Online LSAT Practice Test - 2018 2019 Student Forum

 2018 2019 Student Forum Online LSAT Practice Test
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#1
15th June 2015, 01:30 PM
 Unregistered Guest Posts: n/a
Online LSAT Practice Test

I want to obtain good marks in Law School Admission Test . Will you please provide the Law School Admission Test questions for practice ?
#2
16th June 2015, 09:18 AM
 Super Moderator Join Date: Apr 2013 Posts: 36,162
Re: Online LSAT Practice Test

Here I am providing the list of few Law School Admission Test questions which you are looking for .
Law School Admission Test questions
SECTION I
Time—35 minutes
23 Questions
Directions: Each group of questions in this section is based on a set of conditions. In answering some of the questions, it may be
useful to draw a rough diagram. Choose the response that most accurately and completely answers each question and blacken
the corresponding space on your answer sheet.
Questions 1–5
A company employee generates a series of five-digit product
codes in accordance with the following rules:
The codes use the digits 0, 1, 2, 3, and 4, and no others.
Each digit occurs exactly once in any code.
The second digit has a value exactly twice that of the
first digit.
The value of the third digit is less than the value of the
fifth digit.
1. If the last digit of an acceptable product code is 1, it
must be true that the
(A) first digit is 2
(B) second digit is 0
(C) third digit is 3
(D) fourth digit is 4
(E) fourth digit is 0
2. Which one of the following must be true about any
acceptable product code?
(A) The digit 1 appears in some position before the
digit 2.
(B) The digit 1 appears in some position before the
digit 3.
(C) The digit 2 appears in some position before the
digit 3.
(D) The digit 3 appears in some position before the
digit 0.
(E) The digit 4 appears in some position before the
digit 3.
3. If the third digit of an acceptable product code is not 0,
which one of the following must be true?
(A) The second digit of the product code is 2.
(B) The third digit of the product code is 3.
(C) The fourth digit of the product code is 0.
(D) The fifth digit of the product code is 3.
(E) The fifth digit of the product code is 1.
4. Any of the following pairs could be the third and
fourth digits, respectively, of an acceptable product
code, EXCEPT:
(A) 0, 1
(B) 0, 3
(C) 1, 0
(D) 3, 0
(E) 3, 4
5. Which one of the following must be true about any
acceptable product code?
(A) There is exactly one digit between the digit 0
and the digit 1.
(B) There is exactly one digit between the digit 1
and the digit 2.
(C) There are at most two digits between the digit 1
and the digit 3.
(D) There are at most two digits between the digit 2
and the digit 3.
(E) There are at most two digits between the digit 2
and the digit 4.
Questions 6–10
Exactly three films—Greed, Harvest, and Limelight—are
shown during a film club’s festival held on Thursday, Friday,
and Saturday. Each film is shown at least once during the
festival but never more than once on a given day. On each day
at least one film is shown. Films are shown one at a time. The
following conditions apply:
On Thursday Harvest is shown, and no film is shown after
it on that day.
On Friday either Greed or Limelight, but not both, is
shown, and no film is shown after it on that day.
On Saturday either Greed or Harvest, but not both, is
shown, and no film is shown after it on that day.
6. Which one of the following could be a complete and
accurate description of the order in which the films are
shown at the festival?
(A) Thursday: Limelight, then Harvest; Friday:
Limelight; Saturday: Harvest
(B) Thursday: Harvest; Friday: Greed, then
Limelight; Saturday: Limelight, then Greed
(C) Thursday: Harvest; Friday: Limelight; Saturday:
Limelight, then Greed
(D) Thursday: Greed, then Harvest, then Limelight;
Friday: Limelight; Saturday: Greed
(E) Thursday: Greed, then Harvest; Friday:
Limelight, then Harvest; Saturday: Harvest
7. Which one of the following CANNOT be true?
(A) Harvest is the last film shown on each day of the
festival.
(B) Limelight is shown on each day of the festival.
(C) Greed is shown second on each day of the
festival.
(D) A different film is shown first on each day of the
festival.
(E) A different film is shown last on each day of the
festival.
8. If Limelight is never shown again during the festival
once Greed is shown, then which one of the following is
the maximum number of film showings that could occur
during the festival?
