28th May 2015 11:01 AM | |
Quick Sam | Re: UP PCS Previous question papers Here I am providing you Previous Years Question Papers of General Studies for preparation of UPPSC (Uttar Pradesh Public Service Commission) Exam. Uttar Pradesh PSC General Studies Question Paper: 1. A person takes 10,000 loan at the rate of 10% interest compounding yearly for the period of 4 years. How much interest he has to pay ? (a) f 4,371 (c) f 14641 (b) f 4,581 (d) f 4,641 2. A student is required to secure at least 50% marks in order to pass an examination. He se- cured 50 marks which were less than the mini- mum pass marks by 50. The maximum marks of the paper are 3. In an examination, 40% students failed in Hindi, 50% students failed in English. If 21% students faUed in both the subjects, find the percentage of those who passed in Hindi. (a) 31% (b) 55% (b) 40% (d) 60% 4. The value of x in the equation --1 ---1=-1 x-3 x+5 6 are (a) (c) -7, 9 (b) -7, -9 (d) 7, 9 5. A number is of two digits. The position of digits is interchanged and the new number is added to the original number. The resultant number wiU always be divisible by (a) 8 (c) 10 (b) 9 (d) 11 6. A, B and C together hired a pasture on payment off 888. In the pasture, 20 sheep of A grazed for 2.5 months, 30 sheep of B grazed for 4 months and 36 sheep of C grazed for 3.5 months. How much should C pay as his share ? (a) f 358 (b) f 378 (b) f 360 (d) f 396 7. The average contribution of 5 men to a fund is f 35. Sixth man Joins and pays f 35 more than the resultant average of six men. The total con- tribution of aU the six men is (a) f 210 (c) f 250 (b) f 245 (d) f 252 8. The expression (2+.J2)+ (2 + )+(2- ) equals (c) 4-.fi (d) 2+.fi 9. If the side of a cube is increased by 100% its volume is increased by (a) 400% (c) 200% (b) 800% (d) 100% If the perimeter of a certain rectangle is 76 and its area 360, then what is the length of its short- est side? (a) 12 (c) 18 (b) 20 (d) 36 11. If A, B, C are sets, then A - (B - C) equals (a) (A - B) u (A C) (b) (A- B)- C (c) (A - B) n (A - C) (d) (A - B) - (A - C) 12. If the graphic representation of the data is such that it consists of adJacent rectangles whose bases are equal to the class sizes and heights are equal to the respective class frequencies, then the figure is (a) An Ogive (b) a Histogram (c) A Frequency Polygon (d) A Bar Chart 13. The L.C.M. and H.C.M. of two numbers x and y are 3 and 105 respectively. If x + y = 36, the value of 1 1 x y is (a) 1 (b) 1 6 (c) 12 315 (d) 4 35 14. Mode and mean of a given moderately asymmetric data are 18 and 24 respectively. Their median is (a) 18 (b) 24 (c) 22 (d) 21 15. A man starts from his home and walks 10 kilometres towards South. Then he turns right and walks 6 km, again the he turns right and goes 10 km. Finally he turns right and walks 5 km. At what distance is he from his starting point ? (a) 31 km (b) 2 101km (c) 1 km (d) 125 136 km 16. Find the value of x in the series 2, 6, 30, 210, x, 30030, … (a) 2310 (b) 1890 (c) 2520 (d) 2730 17. _ 49 have been divided among 150 children. If each girl gets 50 paise and each boy gets 25 paise, then the number of boys is (a) 100 (b) 104 (c) 102 (d) 106 18. Diagonals of a quadrilateral intersect at the point 'O' such that AO × DO = BO × CO, then ABCD is a (a) Kite shaped quadrilateral (b) Parallelogram (c) Rectangle (d) Trapezium 19. The mean marks of 30 students in a class is 58.5. Later on it was found that the marks 75 was wrongly recorded as 57. Find the correct mean. (a) 57.4 (b) 57.5 (c) 58.9 (d) 59.1 20. A manufacturer sells a machine to the wholeseller at a profit of 20%. The wholeseller sells it to the retailer at a profit of 10%. The retailer sells the machine to a customer for _ 455.40 after making a profit of 15%. The cost of the manufacturer is (a) _ 300 (b) _ 296 (c) _ 280 (d) _ 260 21. In three vessels, the ratio of water and milk is 6 : 7, 5 : 9 and 8 : 7 respectively. If the mixture of the three vessels is mixed, then what will be the ratio of water and milk ? (a) 2431 : 3781 (b) 3691 : 4499 (c) 4381 : 5469 (d) None of these 22. The average age of women and child workers in a factory was 15 years. The average age of all the 16 children was 8 years and the average age of women workers was 22 years. If ten women workers were married the number of unmarried women workers is (a) 16 (b) 12 (c) 8 (d) 6 23. A daily wage earner gets a daily wage at the rate of _ 150 per day subject to the condition that he will have to pay a penalty at the rate of _ 25 per day for the days on which he absents himself. At the end of 60 days he gets an amount of _ 7,600. The number of days he worked is (a) 54 days (b) 52 days (c) 51 days (d) 48 days 24. A man arranged to pay off a debt of _ 3600 by 40 annual instalments which are in Arithmetical