NIFT Fashion Management question paper

Can you give me question paper for fashion management entrance examination of National Institute of Fashion Technology ?

[Kiran Chandar]

here I am giving you question paper for fashion management entrance examination of National Institute of Fashion Technology below :

Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar idiom or syntax. Identify part and mark it as the answer.




1. Sunit is more talkative than*


2. any boy in the class because*


3. he is not afraid of the teacher*


4. since he is his brother*



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Question 2 of 100*
Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar idiom or syntax. Identify part and mark it as the answer.*



1. Lawyers these days can practice*


2. civil law, criminal law*


3. or the law of the Constitution*


4. or all of them together*



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Question 3 of 100*
Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar idiom or syntax. Identify part and mark it as the answer*



1. She was wearing a wig that was*


2. far more attractive than*


3. the other women who had*


4. their natural hair*



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Question 4 of 100*
Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar idiom or syntax. Identify part and mark it as the answer*



1. The only persons in the theatre*


2. on that stormy night*


3. were the staff of the theatre*


4. and me




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Question 5 of 100*
Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar idiom or syntax. Identify part and mark it as the answer.*



1. After finding the problem*


2. the mechanic cleaned the carburetor*


3. started the engine*


4. and found it working smoothly*



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Question 6 of 100*
Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar idiom or syntax. Identify part and mark it as the answer.*



1. If one reads the newspaper regularly*


2. you will be surprised at the improvement*


3. in your overall reading skills*


4. from day to day*



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Question 7 of 100*
Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar idiom or syntax. Identify part and mark it as the answer*



1. She was as pretty*


2. if not prettier than



3. any other girl who had come*


4. to participate in the meeting




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Question 8 of 100*
The average of 6 numbers is 19. The average of 5 of these is 20. What is the sixth number?*



1. 24*


2. 38*


3. 119*


4. 14*



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Question 9 of 100*

Two poles of heights 35 m and 20 m stand on a plane surface. If the distance between their feet is 20 m, what is the distance between their tops?




1. 50 m*


2. 25 m*


3. 40 m*


4. 55 m*



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Question 10 of 100*
of of of a number is 8. What is the number?*



1. 72*


2. 68*


3. 84*


4. 70*



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Question 11 of 100*
If 3x = , x = ?*



1. 3*


2. 9*


3. – 3*


4. ? 9*



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Question 12 of 100*

25% of a number is greater than the other number by 5. If sum of the numbers is 70, what is the ratio of the larger number to the smaller number?




1. 6 : 1*


2. 3 : 1*


3. 5 : 1*


4. 4 : 1*




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Question 13 of 100*

The third proportional of (X2 – Y2) and (x – y) is ________.




1.*


2.*


3. (x + y)2*


4. x3 ? y3*



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Question 14 of 100*
A sum of Rs. 1560 is to be distributed amongst A, B and C in the proportion of : : . What is the share of A?*



1. Rs.780*


2. Rs.640*


3. Rs.720*


4. Rs.840*



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Question 15 of 100*
Which of the following is the smallest number which when divided by 20, 25, 35 and 40 leaves the remainders as 12, 17, 27 and 32 respectively?*



1. 1200*


2. 1400*


3. 1408*


4. 1392*



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Question 16 of 100*

The floor of the rectangular room of size 10 m (length) x 8.5 m (width) x 8.5 m (height) is to be carpeted so as to leave a margin of 1.25 m from all sides. What would be the area of the carpet required?




1. 45 sq.m.*


2. 40 sq.m*


3. 60 sq.m*


4. 90 sq.m*



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Question 17 of 100*

6 examiners working 5 hours a day can check 750 answer books in 8 days. At the same rate of checking, in what period of time can 4 examiners examine 800 answer books, working 8 hours a day?




1. 4 days*


2. 8 days*


3. 9 days*


4. 12 days*



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Question 18 of 100*

Two railway stations A and B are 300 km apart. In what time will two trains, starting from the opposite ends and travelling towards each other with equal speeds, meet each other?




1. 4 hrs*


2. 1 hr.*


3. 2 hrs*


4. Cannot be determined*



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Question 19 of 100*
A sailor travels in a boat 8 km downstream in 40 minutes and returns back to the same point in 1 hour. What is the speed of the boat in still water?*



1. 6 kmph*


2. 12 kmph*


3. 9 kmph*


4. 10 kmph*



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Question 20 of 100*

The average age of a couple was 26 years at the time of their marriage. After 11 years of marriage, the
average age of the family with 3 children becomes 19 years. What is the average age of the children?*



1. 8yrs*


2. 6 yrs*


3. 7 yrs*


4. 11 yrs*



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Question 21 of 100*
Milk and water are mixed in the ratio 4 : 1 to form solution A and in the ratio of 3 : 2 to form solution B. A man takes equal quantities of solutions A and B and mixes them together. What is the ratio of quantities of milk to that of water in the mixture so formed ?*



