Chairman of the drafting committee of constituent
assembly of India, describes which Article is the very heart of the Constitution of
India:
a) Article 32
b) Article 226
c) Article 14
d) Article 16
134. Which Article of Constitution deals with ‘Free legal Aid to poor, illiterate
and indigent persons:
a) Article 37
b) Article 38
c) Article 39
d) Article 39 A
135. Supreme Court may accept an appeal by granting Special leave. The
power to grant such special leave is vested in the Supreme Court by :
a) Article 37
b) Article 136
c) Article 144
d) Article 226
136. Under Article 226 the High Court is empowered to issue Writs to
government authorities in the nature of:
a) Habeas Corpus
b) Prohibition, Mandamus
c) Quo warranto, certiorari
d) All of the above
137. When a writ of mandamus can be issued:
a) It is a legal remedy available under Constitution whenever there is infringement of
fundamental rights
b) It can be granted only against public authority
c) It can be granted only when there is legal duty cast on the public authority.
d) All of the above
138. All contracts made in the exercise of the executive power of the Union
shall be expressed to be made by:
a) The President
b) The Governor
c) Principal Secretary Concerned to the UOI
d) Minister concerned
139. If the requirements of Article 299 are not complied with, then the
consequences are :
a) The government is not bound by the contract because article 299 is mandatory
b) The Officer executing the contract would be personally bound
c) If the government enjoys the benefit of the contract, it is bound to recompense.
d) All of the above
140. Government of India may sue or be sued by the name of the Union of
India under which Article:
a) Article 299
b) Article 300
c) Article 302
d) None of the above
141. ‘Doctrine of pleasure’ was initially originated in which of the following
country:
a) France
b) Great Briton
c) America
d) India
142. Under which Article, ‘doctrine of pleasure’ is incorporated in Indian
Constitution
a) Article 300
b) Article 308
c) Article 310
d) Article 312
143. In which Article, the provisions relating to dismissal, removal, or reduction
in rank of persons employed in civil capacity under the Union or State is dealt
with :
a) Article 309
b) Article 310
c) Article 311
d) Article 312
144. What are the restrictions on the “doctrine of pleasure”:
a) Removal cannot be done by a subordinate authority than the appointing authority
b) Reasonable opportunity be given
c) Principles of natural justice have to be followed
d) All of the above
145. Which Article of the Constitution states that “the official language of the
Union shall be Hindi in Devanagari script. The form of numerals to be used for
the official purpose shall be the international form of Indian numerals” :
a) Article 340
b) Article 343
c) Article 344
d) Article 345
146. ‘It is not permissible to change the basic structure or frame work of the
Constitution’ .In which judgement, the Supreme Court made this observation:
a) Menaka Gandhi Vs. UOI
b)His Holiness Kesavananda Bharathi Sripadagalavaru Vs.State of Kerala
c) Minerva Mills Vs.UOI
d) Indira Gandhi Vs. Raj Narain
147. Right to information flows from which of the following Articles:
a) Articles 19 & 20
b) Articles 21 & 22
c) Articles 19 & 21
d) Articles 14 & 19
148. His Holiness Kesavananda Bharathi Sripadagalavaru Vs.State of Kerala
case is also known as the case of:
a) Fundamental rights case
b) Basic Structure case
c) Amendment case
d) None of the above
149. Govt. contracts are governed by Article __________ of Constitution of
India.
[a]300
[b] 301
[c] 311
[d] 299
150. Article __ of constitution provides safeguard to a Govt. servant before he
was removed/dismissed or compulsory retired from service:
a) 309
b) 310
c) 311
d) All of the above

[Quick Sam]

151. Starting point of an agreement is:
a) Invitation to offer
b) Offer/proposal
c) Acceptance
d) None of the above
152. A has a car. As he wants to sell it, he gave an advertisement in the news
papers. The advertisement of A is
a) An invitation to offer
b) Offer
c) Acceptance
d) None of the above
153. An agreement not enforceable by law is:
a) A valid agreement
b) A void agreement
c) A voidable agreement
d) None of the above
154. Standard form contracts are also called:
a) Contracts of adhesion
b) Compulsory contracts
c) Private legislations
d) All of the above
155. ‘Caveat emptor’ means:
a) Let the seller beware
b) Let the buyer beware
c) Agreement with Emperor
d) None of the above
156. Doctrine of Ubberrima fide (doctrine of utmost good faith) is mostly used
in:
a) Contracts of insurance
b) Shipping business
c) Railway contracts
d) None of the above
157. A promises to give to B Rs 25,000/-. Which one of the following is true:
a) It is not an agreement
b) It is voidable agreement
c) It is valid agreement
d) Consensus ad idem
158. A takes Rs.20,000/- as loan @ 18% interest p.a from B and executes a
promissory note in favour of B. This is
a) Void agreement
b) Voidable agreement
c) A Valid agreement
d) A negotiable instrument with no agreement.
