#1
17th December 2014, 12:53 PM
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Political Science Sample paper of KSET Mysore University
Will you provide me the Sample Paper of Political Science of KSET Mysore University?
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#2
17th December 2014, 04:22 PM
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Re: Political Science Sample paper of KSET Mysore University
As you want I am here providing you the Sample Paper of Political Science of KSET Mysore University. Paper detail: Time 1hr 15 min. Max. marks 100 Questions. 50 Political Science Sample paper of KSET Mysore University Here is the attachment...................... |
#3
30th March 2015, 04:25 PM
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Re: Political Science Sample paper of KSET Mysore University
Will you provide me sample paper of the Political Science paper of the Karnataka State Eligibility Test of Mysore University ?
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#4
30th March 2015, 04:41 PM
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Re: Political Science Sample paper of KSET Mysore University
As you want I am here providing you sample paper of the Political Science paper of the Karnataka State Eligibility Test of Mysore University Paper detail: Time : 1hr 15 min Max. marks : 100 No. of questions : 50 Type of questions : objective type Here is the attachment. 1. Questions are matching type. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer code : List – I List – II A) The state is a 1) Contracteralists society of societies B) The state is an 2) Individualistic autobiography view of God C) The state is a 3) Idealistic view necessary evil D) The state is the 4) Pluralistic view product of some kind agreement Codes : A B C D (A) 4 3 2 1 (B) 3 4 1 2 (C) 4 3 1 2 (D) 3 4 2 1 2. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Find the correct answer using the codes given below : Assertion (A) : Scientific socialism explains history in terms of class struggle. Reason (R) : Class struggle in history takes place as a result of contradictions between the proletariat and the peasantry. In the context of the above two statements which one of the following is correct ? (A) Both (A) and (R) true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A) (C) (A) is true but (R) is false (D) (A) is false but (R) is true 5. Consider the following statements of Hobbes : 1) Men by birth are equal. 2) Every individual has a perpetual and restless desire for power which ceases only in death. 3) Individual is by nature rational. 4) Man is highly self-centered. Of the above statements, (A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (B) 2, 3 and 4 are correct (C) 1, 3 and 4 are correct (D) 1, 2 and 4 are correct 6. Who of the following is regarded as the last utilitarian and foremost of the individualist ? (A) John Stuart Mill (B) James Mill (C) Montesquieu (D) Bentham 7. John Locke was a great supporter of (A) Absolute monarchy (B) Constitutional Monarchy (C) Aristocracy (D) Democracy 8. Given below are two statements. One Assertion (A) and the other Reason (R). Assertion (A) : Aristotle laid the foundations for the comparative method to study of political institutions. Reason (R) : His views were mainly based on the study of 158 Constitutions of Greek city states. Select the correct answer code : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) (A) is true but (R) is wrong (C) (A) is correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (D) (R) is true but (A) is wrong 9. Consider the following statements about General Will by Rousseau : 1) General will is indivisible. 2) General will cannot be represented by anybody else. 3) General will is supreme and no body can disobey it. 4) General will is alienable. Of the above statements, (A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (B) 2, 3 and 4 are correct (C) 1, 2 and 4 are correct (D) 1, 3 and 4 are correct 10. Consider the following statements : 1) Savarkar did not believe in the policy of appeasement. 2) Savarkar had full confidence that swaraj could be won without the collaboration of the Muslims. 3) Savarkar stood for immediate and absolute independence of the country. 4) According to Savarkar, Hindutva and Nationalism were contradictory and could co-exist. Of the above statements, (A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (B) 2, 3 and 4 are correct (C) 1, 2 and 4 are correct (D) 1, 3 and 4 are correct 11. Match the names of Authors contained in Column A with the name of the books contained in Column B. Column – A Column – B Authors Book 1) Bentham A) Lectures on Principles of Political Obligation 2) J. S. Mill B) Philosophy of Rights 3) Hegel C) Principles of Political Economy 4) T. H. Green D) Fragments of Government Select the correct answer with the held of following codes : Codes : 1 2 3 4 (A) D C B A (B) B C A D (C) B A D C (D) A B C D 12. Which one of the following traditional approach for the study of politics has been described as ‘speculative and abstract’ ? (A) Historical approach (B) Philosophical approach (C) Behavioural approach (D) Structural-functional approach 13. The dialectical method, which is considered as the most outstanding contribution of Hegel to political philosophy was inspired by (A) The Greek thinkers (B) Fitche (C) Bentham (D) Both (A) and (B) 14. Which one of the following international events left profound impact on the mind of M. N. Roy ? (A) Russian Revolution of 1917 (B) Japan’s victory over Russia in 1905 (C) American War of Independence (D) French revolution 15. Hegel classified the Government Powers as (A) Legislative, Administrative and Monarchic (B) Legislative, Executive and Judicial (C) Legislative, Federative and Monarchic (D) Legislative, Aristocratic and Judicial 16. Assertion (A) : In 1975, a New Constitution of China was inaugurated and it replaced the Constitution of 1954. Reason (R) : The Chinese Constitution of 1954 has a chapter on fundamental Rights as well as duties. Which the citizens were expected to perform. In the context of the above two statements which one of the following is correct ? (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (C) (A) is true but (R) is false (D) (A) is false but (R) is true 17. The traditional approaches to the study of Comparative Politics neglected : (A) Study of Governments (B) Description of Institutions (C) Comparison of Constitutions (D) Empirical Investigations 18. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R). Find the correct answer using the codes given below : Assertion (A) : In a federal setup sovereignty is divided between the central and the provincial governments. Reason (R) : The powers of the Government are divided in a federal set up. (A) (A) and (R) are true and (R) explain (A) (B) (A) and (R) are correct but (R) does not explain (A) (C) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong (D) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct 19. Who is the author of the book ‘Political System’, with which the systems analysis approach originated ? (A) David Easton (B) G. A. Almond (C) Robert Merton (D) Oran Young 20. Initiative is a device of direct democracy which confers a right on the people (A) To suggest candidates for appointment to various offices (B) To suggest legislative measures which the legislature is not enacting (C) To reject the laws passed by the legislature (D) To seek judicial opinion regarding the constitutionality of laws enacted by the legislature 21. Questions are matching type. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer code : List – I List – II A) Land, Bread, 1) Chinese Peace Revolution B) Liberty, equality, 2) French fraternity Revolution C) Nationalism, 3) Russian democracy, Revolution livelihood D) No taxation without 4) American representation Revolution Codes : A B C D (A) 2 3 1 4 (B) 2 1 4 3 (C) 3 1 2 5 (D) 3 2 1 4 22. Which one among the following functions is not performed by the Chief Executive under a parliamentary system of Government ? (A) To ensure that the sanctional funds are properly utilised (B) To create and abolish administrative departments (C) Issue directions to state legislature regarding transactions of business (D) To fill up the vacant posts by appointing competent person 23. Match List – I (Name of the countries) with List – II (Designation of the Chief Executive) and select correct answer with codes given below : List – I List – II a) USA 1) President b) England 2) Queen c) Switzerland 3) Federal Executive d) Japan 4) Emperor Codes : a b c d (A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 2 3 1 4 (C) 1 4 3 2 (D) 4 3 2 1 24. The term Constitution in the modern sense was first used during the (A) Eighteenth century (B) Nineteenth century (C) Twentieth century (D) Twenty first century 25. The term Constitutional Government implies (A) An Arbitrary Government with a despotic ruler (B) A government limited by the terms of the Constitution (C) A government in which the head of the State enjoys only nominal powers (D) A government which is not subject to any restraint 26. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar signed the Poona Pact which mollified the communal award in (A) 1935 (B) 1936 (C) 1937 (D) 1938 27. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : India is a union of states and a pure federal state. Reason (R) : In the Indian Constitution, the centre is given emergency powers which can convert the Indian state in to a unitary state. In the above context of the two statements which one of the following is correct ? (A) Both (A) and (R) true. (R) is correct explanation of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A) (C) (A) is true but (R) is false (D) (A) is false but (R) is true 28. Which of the following statements on dominant caste are correct ? 1) The concept of dominant caste was first introduced by M. N. Srinivas. 2) Ownership of land, numerical strength and political clout is pronounced. 3) Dominant caste always enjoys a high ritual status in a particular region. 4) Dominant caste is not identified with upper caste. Of the above statements, (A) 1 and 2 are correct (B) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (C) 1, 2 and 4 are correct (D) 3 and 4 are correct 29. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar was in favour of (A) A strong central government (B) Strong states (C) Equal powers to the states and centre (D) Loose confederation 30. Which among the following features are present in the Indian Constitution ? 1) Multiple procedure for amendment. 2) States not empowered to initiate amendments. 3) Certain amendments have to be passed just by state legislatures. 4) Joint settings of parliament to solve disputes regarding constitutional amendment. Of the above statements, (A) 1, 2, 4 (B) 1 and 2 (C) 2, 3, 4 (D) 1, 3 and 4 31. Assertion (A) : On account of the combination of federal and unitary features several scholars have challenged the federal character of the Indian Constitution. Reason (R) : Prof. K. C. Wheare described Indian as a Quasi Federal Country. In the context of the above two statements which among following is correct ? (A) Both (A) and (R) are true. (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (C) (A) is true but (R) is false (D) (A) is false but (R) is true 32. Questions are matching type. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer code : List – I List – II a) Article 233 1) Appointment of District Judges b) Article 235 2) Control over Subordinate Courts c) Article 227 3) High court power of Superintendence over all Courts of the State d) Article 226 4) Power of High Court to issue certain writs Codes : a b c d (A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 3 4 2 1 (C) 4 2 3 1 (D) 4 1 2 3 33. Following duties have been prescribed for the state and the citizens. 1) To develop scientific temper 2) To promote common brotherhood 3) To organise village panchayats 4) To defend the country Among these select the correct answer Codes : (A) 1, 3 and 4 (B) 3, 4 and 2 (C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 3 34. Which one of the following techniques of Sathyagraha was regarded by Gandhi as ‘Most effective’ ? (A) Strike (B) Fasting (C) Hijarath (D) Civil-disobedience 35. The Central Government can legislate on a subject in the state list, if only (A) The President issues an order to this effect on the plea of national interest (B) The parliament passes a resolution declaring that it is essential to do so in the national interest (C) The Supreme Court grants necessary authority to the parliament (D) The Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by two-thirds majority for one year declaring particular subjects in the state list to be of national importance 36. Consider the following statements regarding the rights of a civil servant in India to appeal against the order of the superior officer. 1) An appeal is permissible under the rule 2) The appeal must be routed through proper channel 3) The appeal must be made within stipulated period 4) The appeal can be made only if the head of the office grants necessary permission (A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (B) 2, 3 and 4 are correct (C) 1, 2 and 4 are correct (D) 1, 3 and 4 are correct 37. The merit system of recruitment in India was the first time introduced in the year (A) 1854 (B) 1950 (C) 1864 (D) 1921 38. Match List – I (Names of the Authors) with List – II (Titles of the Books) and select correct answer with the codes given below : List – I List – II a) Koontz, Harold 1) Public and O’Donnell Administration b) W.F. Wollough 2) Principles of Organisation c) Mooney and 3) Principles of James Public Administration d) Dimock, Mashal, 4) Principles of Dimock and Koeing Management Codes : a b c d (A) 4 3 2 1 (B) 2 3 1 4 (C) 4 1 3 2 (D) 2 3 1 4 39. Consider the following statements regarding the functions of the Chief Executive : 1) To ensure that the administrative activities conform to statutory provisions. 2) To formulate and submit annual budget to the legislature. 3) To ensure that the powers delegated to the subordinate staff is not being misused. 4) To help in the preparation of statutory provisions relating to the organisation. Of the above statements, (A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (B) 2, 3 and 4 are correct (C) 1, 2 and 4 are correct (D) 1, 3 and 4 are corrects 40. Consider the following statements regarding formal organisation : 1) It contains broad outlines and plans of organisation. 2) Its organisational pattern is designed by the management. 3) It is based on human approach. 4) It is very mechanistic. Of the above statements, (A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (B) 2, 3 and 4 are correct (C) 1, 2 and 4 are correct (D) 1, 3 and 4 are correct 41. Who said “Delegation means conferring of specified authority by a higher authority to a lower authority” ? (A) Paul Appleby (B) M. P. Follet (C) Mooney (D) Pfiffner 42. The systems in which recruitment to the higher positions is open to all the qualified candidates, who wish to apply, is known as (A) Direct recruitment (B) Positive recruitment (C) General recruitment (D) Internal recruitment 43. The concept of “unity of command” is complementary to the principles of (A) Delegated legislation (B) Hierarchy (C) Scalar chain (D) Span of control 44. Consider the following statement regarding span of control : 1) The concept of span of control is related to the principles of span of attention. 2) There is a different with regard to span of control between higher and lower levels. 3) The span of control is dependent on several variable factors. 4) Usually there is an agreement on the length of the span of control. Of the above statements, (A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (B) 2, 3 and 4 are correct (C) 1, 2 and 4 are correct (D) 1, 3 and 4 are correct 45. Consider the following statement regarding hierarchical system : 1) It encourages the red tapism. 2) It imparts rigidity. 3) It permits delegation of authority. 4) It makes the system of rewards and punishment meaningless. Of the above statements, (A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (B) 2, 3 and 4 are correct (C) 1, 2 and 4 are correct (D) 1, 3 and 4 are correct 46. Which of the following type of disarmament is not included in the types of disarmaments for which UN works ? (A) General disarmament (B) Total disarmament (C) Partial disarmament (D) Qualitative and quantitative disarmament 47. In which year was Indian Ocean declared as a peace zone by UN ? (A) 1961 (B) 1971 (C) 1981 (D) 1991 48. NPT Agreement was signed in the year (A) 1968 (B) 1978 (C) 1988 (D) 1998 49. START Agreement was held between (A) US and China (B) US and UK (C) US and USSR (D) US and France 50. Assertion (A) : Geography is the main element of National power. Reason (R) : Geography offers strategic positioning for a nation, which supports national power. In the context of the above statements which one of the following is correct ? (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (C) (A) is true but (R) is false (D) (A) is false but (R) is true |
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