(A) three
(B) four
(C) five
(D) six
(E) seven
9. If Greed is shown exactly three times, Harvest is shown
exactly twice, and Limelight is shown exactly once, then
which one of the following must be true?
(A) All three films are shown on Thursday.
(B) Exactly two films are shown on Saturday.
(C) Limelight and Harvest are both shown on
Thursday.
(D) Greed is the only film shown on Saturday.
(E) Harvest and Greed are both shown on Friday.
10. If Limelight is shown exactly three times, Harvest is
shown exactly twice, and Greed is shown exactly once,
then which one of the following is a complete and
accurate list of the films that could be the first film
shown on Thursday?
(A) Harvest
(B) Limelight
(C) Greed, Harvest
(D) Greed, Limelight
(E) Greed, Harvest, Limelight
Questions 11–17
A cruise line is scheduling seven week-long voyages for the
ship Freedom. Each voyage will occur in exactly one of the
first seven weeks of the season: weeks 1 through 7. Each
voyage will be to exactly one of four destinations:
destination will be scheduled for at least one of the weeks. The
following conditions apply to Freedom’s schedule:
Jamaica will not be its destination in week 4.
Trinidad will be its destination in week 7.
Freedom will make exactly two voyages to Martinique,
and at least one voyage to Guadeloupe will occur in some
week between those two voyages.
Guadeloupe will be its destination in the week preceding
any voyage it makes to Jamaica.
No destination will be scheduled for consecutive weeks.
11. Which one of the following is an acceptable schedule of
destinations for Freedom, in order from week 1 through
week 7?
(C) Jamaica, Martinique, Guadeloupe, Martinique,
12. Which one of the following CANNOT be true about
Freedom’s schedule of voyages?
(A) Freedom makes a voyage to Trinidad in week 6.
(B) Freedom makes a voyage to Martinique in
week 5.
(C) Freedom makes a voyage to Jamaica in week 6.
(D) Freedom makes a voyage to Jamaica in week 3.
(E) Freedom makes a voyage to Guadeloupe in
week 3.
13. If Freedom makes a voyage to Trinidad in week 5,
which one of the following could be true?
(A) Freedom makes a voyage to Trinidad in week 1.
(B) Freedom makes a voyage to Martinique in
week 2.
(C) Freedom makes a voyage to Guadeloupe in
week 3.
(D) Freedom makes a voyage to Martinique in
week 4.
(E) Freedom makes a voyage to Jamaica in week 6.
14. If Freedom makes a voyage to Guadeloupe in week 1
and a voyage to Jamaica in week 5, which one of the
following must be true?
(A) Freedom makes a voyage to Jamaica in week 2.
(B) Freedom makes a voyage to Trinidad in week 2.
(C) Freedom makes a voyage to Martinique in
week 3.
(D) Freedom makes a voyage to Guadeloupe in
week 6.
(E) Freedom makes a voyage to Martinique in
week 6.
15. If Freedom makes a voyage to Guadeloupe in week 1
and to Trinidad in week 2, which one of the following
must be true?
(A) Freedom makes a voyage to Martinique in
week 3.
(B) Freedom makes a voyage to Martinique in
week 4.
(C) Freedom makes a voyage to Martinique in
week 5.
(D) Freedom makes a voyage to Guadeloupe in
week 3.
(E) Freedom makes a voyage to Guadeloupe in
week 5.
16. If Freedom makes a voyage to Martinique in week 3,
which one of the following could be an accurate list of
Freedom’s destinations in week 4 and week 5,
respectively?
17. Which one of the following must be true about
Freedom’s schedule of voyages?
(A) Freedom makes a voyage to Guadeloupe either in
week 1 or else in week 2.
(B) Freedom makes a voyage to Martinique either in
week 2 or else in week 3.
(C) Freedom makes at most two voyages to
(D) Freedom makes at most two voyages to Jamaica.
(E) Freedom makes at most two voyages to Trinidad.
Questions 18–23
There are exactly three recycling centers in Rivertown:
Center 1, Center 2, and Center 3. Exactly five kinds of
material are recycled at these recycling centers: glass,
newsprint, plastic, tin, and wood. Each recycling center
recycles at least two but no more than three of these kinds of
material. The following conditions must hold:
Any recycling center that recycles wood also recycles
newsprint.