159. Contracts which are opposed to public policy are:
a) Valid
b) Void
c) Voidable
d) None of the above
160. A agrees to sell to B his white horse for rupees five hundred or rupees
one thousand:
a) The agreement is valid
b) Void for uncertainity
c) Voidable at the option of B
d) b &c are correct
161. A agrees to pay B Rs.15,000/- if two straight lines should enclose a
space. This agreement is:
a) Valid
b) Void due to impossibility of performance
c) Viodable at the option of B
d) None of the above
162. Which section of Contract Act states that the effect of failure to perform at
fixed time in a contract where time is essential
a) Sec 54
b) Sec 55
c) Sec 56
d) Sce 57
163. A agrees with B to discover treasure by magic. The agreement is:
a) Void
b) Voidable at the option of B
c) Valid agreement
d) None of the above
164. Liquidated damages means :
a) Probable loss as a result of the breach of a contract
b) Damages on account of mistake caused from both sides
c) As much as earned, as much as liquidated
d) None of the above
165. A contract to perform the promise or discharge the liability of a third
person in case of his default is called:
a) Contract of guarantee
b) Contract of indemnity
c) Under taking contract
d) All of the above
166. Lien means:
a) A legal claim to hold property as security
b) A particular status
c) A line between two concepts
d) None of the above
167. An agency may be created:
a) By express or by implied conduct
b) By necessity
c) a&b
d) None of the above
168. To be a valid contract, an agreement must be have:
[a] Consideration
[b] Lawful object
[c] Free consent
[d] All.
169. A peon working in Railways met with an accident and injured while
carrying a file to another office. Whether He is:
a) Eligible for compensation under WC Act
b) Not eligible to receive compensation under WC Act
c) Eligible to receive compensation as exgratia payment
d) None of the above
170. A Senior Section Engineer, while going to Rail Nilayam to report to his
superior officer met with an accident in front of Rail Nilayam. He is:
a) Eligible for compensation under WC Act
b) Not eligible to receive compensation under WC Act
c) Eligible to receive compensation as exgratia payment
d) None of the above
171. The following come under the purview of WC Act :
a) Apprentices
b) Casual worker
c) RPF staff
d) None
172. Limitation within which claim for Workmen’s compensation should be
preferred from the date of occurrence of the accident:
a) One year
b) Two years
c) Three years
d) No limitation
173. Doctrine of notional extension of employment means:
a) The area beyond the precincts of the work place
b) Time beyond duty hours
c) Extend to the outer sphere of his area of working but the work is related to his
employment
d) All of the above
174. Injuries deemed to result in permanent total disablement are listed in:
a) Schedule-I, Part – I
b) Schedule –I Part II
c) Schedule III part A
d) Schedule III part B
175. For calculating compensation under Workmen Compensation Act, wages
can be taken as maximum of:
a) Rs.2000/- p.m
b) Rs.3500/-p.m
c) Rs.4000/- p.m
d) Rs.6500/-p.m
176. For claiming compensation under WC Act, a workman or in case of death,
his legal representatives has to approach:
a) Civil court
b) Commissioner under the Act
c) High Court
d) Sessions Court
177. An Award passed by the authority under W.C. Act can be appealed
before:
[a] Regional Labour Commissioner
[b] Chief Labour Commissioner
[c] High Court
[d] Dist Court.
178. Fines imposed on workman can be recovered from the wages. The
maximum amount of fine shall not exceed:
a) 3% of wages
b) 5% of wages
c) 7% of wages
d) 10% of wages
179. Recovery of fines shall be done within:
a) 60 days
b) 90 days
c) 120 days
d) 150 days
180. Payment of wages Act does not apply to employees drawing wages
________ and above.
a) Rs.400/-
b) Rs. 1000/-
c) Rs.2,500/-
d) Rs.6500/-
181. Appeal from authority under Payment of wages Act lies to:
a) District Judge
b) High Court
c) Labour court
d) Any of the above.
182. In Railways the minimum wages Act applies to:
a) Porters loading/unloading in goods sheds
b) Employees in administrative offices
c) Employees in workshops
d) None of the above
183. I.D.Act is not applicable to :
a) Nurses
b) Teachers
c) RPF
d) All of the of the above
184. Industrial disputes means any dispute or difference between:
a) Employers and Employers
b) Employer and Workmen
c) Workmen and Workmen
d) All of the above
185. Under Industrial Disputes Act, Railway is:
a) Public Utility Service
b) Essential service
c) Public transportation service
d) All of the above
186. After due process and enquiry a worker in Lallaguda Workshop was
dismissed from service. It Is:
a) Deemed to be industrial dispute
b) Essentially personal dispute
c) To be considered impersonal dispute
d) None of the above
187. An appeal from the award of Industrial tribunal lies to:
a) National Tribunal
b) High Court
c) Supreme Court
d) No appeal lies
188. It is the duty of the employer to maintain the muster rolls of every
workmen. Which section deals with this provision:
a) Sec 25-D
b) Sec 25-E
c) Sec 25-F
d) None
189. When a workman is laid off, he is not entitled for any compensation when:
a) If he refuses to accept any alternative appointment
b) If he does not present for work at the establishment at the appointed time
c) Both a&b
d) Compensation is compulsory
190. No workman employed in any industry who has been in continuous
service for not less than one year under an employer shall be retrenched subject
to certain conditions. Which section deals with this provision:
a) Sec 25-D
b) Sec 25-E
c) Sec 25-F
d) None
191. Penalty for illegal strike and lockouts is provided under which of the
following sections:
a) Sec 25
b) Sec 26
c) Sec 33
d) None
192. For recovery of money due from an employer, workman has to file
