#1
1st December 2014, 12:38 PM
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PMT Exam Paper
Will you provide me the PMT Exam Paper as I am looking for the same ?
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#2
1st December 2014, 12:40 PM
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Re: PMT Exam Paper
151. A young infant may be feeding entirely on mother's milk which is white in colour but the stools which the infant passes out is quite yellowish. What is this yellow colour due to (1) Pancreatic juice poured into duodenum (2) Intestinal juice (3) Bile pigments passed through bile juice (4) Undigested milk protein casein Sol. Answer (3) The yellow colour of the faeces in due to a pigment stercobilin. It is formed by the breakdown of bile pigments i.e., bilirubin brought to intestine through the bile juice. 152. Globulins contained in human blood plasma are primarily involved in (1) Clotting of blood (2) Defence mechanisms of body (3) Osmotic balance of body fluids (4) Oxygen transport in the blood Sol. Answer (2) Antibodies are gamma globulins synthesised by lymph nodes. (35) 153. Seminal plasma in humans is rich in (1) Fructose and certain enzymes but poor in calcium (2) Fructose, calcium and certain enzymes (3) Fructose and calcium but has no enzymes (4) Glucose and certain enzymes but has no calcium Sol. Answer (2) The male accessory glands include paired seminal vesicles, a prostate and paired bulbourethral glands; secretions of these glands constitute seminal plasma which is rich in fructose, calcium and certain enzymes. 154. Given below is a diagrammatic sketch of a portion of human male reproductive system. Select the correct set of the names of the parts labelled A, B, C, D A B C D A B C D (1) Ureter Seminal vesicle Prostate Bulbourethral gland (2) Ureter Prostate Seminal vesicle Bulbourethral gland (3) Vas deferens Seminal vesicle Prostate Bulbourethral gland (4) Vas deferens Seminal vesicle Bulbourethral gland Prostate Sol. Answer (3) A is vas deferens B is seminal vesicle C is prostate gland D is bulbourethral gland 155. Which one of the following is the correct matching of three items and their grouping category? Items Group (1) Cytosine, uracil, thiamine - Pyrimidines (2) Malleus, incus, cochlea - Ear ossicles (3) Ilium, ischium, pubis - Coxal bones of pelvic girdle (4) Actin, myosin, rhodopsin - Muscle proteins Sol. Answer (3) Each half of the pelvic girdle is made up of a single bone Os innominatum also called as coxal bone. Each coxal bone is made up of 3 bones i.e., Ilium, ischium and pubis. 156. Which one of the following statements is true regarding digestion and absorption of food in humans? (1) About 60% of starch is hydrolysed by salivary amylase in our mouth (2) Oxyntic cells in our stomach secrete the proenzyme pepsinogen (3) Fructose and amino acids are absorbed through intestinal mucosa with the help of carrier ions like Na+ (4) Chylomicrons are small lipoprotein particles that are transported from intestine into blood capillaries (36) Sol. Answer (3) Some substances like fructose and some amino acids are absorbed with the help of the carrier ions like Na+. Their mechanism is called the facilitated diffusion. 157. Which one of the following correctly describes the location of some body parts in the earthworm pheretima? (1) Two pairs of testes in 10th and 11th segments (2) Two pairs of accessory glands in 16-18 segments (3) Four pairs of spermathecae in 4 - 7 segments (4) One pair of ovaries attached at intersegmental septum of 14th and 15th segments. Sol. Answer (1) In earthworm there are two pairs of testes one pair in 10th and one pair in 11th segment. There are two pairs of accessory glands, one pair in 17th and one pair in 19th segment. There are four pairs of spermathecae present in 6, 7, 8 and 9th segment. One pair of ovaries attached at the intersegmental septum of 12th and 13th segment. 158. Elbow joint is an example of : (1) Ball and socket joint (2) Pivot joint (3) Hinge joint (4) Gliding joint Sol. Answer (3) Elbow joint is hinge joint as it involves the movement only in one plane. 