Every kind of material that Center 2 recycles is also
recycled at Center 1.
Only one of the recycling centers recycles plastic, and that
recycling center does not recycle glass.
18. Which one of the following could be an accurate account
of all the kinds of material recycled at each recycling
center in Rivertown?
(A) Center 1: newsprint, plastic, wood; Center 2:
newsprint, wood; Center 3: glass, tin, wood
(B) Center 1: glass, newsprint, tin; Center 2: glass,
newsprint, tin; Center 3: newsprint, plastic,
wood
(C) Center 1: glass, newsprint, wood; Center 2: glass,
newsprint, tin; Center 3: plastic, tin
(D) Center 1: glass, plastic, tin; Center 2: glass, tin;
Center 3: newsprint, wood
(E) Center 1: newsprint, plastic, wood; Center 2:
newsprint, plastic, wood; Center 3: glass,
newsprint, tin
19. Which one of the following is a complete and accurate
list of the recycling centers in Rivertown any one of
which could recycle plastic?
(A) Center 1 only
(B) Center 3 only
(C) Center 1, Center 2
(D) Center 1, Center 3
(E) Center 1, Center 2, Center 3
20. If Center 2 recycles three kinds of material, then which
one of the following kinds of material must Center 3
recycle?
(A) glass
(B) newsprint
(C) plastic
(D) tin
(E) wood
21. If each recycling center in Rivertown recycles exactly
three kinds of material, then which one of the following
could be true?
(A) Only Center 2 recycles glass.
(B) Only Center 3 recycles newsprint.
(C) Only Center 1 recycles plastic.
(D) Only Center 3 recycles tin.
(E) Only Center 1 recycles wood.
22. If Center 3 recycles glass, then which one of the
following kinds of material must Center 2 recycle?
(A) glass
(B) newsprint
(C) plastic
(D) tin
(E) wood
23. If Center 1 is the only recycling center that recycles
wood, then which one of the following could be a
complete and accurate list of the kinds of material that
one of the recycling centers recycles?
(A) plastic, tin
(B) newsprint, wood
(C) newsprint, tin
(D) glass, wood
(E) glass, tin
SECTION II
Time—35 minutes
25 Questions
Directions: The questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some
questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that
is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are by
commonsense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. After you have chosen the best answer,
blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.
1. Economist: Every business strives to increase its
productivity, for this increases profits for the
owners and the likelihood that the business will
survive. But not all efforts to increase
productivity are beneficial to the business as a
whole. Often, attempts to increase productivity
decrease the number of employees, which clearly
harms the dismissed employees as well as the
sense of security of the retained employees.
Which one of the following most accurately expresses
the main conclusion of the economist’s argument?
(A) If an action taken to secure the survival of a
business fails to enhance the welfare of the
business’s employees, that action cannot be
good for the business as a whole.
(B) Some measures taken by a business to increase
productivity fail to be beneficial to the business
as a whole.
(C) Only if the employees of a business are also its
owners will the interests of the employees and
owners coincide, enabling measures that will
be beneficial to the business as a whole.
(D) There is no business that does not make efforts
to increase its productivity.
(E) Decreasing the number of employees in a
business undermines the sense of security of
retained employees.
2. All Labrador retrievers bark a great deal. All Saint
Bernards bark infrequently. Each of Rosa’s dogs is a
cross between a Labrador retriever and a Saint Bernard.
Therefore, Rosa’s dogs are moderate barkers.
Which one of the following uses flawed reasoning that
most closely resembles the flawed reasoning used in
the argument above?
(A) All students who study diligently make good
grades. But some students who do not study
diligently also make good grades. Jane studies
somewhat diligently. Therefore, Jane makes
(B) All type A chemicals are extremely toxic to
human beings. All type B chemicals are
nontoxic to human beings. This household
cleaner is a mixture of a type A chemical and
a type B chemical. Therefore, this household
cleaner is moderately toxic.
(C) All students at Hanson School live in Green
County. All students at Edwards School live in
Winn County. Members of the Perry family
attend both Hanson and Edwards. Therefore,
some members of the Perry family live in
Green County and some live in Winn County.