Progression when 30 of the instalments have been paid, he dies leaving 1/3rd of the debt unpaid. The value of the 8th instalment is (a) _ 35 (b) _ 50 (c) _ 65 (d) None of these 25. The age of a father is three times of that of his son. After 5 years, the double of father's age will be five times the age of son. The present age of father and son is (a) 30 years, 10 years (b) 36 years, 12 years (c) 42 years, 14 years (d) 45 years, 15 years 26. If X, Y and Z can finish a work in 12, 15 and 18 days respectively, then all three together can finish that work in (a) 32 4 37 days (b) 5 days (c) 1 5 37 days (d) 5 5 37 days 27. The total expenditure incurred by an industry under different heads is best represented as a (a) Bar diagram (b) Frequency polygon (c) Pie chart (d) Histogram 28. The principle of KISS in communication stands for (a) Keep It Stylish and Subtle (b) Keep It Short and Simple (c) Keep It Sincere and Secret (d) Keep It Safe and Shaded 29. Which one of the following is the reason for emitting the negative signal of scowling ? (a) Boredom (b) Impatience (c) Disbelief (d) Annoyance 30. In a group of 50 people, 35 speak Hindi, 25 speak both Hindi and English and all the people speak Hindi or English or both. The number of people who speak English only is (a) 40 (b) 20 (c) 15 (d) 10 31. Which one of the following is a receiver's weakness type of barrier to communication ? (a) Ambiguity (b) Jargon (c) Time (d) Prejudice 32. Consider the following statements: Assertion (A): Interpersonal roles relate to a person's behaviour that focuses on interpersonal contact. Reason (R) : Such roles are derived directly from the authority and status. Select your correct answer from the codes given below: (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) correctly explains (A). (b) Both (A) and ® are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (d) (A) is false, (R) is true. 33. Which one of the following is not an interpersonal role ? (a) Figurehead (b) Leader (c) Liaison (d) Boss 34. The one who makes short-term adjustments and long-term structural changes to maintain the equilibrium is called (a) Disseminator (b) Resource allocator (c) Disturbance handler (d) Negotiator 35. Which one of the following is the reason for displaying the positive personal signal of learning forward? (a) Concentration (b) Extreme confidence (c) Taking time to think (d) Relaxation 36. Which one of the following is known as the avoiding style of conflict resolution ? (a) Satisfying your own needs at the expense of others (b) Satisfying other's needs while Neglecting your own (c) Neglecting interest of both parties by postponing a decision (d) Asking both parties to make sacrifices 37. Which one of the following refers to the need to associate with others ? (a) Need for inclusion (b) Need for individuation (c) Need for control (d) Need for affection 38. In conflict resolution which one of the following explains the emphasizing of areas of agreement and deemphasizing areas of difference over conflictual issues ? (a) Smoothing (b) Smoothing (c) Compromising (d) Confrontation 39. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of empathic listening ? (a) Putting oneself in the position of a speaker (b) Being evaluative (c) Observing body language (d) Focussing both on feeling and content of the message 40. Match items of List - I with those of List - II and select your correct answer from the codes give below correct answer from the codes given below the lists : List - I List - II Barriers to Types of Barriers Communication A. Vocabulary 1. Structural B. Distance 2. Situational C. Haste 3. Circumstantial D. Noise 4. Language Codes : A B C D (a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 3 2 1 4 (c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 4 1 3 2 41. A manager who is helping a customer return some articles that he purchased earlier is dealing with a (a) programmed decision (b) non-programmed decision (c) uncertainty (d) bounded rationality 42. You are a Deputy Secretary in a Ministry of the Government of India where you are dealing with the appointment of 'Technical Assistants'. On the basis of a written examination, 10 candidates have been short-listed for the two posts. Based on their educational and previous work experience you have to make your recommendation in order of preference. A senior official in the Ministry who is known to you asks you to recommend the name of a candidate Y amongst the first two choices. What will you do? (a) Bring the matter to the knowledge of your immediate superior officer and do as he verbally directs. (b) Comply to the request of the senior officer who approached you and recommend the name of his candidate in the top two despite knowing that he is not among the best two. (c) Examine the profile of all ten candidates and take decision on merits even if it means that candidate Y is eventually selected. (d) See to it that the candidate Y is not selected at all by placing him down in the preference. 