159. Which one of the following is considered important in the development of seed habit? (1) Free-living gametophyte (2) Dependent sporophyte (3) Heterospory (4) Haplontic life cycle Sol. Answer (3) Development of two kinds of spores (heterospory) is marked as the primary requirement to develop the seed. 160. One of the synthetic auxin is : (1) IBA (2) NAA (3) IAA (4) GA Sol. Answer (2) IBA and IAA are naturally occurring auxins 161. Which one of the following acids is a derivative of carotenoids? (1) Abscisic acid (2) Indole butyric acid (3) Indole-3-acetic acid (4) Gibberellic acid Sol. Answer (1) Auxins are derived using tryptophan; gibberellic acid is derived using acetyl co A. 162. Vegetative propagation in mint occurs by (1) Sucker (2) Runner (3) Offset (4) Rhizome Sol. Answer (1) Suckers are used in mint to propagate profusely (37) 163. Which one of the following plants is monoecious? (1) Papaya (2) Marchantia (3) Pinus (4) Cycas Sol. Answer (3) Both sex organs are present on the same plant 164. Foetal ejection reflex in human female is induced by (1) Differentiation of mammary glands (2) Pressure exerted by amniotic fluid (3) Release of oxytocin from pituitary (4) Fully developed foetus and placenta Sol. Answer (4) Parturition is induced by a complex neuroendocrine mechanism. The signals for parturition originate from the fully developed foetus and placenta which induce mild uterine contractions called foetal ejection reflex. 165. Which one of the following is the correct matching of the events occurring during menstrual cycle? (1) Menstruation : breakdown of myometrium and ovum not fertilised (2) Ovulation : LH and FSH attain peak level and sharp fall in the secretion of progesterone (3) Proliferative phase : Rapid regeneration of myometrium and maturation of Graafian follicle (4) Development of corpus luteum : Secretory phase and increased secretion of progesterone Sol. Answer (4) Myometrium does not breakdown during menstruation, so there is no regeneration of myometrium in proliferative phase. Ovulation results in the formation of corpus luteum and thus progesterone will increase. 166. Which one of the following is the most likely root cause why menstruation is not taking place in regularly cycling human female? (1) Retention of well-developed corpus luteum (2) Fertilisation of the ovum (3) Maintenance of the hypertrophical endometrial lining (4) Maintenance of high concentration of sex-hormones in the blood stream Sol. Answer (4) If menstruation is not taking place in regularly cycling human female, it indicates the maintenance of high concentration of sex hormones in the blood stream. 167. The correct sequence of spermatogenetic stages leading to the formation of sperms in a mature human testis is (1) Spermatogonia-spermatid-spermatocyte-sperms (2) Spermatocyte-spermatogonia-spermatid-sperms (3) Spermatogonia-spermatocyte-spermatid-sperms (4) Spermatid-spermatocyte-spermatogonia-sperms Sol. Answer (3) The correct sequence of spermatogenetic stages leading to the formation of sperms in mature human testes is Spermatogonia Primary spermatocyte Secondary spermatocyte Spermatid Sperms. (38) 168. A change in the amount of yolk and its distribution in the egg will affect: (1) Fertilization (2) Formation of zygote (3) Pattern of cleavage (4) Number of blastomeres produced Sol. Answer (3) The pattern of cleavage division depends on the amount and distribution of yolk in the cytoplasm. Yolk is an inert material and retards the passage of cleavage furrow. 169. When breast feeding is replaced by less nutritive food low in proteins and calories; the infants below the age of one year are likely to suffer from (1) Pellagra (2) Marasmus (3) Rickets (4) Kwashiorkor Sol. Answer (2) Both marasmus and kwashiorkor are PEM disorders. Marasmus occurs in infants below the age of one. 170. Which one of the following types of organisms occupy more than one trophic level in a pond ecosystem? (1) Frog (2) Phytoplankton (3) Fish (4) Zooplankton Sol. Answer (3) Larger and small fishes function at different trophic levels 171. Which one of the following has maximum genetic diversity in India? (1) Tea (2) Teak (3) Mango (4) Wheat Sol. Answer (3) About thousand varieties of mango are found in India. 172. Montreal Protocol aims at (1) Control of CO2 emission (2) Reduction of ozone depleting substances (3) Biodiversity conservation (4) Control of water pollution Sol. Answer (2) Montreal protocol (1987) - A land mark international agreement to reduce ODS. 173. Chipko movement was launched for the protection of (1) Wet lands (2) Grasslands (3) Forests (4) Livestock Sol. Answer (3) Chipko movement (tree hugging movement). 