1. 7 : 3*


2. 1 : 1*


3. 3 : 7*


4. 3 : 2*



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Question 22 of 100*
What is the ratio of side of a square to the radius of a circle, both with equal perimeters?*



1. 1 : II*


2. 2 : II*


3. II : 1*


4. II : 2*



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Question 23 of 100*
Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar idiom or syntax. Identify part and mark it as the answer.*



1. There is only the plantain*


2. and one apple in the refrigerator*


3. so let us go to the market*


4. and buy some more fruits*



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Question 24 of 100*
Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar idiom or syntax. Identify part and mark it as the answer*



1. Like his brother who did not wear his helmet*


2. and was injured in the accident*


3. Rajan was always careful*


4. and wore his helmet without fail*



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Question 25 of 100*
Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been divided into four parts and marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these parts contains a mistake in grammar idiom or syntax. Identify part and mark it as the answer*



1. It is futile to discuss this further*


2. since neither him nor you*


3. is going to agree*


4. with the other on this issue*



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Question 26 of 100*

Direction: In the following question four words or phrases have been underlined. Only one underlined part in each sentence is not acceptable in standard English. Pick up the part (A), (B), (C) or (D).*







I have seen (A) as bed or worse scenes of (B) disorder at the English fair (C) than in (D) any other fair.*



1. (A)*


2. (B)*


3. (C)*


4. (D)*



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Question 27 of 100*
Direction: In the following question four words or phrases have been underlined. Only one underlined part in each sentence is not acceptable in standard English. Pick up the part (A), (B), (C) or (D).*
This is the third (A) communication we have (B) sent and(C) we are very surprised that we have received (D) no answer*



1. (A)*


2. (B)*


3. (C)*


4. (D)*



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Question 28 of 100*
Direction: In the following question four words or phrases have been underlined. Only one underlined part in each sentence is not acceptable in standard English. Pick up the part (A), (B), (C) or (D).
The officers are (A) now (B) perfectly happy fishing, boating, shooting, (C) playing cricket and (D) other sport.*



1. (A)*


2. (B)*


3. (C)*


4. (D)*



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Question 29 of 100*
Direction: In the following question four words or phrases have been underlined. Only one underlined part in each sentence is not acceptable in standard English. Pick up the part (A), (B), (C) or (D).


While in conversation(A) with a high ranking military officer (B) he told me that (C) at the head-quarters*
nothing (D) was known*



1. (A)*


2. (B)*


3. (C)*


4. (D)*



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Question 30 of 100*
Direction: In the following question four words or phrases have been underlined. Only one underlined part in each sentence is not acceptable in standard English. Pick up the part (A), (B), (C) or (D)

(A) The fear of an (B) impending invasion has more to do (C) than even the debasing of the coinage with the (D) financial difficulties*



1. (A)*


2. (B)*


3. (C)*


4. (D)*



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Question 31 of 100*
Directions: Select the correct word or phrase to complete a grammatical and idiomatic sentence
The patient was cheered --- by the news that she was likely to be discharged in a day or two.*



1. on*


2. up*


3. out*


4. down*



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Question 32 of 100*
Directions: Select the correct word or phrase to complete a grammatical and idiomatic sentence
The thieves had driven ten miles before the police caught – them*



1. on with*


2. upon*


3. up to*


4. up with*



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Question 33 of 100*
Directions: Select the correct word or phrase to complete a grammatical and idiomatic sentence
As soon as the visitors dishonest purpose was discovered, he was --- the door*



1. show with*


2. shown to*


3. shown*


4. shown out of*



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Question 34 of 100*
Directions: Select the correct word or phrase to complete a grammatical and idiomatic sentence
As soon as my attention was --- the dangerous state of the staircase, I got it repaired.*



1. drawn for*


2. drawn upon*


3. drawn near*


4. drawn to




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Question 35 of 100*
Directions: Select the correct word or phrase to complete a grammatical and idiomatic sentence.
---- pompous, he was an entertaining companion*



1. Before*


2. Never*


3. Though*


4. Despite




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Question 36 of 100*
Directions: Choose a word or phrase which is opposite in meaning to the key word.
Esteem*



1. veneration*


2. revere*


3. mighty*


4. disdain




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Question 37 of 100*

Directions: Choose a word or phrase which is opposite in meaning to the key word.
Eternal*



1. permanent*


2. perpetual*


3. transitory*


4. active*



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Question 38 of 100*
Directions: Choose a word or phrase which is opposite in meaning to the key word


Eulogistic




1. pretty*


2. critical*


3. brief*


4. stern*



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Question 39 of 100*
Directions: Choose a word or phrase which is opposite in meaning to the key word
Euphonious*



1. strident*


2. lethargic*


3. literary*


4. significant*



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Question 40 of 100*
Directions: Choose a word or phrase which is opposite in meaning to the key word
Evitable*



1. unavoidable*


2. eatable*


3. half-baked*


4. crisp*

I am going to appear in NIFT Fashion Management exam. So I need a sample question paper. So here can you provide me NIFT Fashion Management exam question paper?