43. Decision making based on the use of subjective experience, self-confidence and self-motivation to process information data refers to (a) intuitive decision making (b) rational decision making (c) bounded rationality approach (d) administrative decision making 44. Find out the missing number : (a) 860 (b) 1140 (c) 3240 (d) 2880 45. In a cricket series India defeated Australia twice, West Indies defeated India twice, Australia defeated West Indies twice and India defeated West Indies and New Zealand twice. Which country lost largest number of matches? (a) India (b) Australia (b) West Indies (d) New Zealand 46. Sheela is older than Meena, Kamini is as sold as Nalini, Neetu is younger than Sindhu who is as old as Nalini while Meena is older than Kamini. Who is the oldest of all? (a) Meena (b) Kamini (c) Nalini (d) Sheela 47. Hema and Sadhana are very good at music and dancing. Madhuri and Sadhana are equally good at yoga and music. Madhuri and Reeta are good at acting and painting. Who may be appointed as Art's Coordinator? (a) Hema (b) Sadhana (c) Madhuri (d) Reea 48. Which of the following would come in place of the question mark (?) in the series? Series : B, E, H, K, N, Q, T, W, Z, (?) (a) C F I (b) D G H (b) P R S (d) F I J 49. A watch is one minute slow at 1.00 p.m. on Tuesday and two minutes fast at 1.00 p.m. on Thursday. When did it show the correct time? (a) 1.00 a.m. on Wednesday (b) 5.00 a.m. on Wednesday (c) 1.00 p.m. on Wednesday (d) 5.00 p.m. on Wednesday 50. A girl was born on September 6, 1970 which happened to be a Sunday. Her birthday would have fallen again on Sunday in (a) 1975 (b) 1977 (c) 1981 (d) 1982 51.In a certain office, 72% of the workers prefer cold drink and 44% prefer tea. If each of them prefers cold drink or tea and 40 like both, then the total number of workers in the office is (a) 250 (b) 240 (c) 220 (d) 210 52. Paschim Express left Delhi for Mumbai at 14.30 hours travelling at a speed of 60 kmph. August Kranti Express left Delhi for Mumbai on the same day at 16.30 hours travelling at a speed of 80 kmph. How far away from Delhi will the two trains meet (stoppages excluded)? (a) 500 kms (b) 480 kms (c) 360 kms (d) 240 kms 53. Fill in the dice given below by replacing alphabets in place of question marks. (a) L N (b) C F (c) E O (d) M G 54. Supply the missing number (?) 48, 24, 72, 36, 108, (?) (a) 115 (b) 216 (c) 121 (d) 54 55. Which number will occur in the place of question mark (?) ? 235 (648) 413; 809 (1321) 512, 136 (?) 325 (a) 461 (b) 462 (c) 358 (d) 432 56. Keshav knows that Kapil's marks are more than 3 but less than 8 in a unit test. Mangal knows that these are more than 6 but less than 10. If both of them are correct, which of the following statements about Kapil's marks in definitely true? (a) It has either of two values (b) It has any of three values (c) It has only one value (d) It has any of four values 57. If South-East becomes North and North-East becomes West and all the rest directions are changed in the same manner, what will be the direction for the West? (a) North-East (b) South (c) South-East (d) South-West 58. Consider the following statements: Assertion (A): Seeds should be treated with fungicide before sowing. Reason (R): Without treating with fungicides, the seeds to not germinate. Codes: (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) correctly explains (A). (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A). (c) (A) is false, but (R) is true. (d) (A) is true, but (R) is false. 59. Consider the following statements: Statement: Students are influenced more by their teachers. Conclusions: (1) Students are influenced by intellectuality. (2) Students consider their teachers as their role models. (3) Much time of students is spent at school. Of these conclusions: (a) Only (1) is implicit in the statement. (b) (1) and (2) are implicit in the statement. (c) (1) and (3) are implicit in the statement. (d) (1), (2) and (3) are implicit in the statement. 