174. The correct sequence of plants in a hydrosere is (1) Oak Lantana Volvox Hydrilla Pistia Scirpus (2) Oak Lantana Scirpus Pistia Hydrilla Volvox (3) Volvox Hydrilla Pistia Scirpus Lantana Oak (4) Pistia Volvox Scirpus Hydrilla Oak Lantana (39) Sol. Answer (3) Volvox -Plankton stage, Hydrilla - Submerged stage Pistia -Floating stage, Scirpys - Reed swamp stage Lantana -Woodland stage, Oak - Climax stage 175. A country with a high rate of population growth took measures to reduce it. The figure below shows age-sex pyramids of populations A and B twenty years apart. Select the correct interpretation about them : Males Females Males Females Age 70 + 60 – 69 50 – 59 40 – 49 30 – 39 20 – 29 10 – 19 0 – 9 Age (in years) 1512 9 6 3 0 3 6 9 12 15 'A' Age 70 + 60 – 69 50 – 59 40 – 49 30 – 39 20 – 29 10 – 19 0 – 9 Age (in years) 15 12 9 6 3 0 3 6 9 12 15 'B' Interpretations (1) "A" is the earlier pyramid and no change has occurred in the growth rate (2) "A" is more recent and shows slight reduction in the growth rate (3) "B" is earlier pyramid and shows stabilised growth rate (4) "B" is more recent showing that population is very young Sol. Answer (2) The number of young individual is decreased in pyramid ‘A’. 176. Steps taken by the Government of India to control air pollution include : (1) Use of non-polluting Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) only as fuel by all buses and trucks. (2) Compulsory mixing of 20% ethyl alcohol with petrol and 20% biodiesel with diesel (3) Compulsory PUC (Pollution Under Control) certification of petrol driven vehicles which tests for carbon monoxide and hydrocarbons. (4) Permission to use only pure diesel with a maximum of 500 ppm sulphur as fuel for vehicles. (40) Sol. Answer (3) Presently CNG is used only in National Capital, Delhi. 177. Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) in a river water (1) Increases when sewage gets mixed with river water (2) Remains unchanged when algal bloom occurs (3) Has no relationship with concentration of oxygen in the water (4) Gives a measure of salmonella in the water Sol. Answer (1) Mixing of sewage decreases DO and increases BOD, due to increased aerobic digestion of organic waste. 178. DDT residues are repidly passed through food chain causing biomagnification because DDT is (1) Water soluble (2) Lipo soluble (3) Moderately toxic (4) Non-toxic to aquatic animals Sol. Answer (2) DDT (Organochlorine) is lipophilic and accumulates in lipid bilayer of PM. 179. Global agreement in specific control strategies to reduce the release of ozone depleting substances, was adopted by (1) The Vienna Convention (2) Rio de Janeiro Conference (3) The Montreal Protocol (4) The Koyoto Protocol Sol. Answer (3) Kyoto protocol – To mitigate climatic change and to reduce overall green house gas emission. Rio de Janerio conference i.e., Earth Summit, held in Brazil in 1992. 180. Somaclones are obtained by (1) Genetic engineering (2) Tissue culture (3) Plant breeding (4) Irradiation Sol. Answer (2) Plants regenerated from a single culture (clonal propagation) invitro are called somaclones. 181. Which one is the wrong pairing for the disease and its causal organism? (1) Root-knot of vegetables-Meloidogyne sp (2) Late blight of potato - Alternaria solani (3) Black rust of wheat - Puccinia graminis (4) Loose smut of wheat - Ustilago nuda Sol. Answer (2) Late blight of potato–Phytophthora infestans. 182. Which of the following is not used as a biopesticide? (1) Xanthomonas campestris (2) Bacillus thuringiensis (3) Trichoderma harzianum (4) Nuclear Polyhedrosis Virus (NPV) Sol. Answer (1) Xanthomonas campestris–Bacterial rot in crucifers. (41) 183. Which of the following plant species you would select for the production of bioethanol? (1) Jatropha (2) Brassica (3) Zea mays (4) Pongamia Sol. Answer (3) Zea mays is used for bio-ethanol production. Jatropha and Pongamia are biodiesel plants. 184. Which of the following is a symbiotic nitrogen fixer? (1) Azolla (2) Glomus (3) Azotobacter (4) Frankia Sol. Answer (4) Frankia is symbiotic N2 fixing actinomycetes, forming root nodules in non legumes. e.g., Casuarina. 185. A health disorder that results from the deficiency of thyroxine in a adults and characterised by (i) a low metabolic rate, (ii) increase in body weight and (iii) tendency to retain water in tissues is (1) Cretinism (2) Hypothyroidism (3) Simple goitre (4) Myxoedema Sol. Answer (4) Deficiency of thyroxine in adults results in myxoedema. The symptoms of this diseases are low metabolic rate, increases in body weight and there is retention of water in facial tissue. Thyroxine is a calorigenic hormone. 186. Which one of the following statements is correct? (1) Malignant tumours may exhibit metastasis (2) Patients who have undergone surgery are given cannabinoids to relieve pain (3) Benign tumours show the property of metastasis (4) Heroin accelerates body functions Sol. Answer (1) Malignant tumors are cancerous. Malignant neoplasms or the cancerous cells will break from the tumor and spread through blood and lymph throughout the body. This movement is called as metastasis. 