(D) All transcriptionists know shorthand. All
engineers know calculus. Bob has worked both
as a transcriptionist and as an engineer.
Therefore, Bob knows both shorthand and
calculus.
(E) All of Kenisha’s dresses are very well made.
All of Connie’s dresses are very badly made.
Half of the dresses in this closet are very well
Therefore, half of the dresses in this closet are
Kenisha’s and half of them are Connie’s.
3. A century in certain ways is like a life, and as the end
of a century approaches, people behave toward that
century much as someone who is nearing the end of
life does toward that life. So just as people in their last
years spend much time looking back on the events of
their life, people at a century’s end _______.
Which one of the following most logically completes
the argument?
(A) reminisce about their own lives
(B) fear that their own lives are about to end
(C) focus on what the next century will bring
(D) become very interested in the history of the
century just ending
(E) reflect on how certain unfortunate events of the
century could have been avoided
4. Consumer: The latest Connorly Report suggests that
Ocksenfrey prepackaged meals are virtually
devoid of nutritional value. But the Connorly
Report is commissioned by Danto Foods,
Ocksenfrey’s largest corporate rival, and early
drafts of the report are submitted for approval to
Danto Foods’ public relations department.
Because of the obvious bias of this report, it is
clear that Ocksenfrey’s prepackaged meals really
are nutritious.
The reasoning in the consumer’s argument is most
vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that the
argument
(A) treats evidence that there is an apparent bias as
evidence that the Connorly Report’s claims are
false
(B) draws a conclusion based solely on an
unrepresentative sample of Ocksenfrey’s
products
(C) fails to take into account the possibility that
Ocksenfrey has just as much motivation to
create negative publicity for Danto as Danto
has to create negative publicity for Ocksenfrey
(D) fails to provide evidence that Danto Foods’
prepackaged meals are not more nutritious than
Ocksenfrey’s are
(E) presumes, without providing justification, that
Danto Foods’ public relations department
would not approve a draft of a report that was
hostile to Danto Foods’ products
5. Scientist: Earth’s average annual temperature has
increased by about 0.5 degrees Celsius over the
last century. This warming is primarily the result
of the buildup of minor gases in the atmosphere,
blocking the outward flow of heat from the
planet.
Which one of the following, if true, would count as
evidence against the scientist’s explanation of Earth’s
warming?
(A) Only some of the minor gases whose presence
in the atmosphere allegedly resulted in the
phenomenon described by the scientist were
produced by industrial pollution.
(B) Most of the warming occurred before 1940,
while most of the buildup of minor gases in
the atmosphere occurred after 1940.
(C) Over the last century, Earth received slightly
more solar radiation in certain years than it did
in others.
(D) Volcanic dust and other particles in the
atmosphere reflect much of the Sun’s radiation
back into space before it can reach Earth’s
surface.
(E) The accumulation of minor gases in the
atmosphere has been greater over the last
century than at any other time in Earth’s
history.
6. An undergraduate degree is necessary for appointment
to the executive board. Further, no one with a felony
conviction can be appointed to the board. Thus,
Murray, an accountant with both a bachelor’s and a
master’s degree, cannot be accepted for the position of
Executive Administrator, since he has a felony
conviction.
The argument’s conclusion follows logically if which
one of the following is assumed?
(A) Anyone with a master’s degree and without a
felony conviction is eligible for appointment to
the executive board.
(B) Only candidates eligible for appointment to the
executive board can be accepted for the
position of Executive Administrator.
(C) An undergraduate degree is not necessary for
acceptance for the position of Executive
(D) If Murray did not have a felony conviction, he
would be accepted for the position of
(E) The felony charge on which Murray was
convicted is relevant to the duties of the
position of Executive Administrator.
7. Ethicist: The most advanced kind of moral motivation
is based solely on abstract principles. This form
of motivation is in contrast with calculated selfinterest
or the desire to adhere to societal norms
and conventions.
The actions of which one of the following individuals
exhibit the most advanced kind of moral motivation, as
described by the ethicist?
(A) Bobby contributed money to a local charity
during a charity drive at work because he
worried that not doing so would make him
look stingy.