60. Find out the odd item. (a) Pensive (b) Truthful (c) Sly (d) Virtuous 61. Among five friends A is heavier than B, C is lighter than D, B is lighter than D but heavier than E. Who among the following is the heaviest? (a) B (b) C (c) A (d) E 62. Analyze the following statement and choose your correct answer from the given options: "Conservatives are seldom intolerant." (a) Whoever is conservative is intolerant. (b) May conservatives are intolerant. (c) Quite a few conservatives are tolerant. (d) All conservatives are intolerant. Directions regarding questions 63 and 64 : The pie charts below show the breakup of the Total Revenue and Total Sales Volume for a company for one year ending 31st March. Total Revenue = _ 11,39,200 millions Total Sales Volumes = 653610 units Based on the data provided in both the figures answer the two questions that follow: 63. What is the approximate net revenue per Esteem sold? (a) _ 13,26,000 (b) _ 13,48,000 (c) _ 14,36,000 (d) _ 14,81,000 64. If the volume of sales of Omni was increased by 25% and this sales increase was entirely at the cost of M800, then what is the percentage decrease in M800 sales? (a) 4.8% (b) 4.75% (c) 4.3% (d) 4.25% Directions for the following three questions (Q. 65 to 67) : Read the passage and answer the questions that follow. Your answers to these questions should be based on the passage only. Like many people I was convinced that the broad range of health benefits that physical activity offers including weight loss, lower blood pressure and cholesterol levels and hardier immune system. So three times a week I sweated on a treadmill and exercise bicycle at my local gym. At the end of two months, I was trimmer, more energetic, and felt fitter. If I could accomplish this by working three times a week, I reasoned, the more exercise should bring me even greater benefits. In the next six months, I included an hour long running six times a week and initially felt an improved fitness level. However, soon I was plagued by muscular soreness and aching knees. I felt fatigued rather than fresher after a work out. What is more? I found myself suffering from frequent colds. Wasn't the exercise meant to protect me from all this? Exercise only up to a point. A prescription of exercise does not mean running to the point of lameness or swimming endless laps until your arms cramp. So, forget 'no pain, no gain'. The key to maximizing the benefits of exercise is a safe and sensible programme. Choose exercises that are safe and enjoyable and will stay with you a life time. The initial enthusiasm of high impact exercises gives way to diminishing enjoyment. 65. To get maximum benefits of exercise one must (a) follow a rigid fitness routine (b) do high impact exercises (c) exercise infrequently (d) follow a guided exercise schedule 66. 'Work out' in this passage means (a) a cessation of physical exercise (b) to work outdoors (c) a session of physical exercise (d) anything that works eventually 67. One feels fatigued because of (a) over-exercising (b) long working hours (c) poor diet (d) lack of exercise 68. Give the correct meaning of the word 'osmosis'. (a) Burning off of impurities (b) Movement of underground water in an oasis (c) Movement of liquid through a membrane (d) Lowering of the freezing point 69. Transform the following sentence without a change of meaning. "Besides being poor he is in debt" Choose your answer from the following: (a) He is poor inspite of his debt (b) He is poor so he is in debt (c) He is poor yet he is in debt (d) He is poor as well as in debt 70. Which one of the following is the correct active voice of the sentence given below ? "Wasn't the rebuked by his officer ?" (a) His officer rebuked him. (b) Did his officer rebuke him ? (c) Didn't his officer rebuke him ? (d) Was not his officer rebuke him ? 71. Which of the following is the correct indirect form of the sentence given below ? I said to you, "You can see my shop tomorrow". (a) I told you that you could see my shop next day. (b) I told you to see my shop tomorrow. (c) I told you that you could see my shop next day. (d) I said to you that you could see my shop tomorrow. 72. Which one of the following is the correct transformation of the sentence given below without a change of meaning ? "None but a fool would say this" (a) A foolish person would say this. (b) Only a fool would say this. (c) None despite a fool would say this. (d) Neither except a fool would say this. 73. Fill in the blanks in the following sentence and choose your answer from the option given below the sentence : "John got … the examination." (a) up (b) at (c) down (d) through 74. Choose the correctly spelt world. (a) embarrass (b) emarass (c) embarras (d) embarrass 75. Which of the following would you associate with the world "gregarious" correctly ? (a) A little tipsy (b) Egocentric (c) Fond of company (d) Markedly rude 76. The phrase "Palmy days" means (a) Old days (b) Middle ages (c) Bad days (d) Prosperous days 1. d 2. a 3. d 4. a 5. d 6. c 7. b 8. a 9. b 10. c 11. c 12. b 13. d 14. c 15. c 16. b 17. b 18. b 19. d 20. a 21. d 22. d 23. b 24. c 25. d 26. a 27. c 28. b 29. d 30. c 31. a 32. 33. a 34. d 35. a 36. c 37. a 38. d 39. b 40. d 41. b 42. c 43. a 44. d 45. c 46. d 47. c 48. a 49. c 50. d 51. a 52. b 53. c 54. d 55. a 56. c 57. c 58. d 59. b 60. a 61. c 62. c 63. d 64. b 65. d 66. c 67. a 68. c 69. d 70. c 71. b 72. b 73. d 74. a 75. c 76. a |
