NET exam eligibility

Guys, can you tell me the eligibility criteria to apply for the National Eligibility Test????

[Raman Vij]

The National Eligibility Test is conducted by the UGC to determine eligibility for college & university level lectureship and for award of Junior Research Fellowship for Indian nationals. Here are the details of this exam:

NET Eligibility:
The applicant should have secured minimum 55% marks in Master’s Degree from universities/institutions recognized by UGC.

Examination Fee
General Candidates Rs.450/-
Other Backward Classes Rs.225/-
SC/ST/PWD candidates Rs.110/-

Important dates:
Last date for Applying Online & generation of filled Bank Challan for Fee. : Monday; May 05, 2014
Last date of submission of Fee through online generated Bank Challan, at any branch of State Bank of India (SBI). : Wednesday; May 07, 2014
Last date of taking printout of Application Form, Attendance Slip and Admit Card from UGC website : Saturday; May 10, 2014
Last date for receiving the printout of online Application Form (one copy) and Attendance Slip (one copy) at the respective Coordinating University opted by the candidate (with fee receipt & category certificate(s) ) : Thursday; May 15, 2014

Subjects of NET
Economics
Political Science
Philosophy
Psychology
Tamil
Telugu
Urdu
Arabic
English
Linguistics
Music
Management
Maithili
Sociology
History
Anthropology
Commerce
Education
Social Work
Defence and Strategic Studies
Home Science
Public Administration
Population Studies
Odia
Punjabi
Sanskrit
Bengali
French
Spanish
Russian
Persian
Rajasthani
German
Japanese
Hindi
Kannada
Malayalam
Chinese
Dogri
Nepali
Manipuri
Assamese
Gujarati
Marathi
Adult Education/ Continuing Education/ Andragogy/ Non Formal Education
Physical Education
Arab Culture and Islamic Studies
Indian Culture
Labour Welfare/Personnel Management/Industrial Relations/ Labour and Social Welfare/Human Resource Management
Law
Library and Information Science
Buddhist, Jaina, Gandhian and Peace Studies
Comparative Study of Religions
Mass Communication and Journalism
Performing Arts – Dance/Drama/Theatre
Museology & Conservation
Archaeology
Criminology
Tribal and Regional Language/Literature
Folk Literature
Comparative Literature
Sanskrit Traditional Subjects (including Jyotisha/Sidhanta Jyotisha/ Navya Vyakarna/ Vyakarna/ Mimamsa/ Navya Nyaya/ Sankhya Yoga/ Tulanatmaka Darsana/ Shukla Yajurveda/ Madhva Vedanta/ Dharma Sastra/ Sahitya/ Purana-itihasa/Agama/Advaita Vedanta)
Women Studies
Visual Arts (including Drawing & Painting/Sculpture/ Graphics/Applied Art/History of Art)
Geography
Social Medicine & Community Health
Forensic Science
Pali
Kashmiri
Konkani
Computer Science and Applications
Electronic Science
Environmental Sciences
International and Area Studies
Prakrit
Human Rights and Duties
Tourism Administration and Management
Bodo
Santali

Hey, I want to appear in NET exam will you tell me what be the eligibility criteria for the exam, as I want to know that what be the age limit for the exam ?

[Arun Vats]

As you want I am here telling you about the eligibility criteria for the NET exam.

Eligibility criteria:

Qualification:

Candidates who have secured at least 55% marks (without rounding off) in Master’s Degree OR equivalent examination from universities/institutions recognized by UGC


Candidates who have appeared OR will be appearing at the qualifying Master’s degree (final year) examination and whose result is still awaited OR candidates whose qualifying examinations have been delayed may also apply for this Test.


AGE LIMIT :

For Junior Research Fellowship:
Not more than 28 years

For Assistant Professor:
There is no upper age limit

Sample paper :

1. Which one of the following Councils
has been disbanded in 2013 ?
(A) Distance Education Council
(DEC)
(B) National Council for Teacher
Education (NCTE)
(C) National Council of Educational
Research and Training
(NCERT)
(D) National Assessment and
Accreditation Council (NAAC) 2. Which of the following statements are
correct about the National Assessment
and Accreditation Council ?
1. It is an autonomous institution.
2. It is tasked with the
responsibility of assessing and
accrediting institutions of higher
education.
3. It is located in Delhi.
4. It has regional offices.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 3 (B) 1 and 2
(C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) 2, 3 and 4 3. The power of the Supreme Court of
India to decide disputes between two
or more States falls under its
(A) Advisory Jurisdiction
(B) Appellate Jurisdiction
(C) Original Jurisdiction
(D) Writ Jurisdiction 4. Which of the following statements are
correct ?
1. There are seven Union
Territories in India.
2. Two Union Territories have
Legislative Assemblies
3. One Union Territory has a High
Court.
4. One Union Territory is the
capital of two States.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below :
(A) 1 and 3 only (B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