(B) Wes contributed money to a local charity during
a charity drive at work because he believed
that doing so would improve his employer’s
opinion of him.
(C) Donna’s employers engaged in an illegal but
profitable practice that caused serious damage
to the environment. Donna did not report this
practice to the authorities, out of fear that her
employers would retaliate against her.
(D) Jadine’s employers engaged in an illegal but
profitable practice that caused serious damage
to the environment. Jadine reported this
practice to the authorities out of a belief that
protecting the environment is always more
important than monetary profit.
(E) Leigh’s employers engaged in an illegal but
profitable practice that caused serious damage
to the environment. Leigh reported this practice
to the authorities only because several
colleagues had been pressuring her to do so.
8. Proponents of the electric car maintain that when the
technical problems associated with its battery design
are solved, such cars will be widely used and, because
they are emission-free, will result in an abatement of
the environmental degradation caused by auto
emissions. But unless we dam more rivers, the
electricity to charge these batteries will come from
nuclear or coal-fired power plants. Each of these three
power sources produces considerable environmental
damage. Thus, the electric car _______.
Which one of the following most logically completes
the argument?
(A) will have worse environmental consequences
than its proponents may believe
(B) will probably remain less popular than other
types of cars
(C) requires that purely technical problems be
solved before it can succeed
(D) will increase the total level of emissions rather
than reduce it
(E) will not produce a net reduction in
9. Although video game sales have increased steadily over
the past 3 years, we can expect a reversal of this trend
in the very near future. Historically, over three quarters
of video games sold have been purchased by people
from 13 to 16 years of age, and the number of people
in this age group is expected to decline steadily over
the next 10 years.
Which one of the following, if true, would most
seriously weaken the argument?
(A) Most people 17 years old or older have never
purchased a video game.
(B) Video game rentals have declined over the past
3 years.
(C) New technology will undoubtedly make entirely
new entertainment options available over the
next 10 years.
(D) The number of different types of video games
available is unlikely to decrease in the near
future.
(E) Most of the people who have purchased video
games over the past 3 years are over the age
of 16.
10. Double-blind techniques should be used whenever
possible in scientific experiments. They help prevent
the misinterpretations that often arise due to
expectations and opinions that scientists already hold,
and clearly scientists should be extremely diligent in
trying to avoid such misinterpretations.
Which one of the following most accurately expresses
the main conclusion of the argument?
(A) Scientists’ objectivity may be impeded by
interpreting experimental evidence on the basis
of expectations and opinions that they already
hold.
(B) It is advisable for scientists to use double-blind
techniques in as high a proportion of their
experiments as they can.
(C) Scientists sometimes neglect to adequately
consider the risk of misinterpreting evidence on
the basis of prior expectations and opinions.
(D) Whenever possible, scientists should refrain
from interpreting evidence on the basis of
previously formed expectations and
convictions.
(E) Double-blind experimental techniques are often
an effective way of ensuring scientific
objectivity.
11. It is now a common complaint that the electronic
media have corroded the intellectual skills required and
fostered by the literary media. But several centuries
ago the complaint was that certain intellectual skills,
such as the powerful memory and extemporaneous
eloquence that were intrinsic to oral culture, were being
destroyed by the spread of literacy. So, what awaits us
is probably a mere alteration of the human mind rather
than its devolution.
The reference to the complaint of several centuries ago
that powerful memory and extemporaneous eloquence
were being destroyed plays which one of the following
roles in the argument?
(A) evidence supporting the claim that the
intellectual skills fostered by the literary media
are being destroyed by the electronic media
(B) an illustration of the general hypothesis being
advanced that intellectual abilities are
inseparable from the means by which people
communicate
(C) an example of a cultural change that did not
necessarily have a detrimental effect on the
human mind overall
(D) evidence that the claim that the intellectual
skills required and fostered by the literary
media are being lost is unwarranted
(E) possible evidence, mentioned and then
dismissed, that might be cited by supporters of
the hypothesis being criticized
12. Suppose I have promised to keep a confidence and
someone asks me a question that I cannot answer
truthfully without thereby breaking the promise.