28th May 2015 10:56 AM | |
Unregistered | Re: UP PCS Previous question papers I want to give UPPSC (Uttar Pradesh Public Service Commission) Exam so please provide me Previous Years Question Papers of General Studies for preparation? |
31st July 2014 04:14 PM | |
Kiran Chandar | Re: UP PCS Previous question papers Here I am giving you syllabus for Uttar Pradesh Public Service Commission PCS state service examination in a word file attached with it so you can get it easily. 1. The only Indian Governor General was— (A) C. Rajagopalachari (B) Pattabhi Sitaramayya (C) Rajendra Prasad (D) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel Ans : (A) 2. Which plan became the basis for Indian independence ? (A) Cripps Plan (B) Wavell Plan (C) Mountbatten Plan (D) None of the above Ans : (C) 3. Which part of Indian Constitution has been described as the soul of the Constitution ? (A) Fundamental Rights (B) Directive Principle of State Policy (C) The Preamble (D) Right to Constitutional Remedies Ans : (D) 4. Name the Indian who attended all the Three Round Table Conferences— (A) B. R. Ambedkar (B) Mahatma Gandhi (C) Mohammad Ali Jinnah (D) Tej Bahadur Sapru Ans : (A) 5. Rabindranath Tagore relinquished his Nighthood as a measure of protest against— (A) Partition of Bengal (B) Press Act of 1910 (C) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (D) Salt Laws Ans : (C) 6. The 52nd amendment to the Constitution of India deals with— (A) Defection (B) Reservation (C) Election (D) Protection of minorities Ans : (A) 7. The Panchayati Raj was recommended by— (A) The Government of India Act, 1935 (B) The Cripps Mission of 1942 (C) The Indian Independence Act, 1947 (D) Balwantrai Mehta Committee Report, 1957 Ans : (D) 8. The President of India can nominate— (A) 10 members to Rajya Sabha (B) 2 members to Rajya Sabha (C) 15 members to Rajya Sabha (D) 12 members to Rajya Sabha Ans : (D) 9. UNO has fixed the target for ‘Education for All’ till the year— (A) 2012 (B) 2013 (C) 2014 (D) 2015 Ans : (D) 10. The subjects on which both the Centre and State Governments can legislate are contained in— (A) The Union List (B) The State List (C) The Concurrent List (D) Residuary List Ans : (C) 11. Which State Legislative Assembly has the maximum strength (number of members) ? (A) Andhra Pradesh (B) West Bengal (C) Maharashtra (D) Uttar Pradesh Ans : (D) 12. The concept of ‘Fundamental Rights’ enshrined in the Indian Constitution was borrowed from which country’s constitution ? (A) France (B) Britain (C) U.S.A. (D) Russia Ans : (C) 13. The maximum strength of Lok Sabha has been fixed at— (A) 540 (B) 545 (C) 552 (D) 555 Ans : (C) 14. The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on— (A) August 15, 1947 (B) June 30, 1948 (C) November 26, 1949 (D) January 26, 1950 Ans : (C) 15. In India the Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee is appointed by— (A) President of India (B) Prime Minister of India (C) Speaker of the Lok Sabha (D) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha Ans : (C) 16. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding the introduction of money bill ? (A) Money bill is introduced in Rajya Sabha (B) It can be introduced in either of the Houses of Parliament (C) It cannot be introduced in the Lok Sabha (D) It is introduced in the Lok Sabha Ans : (D) 17. Who is the Chairman of the Planning Commission ? (A) President (B) Prime Minister (C) Finance Minister (D) Governor of Reserve Bank Ans : (B) 18. The minimum age required for election to Rajya Sabha is— (A) 25 years (B) 30 years (C) 32 years (D) 35 years Ans : (B) 19. Which one of the following taxes is levied and collected by the Union but distributed between Union and States ? (A) Corporation tax (B) Tax on income other than on agricultural income (C) Tax on railway fares and freights (D) Customs Ans : (B) 20. Sikkim became a new state by– (A) 30th Amendment (B) 34th Amendment (C) 35th Amendment (D) 36th Amendment Ans : (C) 21. On which Indian river is the highest bridge of the world being constructed ? (A) Chenab (B) Satluj (C) Jhelum (D) Beas Ans : (A) 22. Match List-I (category) with List-II (54th National Film Award winners) and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists— List-I (a) Best Feature Film (b) Best Popular Film (c) Best Children Film (d) Best Hindi Film List-II 1. Care of Footpath 2. Khosla ka Ghosla 3. Pullijaman 4. Lage Raho Munnabhai Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 1 3 2 4 (B) 3 4 1 2 (C) 3 2 4 1 (D) 4 2 1 3 Ans : (B) 23. In which district of Uttar Pradesh has the first Police Museum of the country been established ? (A) Allahabad (B) Agra (C) Ghaziabad (D) Lucknow Ans : (C) 