#1
28th April 2016, 10:32 AM
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Orissa JEE Solved Papers
hii sir, I am preparing for the OJEE Entrance Examination will you please provide me the previous year question paper of the Chemistry of the OJEE Entrance test ?
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#2
28th April 2016, 10:34 AM
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Re: Orissa JEE Solved Papers
Odisha Joint Entrance Examination (OJEE) is a state-government controlled centralised test for admission to many private and governmental medical, engineering & management institutions in Odisha paper pattern : PHYSICS (60 Questions) CHEMISTRY (60 Questions) MATHEMATICS (60 Questions) BOTANY (30 Questions) ZOOLOGY (30 Questions) the questions of the Chemistry section of the OJEE Entrance test are asked from the following topics : • General conduct of matter • Liquid State • Solutions • Gaseous State • Atoms and molecules • Structure of atoms and molecules • Chemical bonds • Periodic classification • Chemical Energetic, Equilibrium and Kinetics • Energetic • Equilibria • Kinetics • Types of chemical response • Non-metals • Electrochemistry • Nuclear chemistry • Metals and metallurgy • Organic chemistry • Introductory • Aliphatic compounds • Aromatic compounds • Biochemistry • Chemistry inside the service of mankind OJEE Entrance test question paper Chemistry 1. The final product of the reaction HC = CH + 2HCI →→→will be : (1) CH2CI-CH2CI (2) CH2=CHCI (3) CH3CHCI2 (4) CHCI=CHC 2. Which of the following is amphoteric : (1) GeO2 (2) CO2 (3) PbO2 (4) All same 3. CH3COOC5H11 is obtained by : (1) C5H11OH + CH3COOH (2) C5H11CH2OH = HCOOH (3) C2H5OH = C5H11OH (4) (CH3)3 –C-COOH = C5H11OH 4. 5 amp. current is passes through a dry cell for 2 hours. The value of produced electric current will be : (1) 36 x 108 C (2) 3.6 x 108 C (3) 36 x 104 C (4) 3.6 x 104 C 5. Which of the following statement is false for tranis-1, 2-dichloro ethane : (1) chlorine atoms are nearer to each other (2) total nos of bonds are six (3) free rotation of C=C is possible (4) none of these 6. Orthouitropnenol is a A; (1) Lewis base (2) Lewis acid (3) 1 and 2 (4) nither 1 nor 2 7. Which of the following shows cistrans isomerism : (1) CH3-C-Br=C-C12 (2) CH3-CH=Ch2 (3) C1-CH=CH-CH3 (4) (CH3)2-C=CH-C1 8. Glycine works in a reaction as : (1) Acid (2) Base (3) both 1 and 2 (4) none of these 9. The true statement for 2-chlrobutane and 3- chlrobutane is : (1) First is more reactive than second (2) Second is more reactive than first (3) Chlorine atom in both are of different type (4) One name is wrong, both are same 10. The magnetic moment of an ion having 4 unpaired electrons is : (1) 3.9 B.M. (2) 2.8 B.M. (3) 1.7 B.M. (4) 4.9 B.M. 11. O-F bond in OF2 compound is formed by the overlapping of following orbitals : (1) sp2-2p (2) sp3-2p (3) sp3-2s (4) sp-2p 12. The structure of [Cu(NH3)4]2+ is : (1) square planner (2) angular (3) linear (4) tetrahedral 13. The no. of structural isomers of heptane is : (1) equal to pentane (2) less than hexane (3) more than pentane (4) less than pentane 14. Which of the following hydroxide is soluble in NH4OH : (1) Sb(OH)3 (2) Bi(OH)3 (3) Fe(OH)3 (4) none of above 15. Which of the following differs from others : (1) Pd (2) CO (3) Ni (4) Rb 