Obviously, I cannot both keep and break the same
promise. Therefore, one cannot be obliged both to
answer all questions truthfully and to keep all
promises.
Which one of the following arguments is most similar
in its reasoning to the argument above?
(A) It is claimed that we have the unencumbered
right to say whatever we want. It is also
claimed that we have the obligation to be civil
to others. But civility requires that we not
always say what we want. So, it cannot be true
both that we have the unencumbered right to
say whatever we want and that we have the
duty to be civil.
(B) Some politicians could attain popularity with
voters only by making extravagant promises;
this, however, would deceive the people. So,
since the only way for some politicians to be
popular is to deceive, and any politician needs
to be popular, it follows that some politicians
must deceive.
(C) If we put a lot of effort into making this report
look good, the client might think we did so
because we believed our proposal would not
stand on its own merits. On the other hand, if
we do not try to make the report look good,
the client might think we are not serious about
her business. So, whatever we do, we risk her
criticism.
(D) If creditors have legitimate claims against a
business and the business has the resources to
pay those debts, then the business is obliged to
pay them. Also, if a business has obligations to
pay debts, then a court will force it to pay
them. But the courts did not force this business
to pay its debts, so either the creditors did not
have legitimate claims or the business did not
have sufficient resources.
(E) If we extend our business hours, we will either
have to hire new employees or have existing
employees work overtime. But both new
employees and additional overtime would
dramatically increase our labor costs. We
cannot afford to increase labor costs, so we
will have to keep our business hours as they
stand.
13. Standard aluminum soft-drink cans do not vary in the
amount of aluminum that they contain. Fifty percent of
the aluminum contained in a certain group (M) of
standard aluminum soft-drink cans was recycled from
another group (L) of used, standard aluminum softdrink
cans. Since all the cans in L were recycled into
cans in M and since the amount of material other than
aluminum in an aluminum can is negligible, it follows
that M contains twice as many cans as L.
The conclusion of the argument follows logically if
which one of the following is assumed?
(A) The aluminum in the cans of M cannot be
recycled further.
(B) Recycled aluminum is of poorer quality than
unrecycled aluminum.
(C) All of the aluminum in an aluminum can is
recovered when the can is recycled.
(D) None of the soft-drink cans in group L had been
made from recycled aluminum.
(E) Aluminum soft-drink cans are more easily
recycled than are soft-drink cans made from
other materials.
14. A cup of raw milk, after being heated in a microwave
oven to 50 degrees Celsius, contains half its initial
concentration of a particular enzyme, lysozyme. If,
however, the milk reaches that temperature through
exposure to a conventional heat source of 50 degrees
Celsius, it will contain nearly all of its initial
concentration of the enzyme. Therefore, what destroys
the enzyme is not heat but microwaves, which generate
heat.
Which one of the following, if true, most seriously
weakens the argument?
(A) Heating raw milk in a microwave oven to a
temperature of 100 degrees Celsius destroys
nearly all of the lysozyme initially present in
that milk.
(B) Enzymes in raw milk that are destroyed through
excessive heating can be replaced by adding
enzymes that have been extracted from other
sources.
(C) A liquid exposed to a conventional heat source
of exactly 50 degrees Celsius will reach that
temperature more slowly than it would if it
were exposed to a conventional heat source
hotter than 50 degrees Celsius.
(D) Milk that has been heated in a microwave oven
does not taste noticeably different from milk
that has been briefly heated by exposure to a
conventional heat source.
(E) Heating any liquid by microwave creates small
zones within it that are much hotter than the
overall temperature that the liquid will
ultimately reach.
15. A new government policy has been developed to avoid
many serious cases of influenza. This goal will be
accomplished by the annual vaccination of high-risk
individuals: everyone 65 and older as well as anyone
with a chronic disease that might cause them to
experience complications from the influenza virus.
Each year’s vaccination will protect only against the
strain of the influenza virus deemed most likely to be
prevalent that year, so every year it will be necessary
for all high-risk individuals to receive a vaccine for a
different strain of the virus.
Which one of the following is an assumption that
would allow the conclusion above to be properly drawn?
(A) The number of individuals in the high-risk
group for influenza will not significantly
change from year to year.
(B) The likelihood that a serious influenza epidemic
will occur varies from year to year.