24. The Commercial Banks were Nationalised in— (A) 1947 (B) 1951 (C) 1969 (D) 1992 Ans : (C) 25. Asia’s first human DNA Bank has been set up in— (A) New Delhi (B) Hyderabad (C) Lucknow (D) Mumbai Ans : (C) 26. The distribution of finances between centre and states is done on the recommendation of— (A) Finance Ministry (B) Finance Commission (C) Reserve Bank of India (D) NABARD Ans : (B) 27. In which one of the following districts of Uttar Pradesh has the Indian Carpet Technology Institute been established ? (A) Agra (B) Mirzapur (C) Moradabad (D) Sant Ravi Das Nagar Ans : (D) 28. Which of the following Banks is first in establishing its branch in China ? (A) Bank of Baroda (B) Punjab National Bank (C) State Bank of India (D) UCO Bank Ans : (C) 29. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan covers— (A) all children in the age group 3–10 (B) all children in the age group 4–8 (C) all children in the age group 5–15 (D) all children in the age group 6–14 Ans : (D) 30. Swavalamban Scheme is concerned with providing— (A) employment to rural women folk (B) employment to urban women folk (C) employment to disabled persons (D) providing training and skills to women Ans : (D) 31. Mixed economy means— (A) existence of both small and big industries (B) existence of both private and public sectors (C) existence of both primary and secondary sector (D) none of the above Ans : (B) 32. How many IITs will be set up in the 11th Five Year Plan ? (A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 9 Ans : (C) 33. Among the following which country has the highest life expectancy at birth (in years) ? (A) Japan (B) Denmark (C) U.S.A. (D) Switzerland Ans : (A) 34. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists— List-I (Place) (a) Vishakhapatnam (b) Muri (c) Gurgaon (d) Panki List-II (Industry) 1. Automobile 2. Ship-building 3. Fertiliser 4. Aluminium Codes : —(a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 2 3 4 1 (B) 2 4 1 3 (C) 1 2 3 4 (D) 2 4 3 1 Ans : (B) 35. Which among the following is a public sector Commercial Bank ? (A) ICICI Bank (B) HDFC Bank (C) Indian Overseas Bank (D) UTI Bank Ans : (C) 36. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists— List-I (Mineral Production) (a) Mineral Oil (b) Gypsum (c) Gold (d) Bauxite List-II (State) 1. Orissa 2. Karnataka 3. Gujarat 4. Rajasthan Codes : —(a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 2 1 4 3 (C) 4 3 1 2 (D) 3 4 2 1 Ans : (D) 37. Consider the following statements— Assertion (A) : Atomic energy in India promises to meet the future energy demand of the country. Reason (R) : Atomic minerals are ubiquitous in India. Select the correct answer from the code given below : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true Ans : (C) 38. Which of the following states has the longest coast line ? (A) Gujarat (B) Maharashtra (C) Kerala (D) Tamil Nadu Ans : (A) 39. Which of the following rock systems in India is the main source of coal deposits ? (A) Dharwar system (B) Gondwana system (C) Cudappa system (D) Vindhyan system Ans : (B) 40. Laterite soil is found in— (A) Uttar Pradesh (B) Himachal Pradesh (C) Punjab (D) Maharashtra Ans : (D) 41. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ? (A) Kirghiz — Central Asia (B) Masai — West Africa (C) Red Indians — North America (D) Eskimos — Greenland Ans : (B) 42. Chilka lake is situated in— (A) West Bengal (B) Andhra Pradesh (C) Orissa (D) Tamil Nadu Ans : (C) 43. Damodar is a tributary of river— (A) Ganga (B) Hugli (C) Padma (D) Suvarn Rekha Ans : (B) 44. Sangam Yojana is concerned with— (A) provision for clean drinking water (B) provision for cleaning rivers (C) promoting communal harmony (D) helping the invalids Ans : (D) 45. National Dairy Development Board is located in— (A) Anand (B) Gandhinagar (C) Vadodara (D) Valsad Ans : (A) 46. Economic Planning is included in the Constitution of India in— (A) Union List (B) State List (C) Concurrent List (D) Special List Ans : (C) 47. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ? (A) Kimberley — Diamond (B) Havana — Meat packing (C) Milan — Silk (D) Sheffield — Cutlery Ans : (C) 48. Dudhawa National Park is situated in the district of— (A) Lalitpur (B) Pilibhit (C) Lakhimpur Khiri (D) Sonbhadra Ans : (C) 49. The correct descending order of major states of India in terms of density of population (2001) is— (A) Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Bihar, Kerala (B) West Bengal, Kerala, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh (C) Uttar Pradesh, Kerala, West Bengal, Bihar (D) West Bengal, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Kerala Ans : (B) 1. AGMARK Act came into force in India in— (A) 1937 (B) 1952 (C) 1957 (D) 1965 Ans : (A) 2. Clonal selection can be used in— (A) Groundnut (B) Mustard (C) Wheat (D) Potato Ans : (D) 3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists— List-I(a) F.A.O. Headquarters (b) Central Agmark Lab (c) Central Rice Research Institute (d) Central Potato Research Institute List-II 1. Shimla 2. Cuttack 3. Rome 4. Nagpur Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 3 4 2 1 (C) 4 3 1 2 (D) 3 4 1 2 Ans : (B) 4. In which of the following crops, Uttar Pradesh is the leading producer in the country ? 