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  #2  
17th December 2014, 04:22 PM
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Join Date: Apr 2013
Re: Political Science Sample paper of KSET Mysore University

As you want I am here providing you the Sample Paper of Political Science of KSET Mysore University.

Paper detail:
Time 1hr 15 min.
Max. marks 100
Questions. 50

Political Science Sample paper of KSET Mysore University







Here is the attachment......................
Attached Files
File Type: pdf Political Science Sample paper .pdf (198.0 KB, 104 views)
  #3  
30th March 2015, 04:25 PM
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Re: Political Science Sample paper of KSET Mysore University

Will you provide me sample paper of the Political Science paper of the Karnataka State Eligibility Test of Mysore University ?
  #4  
30th March 2015, 04:41 PM
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Join Date: Apr 2013
Re: Political Science Sample paper of KSET Mysore University

As you want I am here providing you sample paper of the Political Science paper of the Karnataka State Eligibility Test of Mysore University

Paper detail:

Time : 1hr 15 min
Max. marks : 100
No. of questions : 50
Type of questions : objective type

Here is the attachment.

1. Questions are matching type.
Match List – I with List – II and select the
correct answer code :
List – I List – II
A) The state is a 1) Contracteralists
society of
societies
B) The state is an 2) Individualistic
autobiography view
of God
C) The state is a 3) Idealistic view
necessary evil
D) The state is the 4) Pluralistic view
product of some
kind agreement
Codes :
A B C D
(A) 4 3 2 1
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 3 4 2 1
2. Given below are two statements. One
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other
labelled as Reason (R).
Find the correct answer using the codes
given below :
Assertion (A) : Scientific socialism
explains history in terms of class struggle.
Reason (R) : Class struggle in history
takes place as a result of contradictions
between the proletariat and the
peasantry.
In the context of the above two statements
which one of the following is correct ?
(A) Both (A) and (R) true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is
not correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

5. Consider the following statements of
Hobbes :
1) Men by birth are equal.
2) Every individual has a perpetual and
restless desire for power which
ceases only in death.
3) Individual is by nature rational.
4) Man is highly self-centered.
Of the above statements,
(A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(B) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(C) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(D) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
6. Who of the following is regarded as the
last utilitarian and foremost of the
individualist ?
(A) John Stuart Mill
(B) James Mill
(C) Montesquieu
(D) Bentham
7. John Locke was a great supporter of
(A) Absolute monarchy
(B) Constitutional Monarchy
(C) Aristocracy
(D) Democracy
8. Given below are two statements. One
Assertion (A) and the other Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Aristotle laid the
foundations for the comparative method
to study of political institutions.
Reason (R) : His views were mainly
based on the study of 158 Constitutions
of Greek city states.
Select the correct answer code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
the correct explanation of (A)
(B) (A) is true but (R) is wrong
(C) (A) is correct but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
(D) (R) is true but (A) is wrong
9. Consider the following statements about
General Will by Rousseau :
1) General will is indivisible.
2) General will cannot be represented
by anybody else.
3) General will is supreme and no body
can disobey it.
4) General will is alienable.
Of the above statements,
(A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(B) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(C) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
(D) 1, 3 and 4 are correct

10. Consider the following statements :
1) Savarkar did not believe in the policy
of appeasement.
2) Savarkar had full confidence that
swaraj could be won without the
collaboration of the Muslims.
3) Savarkar stood for immediate and
absolute independence of the
country.
4) According to Savarkar, Hindutva and
Nationalism were contradictory and
could co-exist.
Of the above statements,
(A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(B) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(C) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
(D) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
11. Match the names of Authors contained
in Column A with the name of the books
contained in Column B.
Column – A Column – B
Authors Book
1) Bentham A) Lectures on
Principles of
Political Obligation
2) J. S. Mill B) Philosophy of Rights
3) Hegel C) Principles of Political
Economy
4) T. H. Green D) Fragments of
Government
Select the correct answer with the held
of following codes :
Codes :
1 2 3 4
(A) D C B A
(B) B C A D
(C) B A D C
(D) A B C D
12. Which one of the following traditional
approach for the study of politics has
been described as ‘speculative and
abstract’ ?
(A) Historical approach
(B) Philosophical approach
(C) Behavioural approach
(D) Structural-functional approach
13. The dialectical method, which is
considered as the most outstanding
contribution of Hegel to political
philosophy was inspired by
(A) The Greek thinkers
(B) Fitche
(C) Bentham
(D) Both (A) and (B)
14. Which one of the following international
events left profound impact on the mind
of M. N. Roy ?
(A) Russian Revolution of 1917
(B) Japan’s victory over Russia in 1905
(C) American War of Independence
(D) French revolution
15. Hegel classified the Government Powers
as
(A) Legislative, Administrative and
Monarchic
(B) Legislative, Executive and Judicial
(C) Legislative, Federative and
Monarchic
(D) Legislative, Aristocratic and
Judicial