(C) No vaccine for the influenza virus protects
against more than one strain of that virus.
(D) Each year the strain of influenza virus deemed
most likely to be prevalent will be one that had
not previously been deemed most likely to be
prevalent.
(E) Each year’s vaccine will have fewer side effects
than the vaccine of the previous year since the
technology for making vaccines will constantly
improve.
16. Taylor: Researchers at a local university claim that
61 percent of the information transferred during a
conversation is communicated through nonverbal
signals. But this claim, like all such
mathematically precise claims, is suspect, because
claims of such exactitude could never be
established by science.
Sandra: While precision is unobtainable in many areas
of life, it is commonplace in others. Many
scientific disciplines obtain extremely precise
results, which should not be doubted merely
because of their precision.
The statements above provide the most support for
holding that Sandra would disagree with Taylor about
which one of the following statements?
(A) Research might reveal that 61 percent of the
information taken in during a conversation is
communicated through nonverbal signals.
(B) It is possible to determine whether 61 percent of
the information taken in during a conversation
is communicated through nonverbal signals.
(C) The study of verbal and nonverbal
communication is an area where one cannot
expect great precision in one’s research results.
(D) Some sciences can yield mathematically precise
results that are not inherently suspect.
(E) If inherently suspect claims are usually false,
then the majority of claims made by scientists
are false as well.
17. Hospital executive: At a recent conference on nonprofit
management, several computer experts
maintained that the most significant threat faced
by large institutions such as universities and
data. In light of this testimony, we should make
the protection of our clients’ confidentiality our
highest priority.
The hospital executive’s argument is most vulnerable to
which one of the following objections?
(A) The argument confuses the causes of a problem
with the appropriate solutions to that problem.
(B) The argument relies on the testimony of experts
whose expertise is not shown to be sufficiently
broad to support their general claim.
(C) The argument assumes that a correlation
between two phenomena is evidence that one is
the cause of the other.
(D) The argument draws a general conclusion about
a group based on data about an
unrepresentative sample of that group.
(E) The argument infers that a property belonging to
large institutions belongs to all institutions.
18. Modern science is built on the process of posing
hypotheses and testing them against observations—in
essence, attempting to show that the hypotheses are
incorrect. Nothing brings more recognition than
overthrowing conventional wisdom. It is accordingly
unsurprising that some scientists are skeptical of the
widely accepted predictions of global warming. What is
instead remarkable is that with hundreds of researchers
striving to make breakthroughs in climatology, very
few find evidence that global warming is unlikely.
The information above provides the most support for
which one of the following statements?
(A) Most scientists who are reluctant to accept the
global warming hypothesis are not acting in
accordance with the accepted standards of
scientific debate.
(B) Most researchers in climatology have substantial
motive to find evidence that would discredit
the global warming hypothesis.
(C) There is evidence that conclusively shows that
the global warming hypothesis is true.
(D) Scientists who are skeptical about global
warming have not offered any alternative
hypotheses to explain climatological data.
(E) Research in global warming is primarily driven
by a desire for recognition in the scientific
community.
19. Historian: The Land Party achieved its only national
victory in Banestria in 1935. It received most of
its support that year in rural and semirural areas,
where the bulk of Banestria’s population lived at
the time. The economic woes of the years
surrounding that election hit agricultural and
small business interests the hardest, and the Land
Party specifically targeted those groups in 1935. I
conclude that the success of the Land Party that
year was due to the combination of the Land
Party’s specifically addressing the concerns of
these groups and the depth of the economic
problems people in these groups were facing.
Each of the following, if true, strengthens the
historian’s argument EXCEPT:
(A) In preceding elections the Land Party made no
attempt to address the interests of economically
distressed urban groups.
(B) Voters are more likely to vote for a political
party that focuses on their problems.
(C) The Land Party had most of its successes when there
was economic distress in the agricultural sector.
(D) No other major party in Banestria specifically
addressed the issues of people who lived in
semirural areas in 1935.
(E) The greater the degree of economic distress
someone is in, the more likely that person is
to vote.
For more questions , here is the attachment;
Attached Files
 Law School Admission Test questions.pdf (507.1 KB, 15 views)

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