1. Potato 2. Rice 3. Sugarcane 4. Tobacco Select the correct answer from the codes given below— Codes : (A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3 (C) 3 and 4 (D) 1 and 3 Ans : (D) 5. Bhatkhande Sangeet Sansthan, Lucknow became a Deemed University in— (A) 1998 (B) 2001 (C) 2003 (D) 2004 Ans : (B) 6. Dry Ice is— (A) Liquid Nitrogen (B) Water Ice (C) Solid Carbon dioxide (D) Frozen Ethanol Ans : (C) 7. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? (A) Amir Khusrau —Etah (B) Mirza Ghalib —Agra (C) Josh —Malihabad (D) Ram Prasad Bismil —Allahabad Ans : (D) 8. The Growth Centre Project was introduced in Uttar Pradesh in— (A) October 2001 (B) September 2005 (C) December 2005 (D) February 2006 Ans : (C) 9. Rani Laxmi Bai Dam is located on the— (A) Betwa (B) Ken (C) Rihand (D) Tons Ans : (A) 10. Kartik is a folk dance of— (A) Bundelkhand (B) Avadh (C) Purvanchal (D) Rohilkhand Ans : (A) 11. Which trade zone of Uttar Pradesh tops in the collection of trade tax ? (A) Ghaziabad (B) Kanpur (C) Lucknow (D) Noida Ans : (A) 12. Assertion (A) :Uttar Pradesh shares 9•4% of country’s Gross DomesticProduct (GDP). Reason (R) :Uttar Pradesh shares 66% of the total exports of the country.Select the correct answer from the codes given below— Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true Ans : (C) 13. Which one of the following deals with the marketing of milk ? (A) CACP (B) GCMMF (C) NAFED (D) TRIFED Ans : (B) 14. In Uttar Pradesh, the famous place of pilgrimage of both Jain and Baudh is at— (A) Devipatan (B) Kaushambi (C) Kushinagar (D) Sarnath Ans : (B) 15. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists— List-I (Industrial Establishments) (a) Indian Telephone Industries (b) Transformer Factory (c) Artificial Limbs Manufacturing Corporation (d) Fertilizer Factory List-II (City)1. Kanpur 2. Rae Bareli 3. Jhansi 4. Phoolpur Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 2 3 4 1 (B) 4 3 1 2 (C) 2 3 1 4 (D) 4 2 1 3 Ans : (C) 16. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists— List–I (Fair) (a) Govind Saheb (b) Kailash Mela (c) Syed Salar (d) Shakumbhari Devi List-II (District) 1. Bahraich 2. Saharanpur 3. Azamgarh 4. Agra Codes a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 2 3 1 4 (B) 3 4 1 2 (C) 3 1 4 2 (D) 1 4 2 3 Ans : (B) 17. Arrange the following districts of Uttar Pradesh in descending order of population (2001) and select the correct answer from the codes given below— 1. Allahabad 2. Gorakhpur 3. Lucknow 4. Mathura Codes : (A) 1, 3, 2, 4 (B) 3, 1, 4, 2 (C) 1, 2, 3, 4 (D) 4, 1, 2, 3 Ans : (C) 18. Who among the following did not contribute to the cultural activities of Lucknow ? (A) Binda Deen (B) Ustad Dulhe Khan (C) Menhdi (D) Ilias Khan Ans : (C) 19. Under the international agreement on agriculture the Green Box includes economic assistance for— 1. Agricultural Research 2. Fertilizer 3. Irrigation 4. Plant Protection Select the correct answer from the codes given below— Codes A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3 (C) 3 and 4 (D) 1 and 4 Ans : (D) 20. Assertion (A) : Aluminum is the green metal. Reason (R) : It provides replacement of wood for saving forest. Select the correct answer from the codes given below— Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (C) (A) is false, but (R) is true (D) (A) is true, but (R) is false Ans : (D) 21. A ‘Letter of Credit’ is produced by— (A) An exporter (B) An importer (C) Both by exporter and importer (D) Shipping company Ans : (C) 22. The theory of trusteeship of the business assets was pronounced by— (A) Henry Fayol (B) Mahatma Gandhi (C) Jawahar Lal Nehru (D) Karl Marx Ans : (B) 23. Treasury bills are sold in India by— (A) Reserve Bank of India (B) State Governments (C) Commercial Banks (D) SEBI Ans : (A) 24. In U.P. Value Added Tax (VAT) was levied with effect from— (A) 1st April, 2007 (B) 1st January, 2008 (C) 1st January, 2009 (D) 1st April, 2008 Ans : (B) 25. Which of the following organizations is involved in providing the insurance against various risks to the exporters ? (A) Reserve Bank of India (B) State Trading Corporation of India (C) EXIM Bank (D) Export Credit and Guarantee Corporation Ans : (D) 26. ‘Principle of Indemnity’ does not apply to— (A) Life Insurance (B) Marine Insurance (C) Fire Insurance (D) All the above Ans : (A) 27. “Everything else can wait, but not agriculture.” The above statement is attributed to— (A) Jagjivan Ram (B) Jawahar Lal Nehru (C) Mahatma Gandhi (D) Sardar Patel Ans : (B) 28. Consider the following statements— 1. The third rail coach factory is being established at Amethi in U.P. 2. Firozabad in U.P. is famous for pottery industry. 