[Raman Vij]

I have a paper of NIFT Fashion Management exam question paper. So here I am providing you as you want.



1.Which is not designated as a union territory?
A)chandigarh
B)goa
C)pondicherry
D)andaman & nicobar islands
2.sudhir tailand is a noted
A)nusician
B)cartoonist
C)painter
D)poet
3.arvind mills, a company of lalbhai group, makes jeans under which brand name?
A)lee
B)newport
C)pepe
D)levi
4.initially,graments were exported from india to
A)USA & UK
B)asian countries only
C)african & society
D)france & germany
5.in the free trade regime, india ____ its own domestic market to other countries.
A)need not open
B)must not open
C)will have to open
D)should plan to partially open
6.the issue/issues that put brakes on exports from india & other developing nations include.
A)Potectionism
B)child labour
C)labour rights
D)All of these
7.Presently , there are_____member in WTO.
A)150
B)120
C)140
D)160
8.Principles & agreements of this organisation were adopted by WTO.
A)internatonal Trade organisation(ITO)
B)International labour organisation(ILO)
C)General Agreement of tariff & trade (GATT)d
D)none of these
9.All WTO members may participate in all councils, committees etc., except
A)Appellate body
B)Dispute settlement panels
C)Plurilateral commettees
D)All of these
10.The WTO has ______ power to enforce its decisions through the authorisation or trade sanctions
against members which fail to comply with its decisions.
A)no
B) very little
C)some
D)significant
11.For membership of WTO ,Russia, having first applied to join GATT in 1993,
A)became a member in1996
B)is still in negotiations
C)bacame a member in 2005
D)none of these is correct
12.TBT Agreement under the WTO stands for
A)Technical Barriers to Trade
B)Technical Backward Trade
C)Towards Better Trade
D)Territory for Business and Trade
13.The process of making a dress starts with sketching the original idea on
A)cloth
B)a wooden board
C)paper
D)black slate
14.With which brand of shoes would you associate: Godzilla, Independence Day and Brave Heart?
A)Woodland
B)Lee cooper
C)Reebok
D)Nike
15.What are Vichitrapuris and Patolas?
A)Lehngas
B)Dupattas
C)Sarees
D)none of these
16.What is the name given to a Khaki Trouser having six or eight pockets?
A)Cargo
B)jeans
C)bell bottoms
D)Breeches
17.Which state is known for its Ikat textiles?
A)Andhra Pradesh
B)Tamil nadu
C)Kerala
D)karanataka
18.Of the total foriegn Direct Investment(FDI)approvals, about.....are in the priority sectors such as
power, oil refineries, electronics and electrical equipment, telecommunications, etc.
A)10%
B)50%
C)30%
D)80%
19.The basic factor(s) which influence india's import policy include
A)economic needs of the country
B)effective use of foreign exchange
C)industrial/consumer requirments
D)All the above
20.Under Export promotion Capital Goods(EPCG)scheme, service industries enjoy the facility of
......import duty.
A)reduced
B)zero
C)marginally reduced
D)considerably reduced
21.Rayon is a fibre which falls in the category of
A) man-made fibre
B)vegetable fibre
C)nylon
D)animal fibre
22.Sanforising is a guarantee mark on the fabric which indicates that the fabric will not
A)discolour
B)deshape
C)distort
D)shrink
23.Wool is a ............fibre.
A)polyester
B)cotton
C)animal
D)vegetable
24.Which of the following statement(s) is/are appropriate?
A)Apparels provide rustic appeal
B)Apparels can create margical fashions
C)Apparels equip you to live in comfort in all type of climatic conditions
D)All the above are appropriate
25.The fashion Design Council of india(FDCI), which is a single entity representing the business
interests of the designer fraternity across india, was born in the years.
A)2004
B)1998
C)2000
D)1968
26.Name the famous upcoming fashion designer who designed clothes for the well known film"black".
A)Payal jain
B)surily goel
C)Sabyasachi Mukherjee
D)sandeep khosla
27.Which two colours are mixed to form brown colours?
A)Red and Black
B)Red and Yellow
C)Green and Red
D)Blue and Red
28.In the garments we wear,plankets can be seen at which place?
A)Neck
B)sleeve
C)Waist
D)All the above
29.No person is allowed to export or import goods without obtaining an.......from the regional
Licensing Authority unless exempted under provisions of Export & import Policy.
A)importer-Exporter Classification number
B)Importer-Exporter Code number
C)Importer -Exproter Category
D)Importer-Exporter Indentity number

30.which of the following items is chiefly manufactured in australia?
A)silk
B)wool
C)cotton
D)Nylon

Fashion Management question paper