application before under the following section:
a) Sec 26
b) Sec 33 A
c) Sec 33 b
d) 33 C
193. It is the duty of every employer to publish seniority list of casual labour
before retrenchment. Which section deals with this provision:
a) Sec 25 E
b) Sec 25 F
c) Sec 25 A
d) Sec H
194. Contract labour (Regulation and abolition) Act applies to establishments
wherein ___________ number of workmen employed during the preceding one
year:
a) Twelve
b) Twenty
c) Twenty four
d) Thirty
195. Notification for prohibition of contract labour in the establishments can be
issued under : a) Sec 7
b) Sec 8
c) Sec 9
d) Sec 10
PART – B
Objective questions (descriptive)
196. A railway servant shall be deemed to have been placed under suspension
when:
a) he was detained in custody
b) he was detained in custody for more than 24 hours
c) when he was detained in custody for more than 48 hours
d) Any of the above
197. When an order of suspension is made or deemed to have been made, the
suspension shall continue to remain in force
a) Till he is acquitted from criminal case
b) Till he gets a bail
c) Till the suspension is revoked
d) Any of the above
198. Disciplinary proceedings against retired Railway servant can be initiated
by:
a) DA as on the date of retirement
b) Appointing authority or of a grade equal as on the date of retirement
c) President of India
d) None of the above
199. When bias is attributed to the IO, the IO has to:
a) Cease to function as IO once for all
b) Proceed with the enquiry
c) Seek advise from Railway advocate
d) Stop Inquiry and seek advise from DA
200. At what stage new documents/ witnesses by prosecution can be allowed
by IO:
a) At any time
b) Before commencement of defense case
c) Before commencement of prosecution case
d) None of the above
201. A retired Rly. Servant, aggrieved by non-release of DCRG, filed a
complaint before Dist. Forum. What would be your defence?
a) Consumer forum has no jurisdiction
b) He should go to High Court
c) (a) & (b)
d) None of the above
202. If prosecution witness is not attending the enquiry, IO has to:
a) Drop him
b) Summon him to attend
c) Postpone enquiry for next hearing
d) Any of the above
203. If a document is requested by the CE, IO:
a) may refuse straight away
b) IO may refuse by giving his ruling
c) may leave it to the discretion of the DA
d) Any of the above
204. If the charged employee complains that he could not attend enquiry
because of non payment of subsistence allowance, IO has to:
a) Arrange for the same
b) Conduct the enquiry ex parte
c) Advise the DA to arrange subsistence allowance
d) Ask the CE to make his own arrangements to attend the enquiry
205. Enquiry in major penalty charge sheet is not compulsory when:
a) DA decides not to conduct enquiry
b) Charged employee admits the charges
c) Charged employee is out of country
d) Charge sheet cannot be served due to absconding
206. When is an ex parte enquiry legal:
a) When Defence helper is not available but CE is present
b) When unable to serve notice on CE is not present
c) When DA directs in writing to do so
d) When CE does not attend the enquiry inspite of notice
207. Who among the following cannot act as IO:
a) An officer who had conducted fact finding enquiry
b) A person who is interested in punishing the charged employee
c) A person who has personal Knowledge in the charges
d) All of the above
208. Which of the following is correct:
a) DA can remit the matter back to the Inquiry officer for further enquiry
b) DA has to accept Inquiry Officer’s report
c) DA has to refer the matter to appellate authority
d) DA has to report to DRM
209. When DA did not accept IO’s report:
a) He has to record his reasons for such disagreement and send a copy of his
disagreement to charged employee for his representation
b) After recording reasons he can impose penalty
c) DA can straightaway impose penalty, reasons are not essentially to be recorded.
d) None of the above
210. Before imposing minor penalties:
a) An enquiry has to be conducted to meet Principles of natural justice
b) An enquiry is to be conducted when charged employee specifically requests
c) An enquiry is to be conducted when DA decides so
d) All of the above
211. Enquiry can be dispensed with in the following cases:
a) Where the penalty imposed on a railway servant on the ground of conduct which
has led to his conviction on a criminal charge
b) In the opinion of DA enquiry is not reasonably possible
c) Both a & b
d) Employee is unauthorisedly absent.
212. Services of a permanent Rly. Employee are governed by:
a) Terms of agreement at the time of appointment.
b) Terms of contract entered between employee & Rly. Admn.
c) Statutory Rules made from time to time.
d) Rules framed by UPSC
213. An employee working with South Eastern Rly. Kolkatta, on retirement
settled in Vijayawada. He had some problem with his pension payment. He can
file an OA before CAT Bench of:
a] Kolkatta
b] Hyderabad
c] Any where in India
d] Either a or b
214. ‘A’ living in Vijayawada made a transaction with “B’ at Khammam. ‘B’
resides in Warangal. The two agreed that when any dispute arise, they may file
case before Courts at Hyderabad for convenience sake. Parties:
a) Can decide to file case before any court they choose
b) Can give mutual consent as to the territorial jurisdiction of a court
c) Territorial jurisdiction of a court depends upon the place of residence
d) Any of the above
215. “No court shall proceed with the trial of any suit in which the matter in
issue is also directly and substantially in issue in a previously instituted suit
between the same parties under the same title in the same or in any other court
in IndiaJ.”. This section refers to:
a) Res sub judice (stay of the suit)
b) Res judicata
c) Res integra
d) None of the above.