16. Assertion (A) : In 1975, a New Constitution
of China was inaugurated and it replaced
the Constitution of 1954.
Reason (R) : The Chinese Constitution
of 1954 has a chapter on fundamental
Rights as well as duties. Which the
citizens were expected to perform.
In the context of the above two
statements which one of the following is
correct ?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is
the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
17. The traditional approaches to the study
of Comparative Politics neglected :
(A) Study of Governments
(B) Description of Institutions
(C) Comparison of Constitutions
(D) Empirical Investigations
18. Given below are two statements, one
labelled as Assertion (A) and other
labelled as Reason (R).
Find the correct answer using the codes
given below :
Assertion (A) : In a federal setup
sovereignty is divided between the
central and the provincial governments.
Reason (R) : The powers of the
Government are divided in a federal
set up.
(A) (A) and (R) are true and (R)
explain (A)
(B) (A) and (R) are correct but (R)
does not explain (A)
(C) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(D) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct
19. Who is the author of the book ‘Political
System’, with which the systems analysis
approach originated ?
(A) David Easton
(B) G. A. Almond
(C) Robert Merton
(D) Oran Young

20. Initiative is a device of direct democracy
which confers a right on the people
(A) To suggest candidates for
appointment to various offices
(B) To suggest legislative measures
which the legislature is not enacting
(C) To reject the laws passed by the
legislature
(D) To seek judicial opinion regarding
the constitutionality of laws enacted
by the legislature
21. Questions are matching type. Match
List – I with List – II and select the correct
answer code :
List – I List – II
A) Land, Bread, 1) Chinese
Peace Revolution
B) Liberty, equality, 2) French
fraternity Revolution
C) Nationalism, 3) Russian
democracy, Revolution
livelihood
D) No taxation without 4) American
representation Revolution
Codes :
A B C D
(A) 2 3 1 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 3 1 2 5
(D) 3 2 1 4
22. Which one among the following functions
is not performed by the Chief Executive
under a parliamentary system of
Government ?
(A) To ensure that the sanctional funds
are properly utilised
(B) To create and abolish administrative
departments
(C) Issue directions to state legislature
regarding transactions of business
(D) To fill up the vacant posts by
appointing competent person
23. Match List – I (Name of the countries) with
List – II (Designation of the Chief Executive)
and select correct answer with codes
given below :
List – I List – II
a) USA 1) President
b) England 2) Queen
c) Switzerland 3) Federal
Executive
d) Japan 4) Emperor
Codes :
a b c d
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 1 4
(C) 1 4 3 2
(D) 4 3 2 1

24. The term Constitution in the modern
sense was first used during the
(A) Eighteenth century
(B) Nineteenth century
(C) Twentieth century
(D) Twenty first century
25. The term Constitutional Government
implies
(A) An Arbitrary Government with a
despotic ruler
(B) A government limited by the terms
of the Constitution
(C) A government in which the head of
the State enjoys only nominal
powers
(D) A government which is not subject
to any restraint
26. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar signed the Poona Pact
which mollified the communal award in
(A) 1935
(B) 1936
(C) 1937
(D) 1938
27. Given below are two statements, one
labelled as Assertion (A) and other
labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : India is a union of states
and a pure federal state.
Reason (R) : In the Indian Constitution,
the centre is given emergency powers
which can convert the Indian state in to a
unitary state.
In the above context of the two statements
which one of the following is correct ?
(A) Both (A) and (R) true. (R) is correct
explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is
not correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
28. Which of the following statements on
dominant caste are correct ?
1) The concept of dominant caste was
first introduced by M. N. Srinivas.
2) Ownership of land, numerical strength
and political clout is pronounced.
3) Dominant caste always enjoys a high
ritual status in a particular region.
4) Dominant caste is not identified with
upper caste.
Of the above statements,
(A) 1 and 2 are correct
(B) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(C) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
(D) 3 and 4 are correct

29. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar was in favour of
(A) A strong central government
(B) Strong states
(C) Equal powers to the states and
centre
(D) Loose confederation
30. Which among the following features are
present in the Indian Constitution ?
1) Multiple procedure for amendment.
2) States not empowered to initiate
amendments.
3) Certain amendments have to be
passed just by state legislatures.
4) Joint settings of parliament to solve
disputes regarding constitutional
amendment.
Of the above statements,
(A) 1, 2, 4 (B) 1 and 2
(C) 2, 3, 4 (D) 1, 3 and 4
31. Assertion (A) : On account of the
combination of federal and unitary
features several scholars have
challenged the federal character of the
Indian Constitution.
Reason (R) : Prof. K. C. Wheare
described Indian as a Quasi Federal
Country.
In the context of the above two statements
which among following is correct ?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true. (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
32. Questions are matching type. Match
List – I with List – II and select the
correct answer code :
List – I List – II
a) Article 233 1) Appointment of
District Judges
b) Article 235 2) Control over
Subordinate Courts
c) Article 227 3) High court power of
Superintendence
over all Courts of the
State
d) Article 226 4) Power of High Court
to issue certain writs
Codes :
a b c d
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 4 2 3 1
(D) 4 1 2 3