187. Which of the following is a pair of viral diseases? (1) Typhoid, Tuberculosis (2) Ringowrm, AIDS (3) Common Cold, AIDS (4) Dysentery, Common Cold Sol. Answer (3) Typhoid and tuberculosis are caused by bacteria and ringworm by fungi. 188. A person likely to develop tetanus is immunised by administering (1) Weakened germs (2) Dead germs (3) Preformed antibodies (4) Wide spectrum antibiotics Sol. Answer (3) A person likely to develop tetanus is immunised by administering preformed antibodies. This is an example of artificially acquired passive immunity. (42) 189. Use of anti-histamines and steroids give a quick relief from (1) Headache (2) Allergy (3) Nausea (4) Cough Sol. Answer (2) The drugs given for the treatment of allergy are anti-histamines, steroids and adrenaline hormone. 190. Alzhimer disease in humans is associated with the deficiency of (1) Gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA) (2) Dopamine (3) Glutamic acid (4) Acetylcholine Sol. Answer (4) Alzheimer's diseases is due to the deficiency of acetylcholine. This disorder is associated with loss of memory of past events. 191. Which one of the following is commonly used in transfer of foreign DNA into crop plants? (1) Penicillium expansum (2) Trichoderma harzianum (3) Meloidogyne incognita (4) Agrobacterium tumefaciens Sol. Answer (4) Agrobacterium tumefaciens mediated transformation is the most common method of transformation used for the production of transgenic plants. 192. The bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis is widely used in contemporary biology as (1) Source of industrial enzyme (2) Indicator of water pollution (3) Insecticide (4) Agent for production of dairy products Sol. Answer (3) Bacillus thuringiensis produces a protein endotoxin which acts as insecticide. 193. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched? (1) Textile - amylase (2) Detergents - lipase (3) Alcohol - nitrogenase (4) Fruit juice - pectinase Sol. Answer (3) Nitrogenase enzyme is involved in the formation of ammonia. 194. Polyethylene glycol method is used for (1) Energy production from sewage (2) Gene transfer without a vector (3) Biodiesel production (4) Seedless fruit production Sol. Answer (2) (43) One of the method of direct/vectorless gene transfer is, chemical mediated gene transfer. This involves use of PEG (polyethylene glycol). 195. Transgenic plants are the ones (1) Grown in artificial medium after hybridization in the field (2) Produced by a somatic embryo in artificial medium (3) Generated by introducing foreign DNA in to a cell and regenerating a plant from that cell (4) Produced after protoplast fusion in artificial medium Sol. Answer (3) Transgenic plants have the foreign gene called as transgene. They have had their DNA manipulated to possess and express (foreign) gene. 196. What is true about Bt toxin? (1) The concerned Bacillus has antitoxins (2) The inactive protoxin gets converted into active form in the insect gut (3) Bt protein exists as active toxin in the Bacillus (4) The activated toxin enters the ovaries of the pest to sterilise it and thus prevent its multiplication Sol. Answer (2) Bt. toxin is produced in inactive form as protoxin but it gets converted into active form in gut of insects. 197. The genetic defect-adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency may be cured permanently by (1) Enzyme replacement therapy (2) Periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes having functional ADA cDNA (3) Administering adenosine deaminase activators (4) Introducing bone marrow cells producing ADA into cells at early embryonic stages Sol. Answer (4) Gene isolate from marrow cells producing ADA if introduced into cells at early embryonic stages, could be a permanent cure. 198. There is no DNA in (1) Hair root (2) An enucleated ovum (3) Mature RBCs (4) A mature spermatozoan Sol. Answer (3) There is no DNA in mature RBC. During the maturation of RBC there is degeneration of mitochondria, nucleus and golgi. An enucleated ovcum has mitochondria which contains DNA. 199. The letter T in T-lymphocyte refers to (1) Thymus (2) Thyroid (3) Thalamus (4) Tonsil Sol. Answer (1) The maturation of T-lymphocytes occurs in thymus; so 'T' in T-lymphocytes represents thymus. 200. Tiger is not a resident in which one of the following national park? (1) Jim Corbett (2) Ranthambhor (3) Sunderbans (4) Gir Sol. Answer (4) Gir National Park–Lion. |
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