216. ‘A’ files a suit against ‘B’ for declaration that he is entitled to certain lands
as heir of ‘C’. The suit was dismissed. ‘A’ filed another suit claiming the same
property on the ground of adverse possession. This suit is:
a) Barred by res judicata
b) Res sub judice
c) a & b
d) None of the above
217. ‘A’ sues ‘B’ for possession of a house. However, the house belongs to ‘C’
and is in his possession. This suit is:
a) Maintainable
b) Not maintainable for non joinder of necessary party
c) Not maintainable for mis joinder of party
d) None of the above
218. ‘A’ a Govt. employee obtained loan from a Bank under a declaration from
his salary drawing authority, undertaking to remit the amount from his monthly
salary bills. On default, bank filed suit against drawing officer and the loanee for a
direction and damages:
a) Such a suit is maintainable
b) Suit is not maintainable because there is no notice to the govt.
c) a or b
d) None of the above
219. Who is not a dependent for the purpose of liability of Railway
administration for the death to passengers due to accident:
[a] A minor child of a pre-deceased daughter, if wholly dependent on the deceased
passenger
[b] Widowed daughter-in-law and a minor child of a pre-deceased son if dependent
wholly or partly on the deceased passenger
[c] Paternal grand parent of the deceased passenger irrespective of dependency
[d] Paternal grand parent wholly dependent on the deceased passenger.
220. Which of the following employment of a railway servant does not belong
to ‘excluded’ category as per Sec. 130 of Rlys Act?
[a] Railway servants employed in a marginal or confidential capacity.
[b] A canteen worker
[c] Staff of the railway schools imparting technical training or academic education
[d] None of the above.
221. If any person, with intent to defraud a railway Administration, uses a
single pass or ticket which has already been used on a previous journey, he shall
be liable to pay.
[a] Excess charge
[b] Ordinary single fare for the distance which he travelled
[c] a& b
[d] None of the above.
222. Fraudulently travelling or attempting to travel without proper pass or
ticket, attracts provision of Sec. 137 of Rlys Act which prescribes punishment of:
[a] Imprisonment for six months
[b] Imprisonment for a term which may extend up to six months
[c] Either a or b
[d] None of the above.
223. If any person, not being a railway servant or an agent authorized in this
behalf sells or attempts to sell any ticket in order to enable any other person to
travel there with:
[a] He shall forfeit the ticket which he sells or attempts to sell
[b] Shall be punishment with imprisonment which may extend to three months
[c] Punishable with fine which may extend to five hundred rupees
[d] All of the above.
224. Under ___________ section of Railway Act, penalty of imprisonment for a
term which may extend to three years or with fine which may extend to ten
thousand rupees or with both is for the offence of:
[a] Hawking and begging in railway carriage
[b] Carrying unauthorized business of procuring and supplying of railway tickets
[c] Maliciously wrecking or attempting to wreck a train
[d] Described in Sec. 142
225. Which are of the following is not an offence as per Railways Act?
[a] Entering into a compartment reserved
[b] A male, Entering carriage or other place reserved for females
[c] Traveling on roof step or engine of a train
[d] Stretching the arms through widow, while travelling
226. Which of the following is not an offence as per Railways Act?
[a] Giving false account of goods
[b] Unlawfully bringing dangerous goods on a railway
[c] Unlawfully bringing offensive goods on a railway
[d] None of the above.
227. If any person commits any offence mentioned in Sec. 137 to 139, 141 to
147, 153 to 157, 159 to 167 and 172 to 176, he may be arrested, without warrant
or other written authority, by the officer authorized by a notified order of the
Central Govt. who is that authorized officer?
[a] Head Constable of RPF
[b] Head Constable of GRP
[c] All the Officers of and above the rank of ASI of RPF
[d] All the Officers of and above the rank of SI of GRP
228. Which of the following power is not vested with authorized officer under
Sec. 180 B of Rlys Act?
[a] Summon and enforce the attendance of any person
[b] Require the discovery and production of any document
[c] Remand any person to the custody of authorized officer not exceeding 7 days
[d]None of the above.
229. When any person is arrested by the officer authorized for an offence
punishable under Railways Act, such officer shall proceed to inquire into the
charge as per the provisions of Cr PC. For this purpose he shall exercise same
power as that of:
[a] 1st Class Magistrate
[b] 2nd Class magistrate
[c] Officer in charge of a police station
[d] None
230. Entries made in the records or other documents of a railway
Administration or production of a copy of the entries certified by the officer:
[a] Shall not be admitted as evidence
[b] Shall be admitted as evidence
[c] May be admitted at the discretion of court
[d] None of the above
231. Which one of the following matter is not within the jurisdiction of RRT:
[a] Charging for the carriage of any commodity between two stations at a rate which
is unreasonable.
[b] Classification or re-classification of any commodity
[c] Contravention of the provision of Section 70 of Rly. Act 1989
[d] Levying any other charge which is un-reasonable.
232. Which one of the following matters is within the jurisdiction of RRT:
[a] Fixation of wharfage & demurrage charges
[b] Allegation of undue preference to a person or any particular traffic
[c] Classification or re-classification of any commodity
[d] a & b
233. Which one of the following statement is incorrect.
a] Every person entrusting any goods to a railway administration for carriage shall
execute a forwarding note
b) Forwarding note means document executed under Sec 64 of Railways Act
c) The form of forwarding note shall be prescribed by the Central Govt.
d) Forwarding note is issued by consignor to the consignee.
234. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
a) Railway receipt is issued either for carriage of passengers or goods
b) Railway receipt is only an acknowledgement of goods received
c) A mutually agreed format can be adopted for Railway receipt
d)A railway receipt shall be prima facie evidence of the weight and number of packets
stated therein.
235. Which one of the following statements is incorrect.
[a] Rly. Admn. shall have the right to re-measure, re-weigh or reclassifiy any
consignment
[b] Re-calculate the freight and other charges
[c] Correct any other error or collect any amount that may have been omitted to be
charged
[d] Re-book the consignment to another destination
236. As per Sec. 79 of the Railway Act, which one of the following statements
is incorrect:
a] No re-weighment is permissible even if requested by consignee in case of
perishable that are likely to lose weight in transit
[b] No request for weighment of consignment in wagon-load or train-load shall be
allowed if the weighment is not feasible due to congestion in the yard
[c] No re -weighment shall be allowed if goods booked at owners risk rate
[d] Re-weighment, if agreed will be free of any charges.
237. When consignment arrives in a damaged condition or shows signs of
having been tampered with, under Sec. 82 of the Railways Act which statement is
correct:
[a] Rly. Admn shall give open delivery
[b] A part of consignment can be delivered duly furnishing partial delivery certificate
[c] If the consignee or endorsee refuses to take such delivery, shall be subject to
wharfage charges
[d] All of the above.
238. Which of the following statement is not correct:
[a] If any person fails to take delivery of any consignment, it shall be treated as
unclaimed
b] Rly. Admn may sell unclaimed perishable consignment as per Sec.83 [2]
[c] In case of non-perishable consignment, issue notice to consignee to remove the
goods within seven days from the receipt there of
[d] Free time is not applicable for perishable traffic.
239. Which of the statements is incorrect:
a] There is no other provision than Sec. 83 to sell the perishable consignment
[b] Where traffic on any route is intercepted and there is no other route to direct the
consignment, then Rly. Admn may sell the perishable consignment to prevent loss [c]
Right of Rly to recover by suit any freight charge or other expenses shall not be
affected by sale under Sec. 83, to 95
[d] Rly. Admn. Shall retains the freight and other charges out of the sale proceeds
including expenses for the sale and the surplus, if any, shall be rendered to the
person entitled there to.
240. Which of the following factors is not relevant for Central govt. to consider
before notifying a station under Sec. 89 of the Act:
[a] The volume of traffic and the storage space available at such Rly. Station
[b] The nature and quantities of goods generally booked to such railway station
[c] The number of wagons likely to be held up at such railway station if goods are not
removed there from quickly
[d] Essential nature of the commodity for public use.
241. Which of the following cannot be defense against responsibility of Rly.
Admn. as carrier of goods?
[a] Act or conscious negligence of the consignor or the consignee
[b] Act or omission of the agent or servant of the consignor or the consignee or the
endorsee
[c] Act or omission of Rly officials while accepting goods for carriage
[d] Orders or restriction imposed by the Central Govt. or State Govt. or by an officer
authorized in this behalf.
242. Which of the following statements is not correct:
[a] Rly. Admn. Shall not be responsible for any loss, destruction etc, of consignment
carried at owners risk rate
[b] Even if it is owner’s risk rate Rly is liable if it is proved that such loss destruction
non-delivery due to railway’s negligence
[c] Under railway risk rate, negligence has to be proved by the consignee
[d] None of the above
243. Normal carrying capacity of every wagon or truck in its possession should
be determined by Rly. Admn and shall:
[a] Exhibit in conspicuous manner at all Rly. Stations
[b] Display at all HQ/Divisional Offices, wagon depot
[c] Exhibit in a conspicuous manner on the outside of every such wagon or truck
[d] All of the above.
244. Which one of the following statements is incorrect:
[a] Rly. Admn. have the right ,before delivery, to re-measure, re-weigh or reclassify
any consignment
[b] Re-calculate the freight and other charges
[c] Correct any other error or collect any amount that may have been omitted to be
charged
[d] Re-book the consignment to another destination at its option
245. Which one of the following statements is incorrect, as per Sec. 79 of the
Act?
a] No re-weightment is permissible even if requested by consignee in case of
perishable that are likely to lose weight in transit
[b] No request for weighment of consignment in wagon-load or train-load shall be
allowed if the weighment is not feasible due to congestion in the yard
[c] No reweighment shall be allowed of goods booked at owners risk rate
[d] Re-weighment, if agreed will be free of any charges.
246. Where the consignment arrives in a damaged condition or shown signs of
having been tampered with, then under Sec. 82 of the Act, which statement is
correct:
a) Rly. Admn shall give open delivery
[b] A part of consignment can be delivered duly furnishing partial delivery certificate
[c] If the consignee or endorsee refuses to take such delivery, shall be subject to
wharfage charges
[d] All of the above are correct
247. Which of the following statements is incorrect:
[a] If consignee/endorsee fail to pay on demand the freight in respect of any
consignment, Rly. Admn may detain that consignment
[b] If that consignment is delivered, any other consignment of such portion may be
detained
[c] If the consignment in question is perishable it should not be detained
[d] If it is not perishable in nature, sell by public auction.