16. The structure of phorone is : (1) (CH3)2C(OH)C13 (2) (CH3)2C=CHCOCH=C(CH3)2 (3) (CH3)2C=CHCOCH3 (4) none of above 17. Which of the following is strongest electrolyte : (1) C12H12O11 (2) H2O (3) CH3COOH (4) HI 18. Which of the following statement is true : (1) O2 2- is diamagnetic (2) O2 + is paramagnetic (3) No is diamagnetic (4) He2 + is less stable than He2 19. For which of the following elements the quantum nos are 3, 2, 0, + ½ : (1) K (2) CO (3) Ne (4) C1 20. The coordination nos. of Na+ and C1- in NaCI are respectively : (1) 6, 6 (2) 4, 6 (3) 6, 8 (4) 8, 8 21. In comparision of Cu and Ag : (1) Cu is easily oxidized in comparision with Ag. (2) Ag is easily oxidized in comparision with Cu (3) Both oxidizes simultaneously (4) Do not oxidizes 22. Molarity of 200 ml. of 18.25 N NaOH will be : (1) 32.5 M (2) 91.25 M (3) 2.28 M (4) 22.8 M 23. In Haber’s process if temperature is increased : (1) Reaction stops (2) There is no effect (3) Yield of NH3 decreases (4) Yield of NH3 increases 24. Empirical formula of alkane, alkene and alkyne is : (1) equal to cyclopean (2) equal to each other (3) all are different (4) none of these 25. CF2C12 is used as : (1) Anaesthic (2) Polymer (3) Refrigerant (4) Antipyretic 26. The weight of carbon atom is : (1) 1.9 x 10-23 (2) 12 gm (3) 6 gm (4) 6.02 gm. X 1023 gm. 27. The pH of 10-8 M HCI is : (1) less than 7 (2) less than 6 (3) 8 (4) 7 28. Which of the following statement is true : (1) C6H6 does not show resonance (2) CO2does not show resonance (3) Both do not show resonance (4) CO2and C6H6 show resonating structures 29. In which of the following compound >C=0 group is not present : (1) Alkane (2) Aldehyde (3) Acids (4) Ketone 30. The mole fraction of acetone in a solution of 2.8 mole acetone and 8.2 mole of CHC13 will be : (1) 0.540 (2) 0.241 (3) 0.254 (4) 0.524 31. Which of the following element has high ionization potential : (1) Ne (2) Be (3) Li (4) O 32. Which of the following has highest boiling point : (1) HI (2) HC1 (3) HF (4) HBr 33. The dry ice is : (1) Solid H2O (2) Solid CO2 (3) Solid & Dry H2O (4) none of above → 34. For the reaction 2A ←C + D the value of equilibrium constant is 1 x 10-3 . If [C] = 1.2 x 10-3 M, [D] = 3.8 x 10-6 M the value of [A] will be : (1) 5.2 x 10-6 M (2) 3.6 x 10-9 M (3) 2.1 x 10-3 M (4) 4.8 x 10-12 M 35. Which of the following does not obey the octet rule : (1) PCI3 (2) SF6 (3) SO2 (4) OF2 36. Mustard gas is found from : (1) C2H4 & H2SO4 (2) C2H4 & H2S (3) C2H4 & S2C12 (4) C2H4 & CH3SH 37. The most reactive metal is : (1) Li (2) Au (3) F (4) Pt 38. Which of the following has highest melting point : (1) C4H10 (2) C3H8 (3) C2H6 (4) CH4 39. Which of the following is not a metal : (1) Au (2) Hg (3) Ag (4) none of these 40. In which of the following there is strong bond : (1) C=C (2) C-C (3) C≡C (4) all same 41. The shape and size of 2p, 3p, 4p and 5p orbital are : (1) only equal in d block (2) equal in s block and different in p block (3) different (4) equal 42. Malachite is a ore of : (1) Cu (2) Au (3) Ag (4) Mg 43. If the ionization constant of CH3COOH is 1.8 x 105, the degree of ionization of 0.01 M CH3COOh will be : (1) 1.8 x 10-7 (2) 1.8 (3) 4.2 x 10-2 (4) 42.4 x 10-5 44. If the price of Nac1 sugar are 2 and 14 rupees per kg. then the price of 1 mole NaC1 and 1 mole