3. U.P. DESCO is a Corporation under the Electronics Department. 4. The first polyester fibre factory in U.P. has been set up at Barabanki. Of these statements— (A) Only 1 and 2 are correct (B) Only 2 and 3 are correct (C) Only 3 and 4 are correct (D) None of the above is correct Ans : (D) 29. Uttar Pradesh recorded the highest industrial growth rate during— (A) 5th Five Year Plan (B) 6th Five Year Plan (C) 10th Five Year Plan (D) 11th Five Year Plan Ans : (B) 30. ‘Inside trading’ is related to— (A) Public Expenditure (B) Taxation (C) Share Market (D) Hawala Ans : (C) 31. In Uttar Pradesh, the festival ‘Sulah Kul’ a symbol of Hindu-Muslim unity is organised in— (A) Meerut (B) Aligarh (C) Lucknow (D) Agra Ans : (D) 32. The Operation Green Project was launched in U.P. in— (A) 1952 (B) 1995 (C) 2001 (D) 2005 Ans : (C) 33. The North-South and East-West corridors meet at— (A) Jhansi (B) Kanpur (C) Lucknow (D) Varanasi Ans : (A) 34. Which one of the following is not correctly matched in the context of U.P. ? (A) Food Research and Analysis Centre —Lucknow (B) Food Park —Noida (C) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel Agricultural University —Meerut (D) Indian Pulses Research Institute —Agra Ans : (D) 35. The famous painting Satyam Shivam Sundaram was prepared by— (A) Sd. Shobha Singh (B) Nandkishore Sharma (C) Shivnandan Nautiyal (D) Vishwanath Mehta Ans : (A) 36. The Centre for CAD—‘Computer Aided Designing’ Project in Uttar Pradesh is located at— (A) Agra (B) Allahabad (C) Kanpur (D) Lucknow Ans : (D) 37. Consider the following statements— 1. India’s first EPZ was set up in 1965. 2. Special Economic Zone (SEZ) policy in India was formulated in 2000. 3. Vadodara is famous for Patola Silk. 4. Panna in Madhya Pradesh is famous gold mines. Of these statements— (A) Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct (B) Only 2, 3 and 4 are correct (C) Only 3 and 4 are correct (D) All are correct Ans : (A) 38. The urban population of the world out-excelled its rural population in— (A) 2001 (B) 2004 (C) 2009 (D) 2010 Ans : (D) 39. Navdatoli is situated in the State of— (A) Gujarat (B) Maharashtra (C) Chhattisgarh (D) Madhya Pradesh Ans : (D) 40. Which of the following classical works of literature were written during the Gupta Era ? 1. Amarkosh 2. Kamsutra 3. Meghduta 4. Mudrarakshas Select the correct answer from the codes given below— Codes : (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1, 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans : (D) 41. In ancient India the irrigation tax was called— (A) Bidakabhagam (B) Hiranya (C) Udranga (D) Uparnika Ans : (C) 42. The famous rock-out temples of Elephanta are ascribed to the— (A) Chalukyas (B) Cholas (C) Pallavas (D) Rashtrakutas Ans : (D) 43. Who represented the Indian National Congress in the Partition Council headed by Lord Mountbatten ? 1. Abul Kalam Azad 2. Jawahar Lal Nehru 3. Sardar Patel 4. Rajendra Prasad Select the correct answer from the codes given below— Codes A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3 (C) 3 and 4 (D) 1 and 4 Ans : (B) 44. Which Sultan of Delhi is said to have followed the policy of ‘blood and iron’ ? (A) Iltutmish (B) Balban (C) Jalaluddin Firoz Khalji (D) Firoz Shah Tughlaq Ans : (B) 45. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below— List-I (a) Tarikh-i-Hind (b) Tarikh-i-Dilli (c) Rehla (d) Tabqat-i-Nasiri List-II 1. Ibn Batuta 2. Minhaj 3. Alberuni 4. Khusrau Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 1 3 2 4 (B) 2 1 4 3 (C) 3 4 1 2 (D) 4 2 3 1 Ans : (C) 46. Which medieval ruler introduced the system of ‘patta’ and ‘qabuliyat’ to help the peasants ? (A) Alauddin Khalji (B) Giyasuddin Tughlaq (C) Firoz Shah Tughlaq (D) Sher Shah Ans : (D) 47. Saint Ramdas is associated with the period of rule of— (A) Akbar (B) Jehangir (C) Shahjahan (D) Aurangzeb Ans : (A) 48. Which is the correct chronological order of the following ? I. Cripps Mission II. Gandhi-Irwin Pact III. Simon Commission IV. Partition of the country (A) I, II, III, IV (B) II, I, IV, III (C) II, I, III, IV (D) III, II, I, IV Ans : (D) 49. Ash mound is associated with the Neolithic site at— (A) Budihal (B) Sangan Kallu (C) Koldihwa (D) Brahmgiri Ans : (A) 50. Who had the longest tenure as the Viceroy of India ? (A) Lord Curzon (B) Lord Dufferin (C) Lord Hardinge (D) Lord Mayo Ans : (A) |
31st July 2014 12:25 PM | |
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