248. Which of the following statement is correct: If any person fails to take
delivery of any consignment,
a) It shall be treated as unclaimed
[b] Rly. Admn may sell unclaimed perishable consignment as per Sec.83 [2]
[c] In case of non-perishable consignment to issue notice to remove the goods within
seven days from the receipt there of
[d] All of the above
249. Which of the statements is incorrect:
[a] There is no other provision other than Sec. 83 to sell the perishable consignment
[b] Where traffic or any route is intercepted and there is no other route to direct the
consignment, then Rly. Admn may sell the perishable consignment to prevent loss
[c] Right of Rly to recover by suit any freight charge or other expenses shall not be
affected by sale under Sec. 83 to 95
[d] Rly. Admn. shall retain the freight and other charges out of the sale proceeds
including expenses for the sale and the surplus, if any, shall be rendered to the
person entitled thereto.
250. Which of the following factors, central govt. shall consider before notifying
a station under Sec. 89 of the Act:
[a] The volume of traffic and the storage space available at such Rly. Station
[b] The nature and quantities of goods generally booked to such railway station
[c] The number of wagons likely to be held up at such railway station if goods are not
removed there from quickly
[d] Either a, b, or c
251. Which of the following is not an exception to general responsibility of Rly.
Admn. as carrier of goods:
[a] Act or conscious negligence of the consignor or the consignee
[b] Act or omission of the agent or servant of the consignor or the consignee or the
endorse
[c] Act or omission of Rly officials while accepting goods for carriage
[d] Orders or restriction imposed by the central govt. or state govt. or by an officer
authorized in this behalf.
252. Rly. Admn. Shall not be responsible for any loss, destruction, damage or
deterioration of goods. In thi context, which of the following statements is
incorrect:
[a] Where goods are required to be loaded at a siding not belonging to a railway
admn. for carriage by Rly.
[b] Where any consignment is required to be delivered by a railway administration at
a siding not belonging to a railway admn.
[c] In case of loading, when the wagon containing the goods has been placed at the
specified point of inter charge of wagons between the siding and the railway
admn.with or without informing rly. Admn. in this regard
[d] None of the above
253. Which of the following statements is not correct:
[a] Rly. Admn. Shall not be responsible for any loss, destruction etc, when
consignment is carried at owners risk rate
[b] Even if it is at owner’s risk rate Rly is liable if it is proved that such loss destruction
non-delivery is because of Railways.
[c] Rly. Admn. is not bound to disclose to the consigner how the consignment was
dealt when package found to be tampered with
[d] None of the above
254. Which of the following statement is incorrect:
a] Every person entrusting any goods to a railway administration for carriage shall
execute a forwarding note
b) Forwarding note means document executed under Sec 64 of Railways Act
c) The form of forwarding note is prescribed by the Central Govt.
d) Forwarding note is issued by consignor to the consignee.
255. Which of the following statement is correct:
a) Railway receipt is issued either for carriage of passengers or goods
b) Railway receipt is the acknowledgement of goods received
c) A mutually agreed format can be adopted for Railway receipt
d)A railway receipt shall be prima facie evidence of the weight and number of packets
stated therein.
256. Normal carrying capacity of every wagon or truck in its possession should
determine by Rly. Admn and shall :
[a] Exhibit in conspicuous manner at all Rly. Stations
[b] display at all HQ/Divisional Offices, wagon depots
[c] exhibit in a conspicuous manner on the outside of every such wagon or truck
[d] all of the above.
257. Rly. Administration if it considers necessary, or expedient so to do, it may
vary the normal carrying capacity of:
[a] Wagon carrying any specified class of goods
[b] Class of wagons or trucks of any specified type
[c] a&b above
[d] None of the above.
258. Where a person loads goods in a wagon beyond its permissible carrying
capacity as exhibited, Rly. Admn. may recover
[a] Extra charges
[b] Damages from consignee
[c] Charges by way of penalty from the consignor, the consignee or the endorsee, as
the case may be
[d]Any of the above
259. No appeal by a person who is required to pay any amount in terms of an
order of the National Commission shall be entertained by the Supreme Court
unless that person had deposited JJ% of that amount or J.. thousand
whichever is less.
[a] 25%, 25
[b] 50%, 50
[c] 50%, 75
[d] 75%, 75
260. Appeal by a person who is required to pay any amount in terms of an
order of State Commission shall not be entertained by the National Commission
unless the appellant has deposited J..%age of the amount or RsJJ. Thousand
which ever is less.
[a] 25, 25
[b] 25, 35
[c] 50, 25
[d] 50, 35.
261. State Commission shall have the jurisdiction to entertain the complaint
where the value of the goods or services and compensation if any, claimed
exceeds rupees JJJ lakhs but does not exceed rupees JJJ.:
[a] 1, one crore
[b] 20, one crore
[c] 20, 75
d) 25, 75
262. Appeal by a person who is required to pay any amount in terms of an
order of Dist. Forum shall not be entertained by State Commission unless the
appellant has deposited JJ percent of that amount or ---- thousand rupees
which ever is less.