33. Following duties have been prescribed
for the state and the citizens.
1) To develop scientific temper
2) To promote common brotherhood
3) To organise village panchayats
4) To defend the country
Among these select the correct answer
Codes :
(A) 1, 3 and 4
(B) 3, 4 and 2
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 3
34. Which one of the following techniques of
Sathyagraha was regarded by Gandhi as
‘Most effective’ ?
(A) Strike
(B) Fasting
(C) Hijarath
(D) Civil-disobedience
35. The Central Government can legislate on
a subject in the state list, if only
(A) The President issues an order to this
effect on the plea of national interest
(B) The parliament passes a resolution
declaring that it is essential to do so
in the national interest
(C) The Supreme Court grants
necessary authority to the
parliament
(D) The Rajya Sabha passes a
resolution by two-thirds majority for
one year declaring particular
subjects in the state list to be of
national importance
36. Consider the following statements
regarding the rights of a civil servant in
India to appeal against the order of the
superior officer.
1) An appeal is permissible under the
rule
2) The appeal must be routed through
proper channel
3) The appeal must be made within
stipulated period
4) The appeal can be made only if the
head of the office grants necessary
permission
(A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(B) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(C) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
(D) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
37. The merit system of recruitment in India
was the first time introduced in the year
(A) 1854
(B) 1950
(C) 1864
(D) 1921

38. Match List – I (Names of the Authors) with
List – II (Titles of the Books) and select
correct answer with the codes given
below :
List – I List – II
a) Koontz, Harold 1) Public
and O’Donnell Administration
b) W.F. Wollough 2) Principles of
Organisation
c) Mooney and 3) Principles of
James Public
Administration
d) Dimock, Mashal, 4) Principles of
Dimock and Koeing Management
Codes :
a b c d
(A) 4 3 2 1
(B) 2 3 1 4
(C) 4 1 3 2
(D) 2 3 1 4
39. Consider the following statements
regarding the functions of the Chief
Executive :
1) To ensure that the administrative
activities conform to statutory
provisions.
2) To formulate and submit annual
budget to the legislature.
3) To ensure that the powers delegated
to the subordinate staff is not being
misused.
4) To help in the preparation of statutory
provisions relating to the organisation.
Of the above statements,
(A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(B) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(C) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
(D) 1, 3 and 4 are corrects
40. Consider the following statements
regarding formal organisation :
1) It contains broad outlines and plans
of organisation.
2) Its organisational pattern is designed
by the management.
3) It is based on human approach.
4) It is very mechanistic.
Of the above statements,
(A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(B) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(C) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
(D) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
41. Who said “Delegation means conferring
of specified authority by a higher
authority to a lower authority” ?
(A) Paul Appleby
(B) M. P. Follet
(C) Mooney
(D) Pfiffner
42. The systems in which recruitment to the
higher positions is open to all the
qualified candidates, who wish to apply,
is known as
(A) Direct recruitment
(B) Positive recruitment
(C) General recruitment
(D) Internal recruitment

43. The concept of “unity of command” is
complementary to the principles of
(A) Delegated legislation
(B) Hierarchy
(C) Scalar chain
(D) Span of control
44. Consider the following statement
regarding span of control :
1) The concept of span of control is
related to the principles of span of
attention.
2) There is a different with regard to span
of control between higher and lower
levels.
3) The span of control is dependent on
several variable factors.
4) Usually there is an agreement on the
length of the span of control.
Of the above statements,
(A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(B) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(C) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
(D) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
45. Consider the following statement
regarding hierarchical system :
1) It encourages the red tapism.
2) It imparts rigidity.
3) It permits delegation of authority.
4) It makes the system of rewards and
punishment meaningless.
Of the above statements,
(A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(B) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(C) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
(D) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
46. Which of the following type of
disarmament is not included in the types
of disarmaments for which UN works ?
(A) General disarmament
(B) Total disarmament
(C) Partial disarmament
(D) Qualitative and quantitative
disarmament

47. In which year was Indian Ocean declared
as a peace zone by UN ?
(A) 1961
(B) 1971
(C) 1981
(D) 1991
48. NPT Agreement was signed in the year
(A) 1968
(B) 1978
(C) 1988
(D) 1998
49. START Agreement was held between
(A) US and China
(B) US and UK
(C) US and USSR
(D) US and France
50. Assertion (A) : Geography is the main
element of National power.
Reason (R) : Geography offers strategic
positioning for a nation, which supports
national power.
In the context of the above statements
which one of the following is correct ?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Attached Files
File Type: pdf Political Science paper II KSET.pdf (198.0 KB, 81 views)


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