sugar will be : (1) 7 Rs. (2) different (3) equal (4) 28 Rs. 45. In which of the following there are minimum nos. of molecule : (1) 2 gm. H2 (2) 8 gm. O2 (3) 16 gm. CO2 (4) 4 gm. N2 46. In which of the following central atom uses sp2 hybrid orbitals : (1) SbH3 (2) NH3 (3) PH3 (4) +CH3 47. Which of the following is paramagnetic : (1) C (2) CN- (3) O2 - (4) NO+ 48. Present atomic weight scale depends upon : (1) C1-35.5 (2) O-16 (3) C-12 (4) H-1 49. C3H8 on combustion gives CO2 and H2O. The required volume of O2 will be : (1) 5 times of C3H8 (2) three times (3) 2 times (4) 2.5 times 50. The oxidation state of B in KBF4 is : (1) -3 (2) +2 (3) +3 (4) +4 51. The electronic configuration of strong electronegative element is : (1) ns2np6 (2) ns2np4 (3) ns2np3 (4) ns2np5 52. The IUPAC name of CO2O3 is : (1) Cobalt (III) oxide (2) Cobalt (II) oxide (3) Cobaltans oxide (4) Cobalt oxide 53. The most light weight inert gas is : (1) Ar (2) Ne (3) He (4) Kr 54. Which of the following element forms cation easily : (1) Sr (2) Ne (3) Li (4) Mg 55. Which of the following is the strongest ionic compound : (1) LiC1 (2) HC1 (3) CsC1 (4) CH3C1 56. Which of the following does not forms bond : (1) s-s (2) p-d (3) p-p (4) d-d 57. CO is isoelectronic of : (1) N2 + (2) O2 + (3) CN- (4) O2 - 58. All s-orbitals have : (1) n ≠0, ≠0 (2) = 0 (3) n = 0 (4) n = 0, = 0 59. The dipole moment of BF3 is zero. Which of the following 6 bond orbitals are used by B : (1) sp2 (2) sp (3) sp3 (4) none of these 60. Which of the following have acidic hydrogen : (1) C2H4 (2) C2H2 (3) C2H6 (4) None of these 61. In which of the following molecule C-C bond is largest : (1) Benzene (2) Ethene (3) Ethane (4) Ethyne 62. The set of four quantum number of e0 of 4-d will be : (1) 3, 2, 0 + ½ (2) 4, 2, 0, + ½ (3) 4, 1, 0, + ½ (4) 4, 3, 0, + ½ 63. The molecule which has linear structure is : (1) NO2 (2) SO2 (3) CO2 (4) OCl2 64. Which of the following have not tetrahedral geometry : (1) NH4 + (2) BF- 4 (3) SiF4 (4) SF4 65. N=C-C-CH2 in this compound bond H Between C(1) and C(2) is formed by hybrid orbitals of : (1) sp & sp2 (2) sp & sp3 (3) sp & sp (4) sp2-sp2 66. The dipole moment of CCl4 is zero, because of : (1) equal electron affinity of C, and Cl (2) equal size of C and Cl (3) regular size of C and Cl (4) planar structure 67. The number of moles of H2 at 500 cm.3 volume, 700 mm. pressure and 3000 K temperature will be: (1) 0.203x10-2 moles (2) 20.x10-3 moles (3) 20.3x10-2 moles (4) 2.03 x 10-7 moles 68.Which of the following has electronic configuration as 4f1-145s25p65d16s2 : (1) Representative elements (2) Transition elements (3) Lanthanides (4) Actinides 69. The wave number of hydrogen atom in Lymen series is 82, 200 cm.-1. The electron goes from : (1) III orbit to II (2) II orbit to I (3) IV orbit to III (4) none of these 70. Teflen is a polymer of : (1) PVC (2) Tetrafluro ethane (3) Tetra fluro ethane (4) C2H4 71. In which of the following s character is maximum : (1) C6H6 (2) H2H6 (3) C2H4 (4) C2H2 72. Benzene hexachloride is found by : (1) Addition (2) Elimination (3) Substitution reaction (4) All these 73. Alkane is found by : (1) Reaction by alky l halide (2) Wurtz reaction (3) Grignard reagent (4) All these the question paper of the Chemistry section of the OJEE Examination are given below; |