[a] 25, 25
b) 25, 50
[c]50, 25
[d 50, 50
263. Which one of the following powers is vested in District Forum under C.P.
Act.
a)Summoning and examining witness on oath.
b) Discovery and production of any document as evidence.
c)Reception of evidence on affidavits.
d) All the above.
264. In which one of the following National Commission has no jurisdiction?
a) To entertain an appeal against orders of State Commission.
b) To entertain a complaint the value of which is Rs.50,00,000/-.
c) To call for records from State Commission where it appears it has exercised
jurisdiction not vested in it
d) All the above.
265. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
a) Consumer Fora are not bound by rules under Civil Procedure Code
b) National Commission can suo motu issue notice to impose penalty if it feels that its
orders are not complied with.
c) Consumer Forum has powers to condone delay where limitation is prescribed in
the Act.
d) When an order is passed by National Commission ex parte, the aggrieved can file
a petition to set aside the said order.
266. Which one of the following is not correct with respect to frivolous or
vexatious complaints:
a) While disposing such petitions, Forum shall record reasons.
b) Awarding costs is not permissible
c) Costs shall not exceed Rs.10,000/-
d) Costs shall be paid to the opposite party and not paid to the Forum.
267. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
a) Commission shall rely on evidence by affidavits and no need of deposition before
it.
b) From a complaint first appeal lies to State Forum and second appeal lies to
National Commission.
c) Limitation for filing a complaint is 2 years irrespective of whether it is District
Forum, State Commission or National Commission.
d) The order passed U/S.27 imposing penalty is appealable.
268. Which of the following is not a correct statement :
[a] RCT shall be guided by principles of natural justice.
[b] RCT is bound by procedure laid down by the code of civil procedure.
[c] Subject to the other provisions of RCT Act and of any rules the claims Tribunal
shall have powers to regulate its own procedure including the fixing of places and
time of its enquiry.
[d] b or c is correct.
269. Which of the following statement is not correct:
[a] An appeal shall lie from every order not being on interim order of RCT to the High
Court.
[b] An appeal shall lie from an order passed by the RCT with the consent of parties.
[c] Every appeal u/s 23 of RCT Act shall be preferred within 90 days from the date of
order appealed against.
[d] An appeal shall not lies to Rly. Rates Tribunal against the order passed by the
RCT.
270. Arbitral Tribunal can admit expert evidence of a person:
a) Who is an expert in the subject and also had some nexus with the case
b) Expert with no nexus with the case
c) Any outsider, who can depose
d) Who is an advocate
271. If the claimant fails to submit his claim statement even after opportunities
then, arbitral Tribunal:
a) Can decide the claims on the basis of record
b) Shall terminate the proceedings
c) Shall pass ex parte orders
d) Can do (a) or (b)
272. If the respondent do not come forward with the reply statement even after
repeated opportunities, Arbitral Tribunal:
a) Shall terminate the arbitral proceedings
b) Can decide claims on the basis of record
c) Act as per a or b as he deems fit
d) Pass award based on claim
273. The essentials of a valid contract are:
a) Purpose of offer, its legal consequences
b) Intention, consent & conduct of the party
c) Communication and consideration
d) All of the above
274. Consensus ad idem means:
a) Contracting parties agree to a thing with the same meaning
b) Consequence of agreement without proper meaning
c) Consent of one of the parties
d) None of the above
275. Which of the following is an example for “invitation to offer’:
a) A tender
b) Railway time table
c) Catalogue of a bookseller/menu card in hotel
d) All of the above
276. ”Acceptance is to offer what a lighted match is to a train of gunpowder”
what is the import of this statement:
a) Acceptance results irresistible change in status of parties
b) Acceptance replaces the offer with a binding contract
c) Once accepted, none of the parties can retract
d) All of the above
277. When the person to whom the proposal is made, signifies his assent
thereto, the proposal is said to be accepted. A proposal, when accepted,
becomes:
a) A valid proposal
b) Promise
c) Consideration
d) None of the above
278. ‘A’ has a car. He writes a letter to B proposing to sell it for Rs.50,000/-.
The communication of proposal is complete against A:
a) When ‘B’ acknowledges the letter
b) When ‘A’ writes the letter
c) When ‘A’ drops the letter in post box
d) When ‘B’ receives the letter and accepts it.
279. In certain cases there may be no agreement and contract between the
parties. However, a person making a promise may become bound to obey his
promise. This is called:
a) Standard form contract
b) Promissory estoppel
c) Wager contract
d) None of the above
280. ‘A’, a house owner enters into an agreement to make an agreement to
lease his house to B after one year. This agreement is:
a) Not enforceable by law
b) Entered for the purpose of another agreement cannot be enforceable
c) Law does not recognise a contract to enter into a contract
d) All of the above
281. ‘A’, for natural love and affection, promises to give his son, B, Rs 20,000/-
. A puts his promise to ‘B’, into writing and registers it. This is without
consideration. Which of the following is true:
a) Void agreement
b) Voidable agreement
c) A Valid agreement
d) No agreement
282. Privity of contract means:
a) In contract between private parties, Govt can sue
b) A stranger to a contract cannot sue
c) A contract between the private parties
d) None of the above
283. Which of the following statement is not correct? Every private and public
company is a juristic person. Hence the company:
a) Can enter into contracts on their own name
b) Can sue or be sued for breach of contracts
c) Enter into any contract which shall be within the bounds of the articles of
association and memorandum of association
d) All of the above
284. In some instances, mere silence becomes fraud, and it is the duty of the
person who enters that contract to reveal the truth. Which one is an exception?
a) Insurance contracts
b) Prtnership agreements
c) Fmily settlement agreements
d) None of the above
285. A promises to obtain for B employment in Railways by using his official
position. In return B promises to pay Rs.50,000/- to A. the agreement is:
a) Vod
b) Vidable
c) Eforceable
d) B can file a case for specific performance of the agreement.
286. A promises B to drop prosecution which he has instituted against B for
robbery and B promises to restore the value of the things taken. This agreement
is:
a) Void agreement being the object is unlawful
b) Voidable agreement
c) A valid agreement
d) None of the above.
287. ‘A agrees to sell to B hundred tons of oil’. There is nothing whatever to
show what kind of oil was intended. The agreement is:
a) Void for uncertainity
b) Voidable agreement at the option of B
c) A Valid agreement
d) Void as it is against public law.
288. ‘A’ agrees to pay ‘B’ a sum of money, if a certain ship does not return.
The ship is sunk:
a) The contract is against public policy. Hence it is void
b) The contract is viodable at the option of ‘A’
c) The contract can be enforced when the ship sinks
d) None of the above
289. ‘A’ promises to deliver goods to ‘B’ on a certain day on payment of Rs
25,000/-. ‘A’ dies before that day. ‘B’ sues ‘A’s representatives for specific
performance of contract. A’s representatives challenge it.
a) The agreement is voidable at the option of ‘A’s representatives
b) The agreement is abated against ‘A’s representatives
c) ‘A’s representatives are bound to deliver the goods to ‘B’, and ‘B is bound to pay
the amount to perform
d) None of the above.
290. ‘A’, a singer enters into a contract with ‘B’, manager of a theatre to sing at
his theatre two nights in every week during the next two months, and ‘B’ engages
to pay her Rs 1000/- for each night’s performance. On the sixth night ‘A’ wilfully
absents herself from the theatre.
a) ‘B’ has no other choice but to continue her for the rest of the nights
b) ‘B’ is at liberty to put an end to the contract
c) ‘A’ is at liberty to put an end to the contract
d) None of the above
291. ‘A’ promises to paint a picture for ‘B’. ‘A’ must perform this promise
personally. ‘A’ dies before the completion of the painting. ‘B’ sues ‘A’s
representatives for specific performance of the contract or compensation:
a) Court cannot order for specific performance of the contract.
b) ‘B’ is entitled for specific performance of the contract from ‘A’s representatives
c) ‘B’ is entitled to compensation from A’s representatives.
d) None of the above
292. A, B, C jointly promise to pay ‘D’ Rs 30,000/-. ‘D’ may:
a) Sue A, B, and C for recovery of the amount
b) Sue A, B, or C for recovery of Rs 30,000/-
c) ‘D’ cannot sue A or B or C for recovery of Rs 30,000/- each.
d) Statements a & b are correct.
293. Novation means:
a) A new contract is substituted for an existing one, but the parties must be the same
b) Novation should take place before expiry of the time of the performance of the
original contract
c) Consensus of the parties is necessary, and if there is breach of contract arises,
there could be no novation.
d) All of the above
294. ‘A’ a merchant leaves goods at B’s house by mistake. ‘B’ treats the goods
as his own:
a) It is a bonafide mistake of B to treat A’s goods as his own. There is no fault of ‘B’
b) It is the fault of A to leave the goods. Therefore A is not entitled to receive any
payment for such goods
c) ‘B’ is bound to pay ‘A’ for the goods under quasi contractual obligation
d) None of the above
295. ‘A’ and ‘B’ jointly owe Rs 20,000/- to ‘C’. ‘A’ alone pays the amount to ‘C’.
This fact is not known to ‘B’. ‘B’ pays Rs 20,000/- to ‘C’:
a) ‘C’ should not have taken the amount from B again.
b) ‘C’ is bound to repay the amount to ‘B’
c) ‘C’ is bound to repay the amount to ‘A’
d) None of the above
296. When a contract is broken, the injured party can recover from the other
party such damage as naturally and directly arose in the usual course of things
from the breach. Such damages are called as:
a) General damages
b) Special damages
c) Vindictive damages
d) Nominal damages
297. A contract by which one party promises to save the other from loss
caused by the conduct of the promisor himself, or by the conduct of any other
person, is called:
a) Contract of guarantee
b) Contract of indemnity
c) Contract of surety
d) Under taking contract
298. A takes Rs.25,000/- from a Bank as loan. B gives an undertaking that he
will pay the debt, if A fails to pay. It is a :
a) Contract of guarantee
b) Contract of indemnity
c) Under taking contract
d) All of the above
299. ‘A’ guarantees ‘B’ the payment of a bill of exchange by C, the acceptor.
The bill is dishonoured by C:
a) A is not liable
b) A is liable for the amount
c) A is liable only a part of the amount
d) None of the above
300. ‘A’ hires a carriage of B. The carriage is unsafe and B is not aware of it.
But ‘A’ is injured.
a) B is responsible to A for the injury
b) B is not responsible to A for the injury
c) A is responsible
d) A is not responsible