5. Which of the following statements are
correct about the Central Information
Commission ?
1. The Central Information
Commission is a statutory body.
2. The Chief Information
Commissioner and other
Information Commissioners are
appointed by the President of
India.
3. The Commission can impose
a penalty upto a maximum of
` 25,000/-
4. It can punish an errant officer.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4
6. Who among the following conducted
the CNN-IBN – The Hindu 2013
Election Tracker Survey across 267
constituencies in 18 States ?
(A) The Centre for the Study of
Developing Societies (CSDS)
(B) The Association for Democratic
Reforms (ADR)
(C) CNN and IBN
(D) CNN, IBN and The Hindu
7. In certain code TEACHER is written
as VGCEJGT. The code of
CHILDREN will be
(A) EKNJFTGP (B) EJKNFTGP
(C) KNJFGTP (D) None of these
8. A person has to buy both apples and
mangoes. The cost of one apple is
` 7/- whereas that of a mango is ` 5/-.
If the person has ` 38, the number of
apples he can buy is
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4

9. A man pointing to a lady said, “The
son of her only brother is the brother
of my wife”. The lady is related to the
man as
(A) Mother’s sister
(B) Grand mother
(C) Mother-in-law
(D) Sister of Father-in-law
10. In this series
6, 4, 1, 2, 2, 8, 7, 4, 2, 1, 5, 3, 8, 6, 2,
2, 7, 1, 4, 1, 3, 5, 8, 6, how many pairs
of successive numbers have a
difference of 2 each ?
(A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 6 (D) 8
11. The mean marks obtained by a class
of 40 students is 65. The mean marks
of half of the students is found to be
45. The mean marks of the remaining
students is
(A) 85 (B) 60
(C) 70 (D) 65
12. Anil is twice as old as Sunita. Three
years ago, he was three times as old as
Sunita. The present age of Anil is
(A) 6 years
(B) 8 years
(C) 12 years
(D) 16 years
13. Which of the following is a social
network ?
(A) amazon.com
(B) eBay
(C) gmail.com
(D) Twitter
14. The population information is called
parameter while the corresponding
sample information is known as
(A) Universe
(B) Inference
(C) Sampling design
(D) Statistics

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 15 to 20 :
Heritage conservation practices improved worldwide after the International Centre for the Study
of the Preservation and Restoration of Cultural Property (ICCROM) was established with
UNESCO’s assistance in 1959. The inter-governmental organisation with 126 member states has
done a commendable job by training more than 4,000 professionals, providing practice standards,
and sharing technical expertise. In this golden jubilee year, as we acknowledge its key role in
global conservation, an assessment of international practices would be meaningful to the Indian
conservation movement. Consistent investment, rigorous attention, and dedicated research and
dissemination are some of the positive lessons to imbibe. Countries such as Italy have
demonstrated that prioritising heritage with significant budget provision pays. On the other hand,
India, which is no less endowed in terms of cultural capital, has a long way to go. Surveys
indicate that in addition to the 6,600 protected monuments, there are over 60,000 equally valuable
heritage structures that await attention. Besides the small group in the service of Archaeological
Survey of India, there are only about 150 trained conservation professionals. In order to
overcome this severe shortage the emphasis has been on setting up dedicated labs and training
institutions. It would make much better sense for conservation to be made part of mainstream
research and engineering institutes, as has been done in Europe.
Increasing funding and building institutions are the relatively easy part. The real challenge is to
redefine international approaches to address local contexts. Conservation cannot limit itself to
enhancing the art-historical value of the heritage structures, which international charters perhaps
overemphasise. The effort has to be broad-based : It must also serve as a means to improving the
quality of life in the area where the heritage structures are located. The first task therefore is to
integrate conservation efforts with sound development plans that take care of people living in the
heritage vicinity. Unlike in western countries, many traditional building crafts survive in India, and
conservation practices offer an avenue to support them. This has been acknowledged by the Indian
National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage charter for conservation but is yet to receive substantial
state support. More strength for heritage conservation can be mobilised by aligning it with the green
building movement. Heritage structures are essentially eco-friendly and conservation could become a
vital part of the sustainable building practices campaign in future.
15. The outlook for conservation heritage changed
(A) after the establishment of the International Centre for the Study of the Preservation
and Restoration of Cultural Property.
(B) after training the specialists in the field.
(C) after extending UNESCO’s assistance to the educational institutions.
(D) after ASI’s measures to protect the monuments.
16. The inter-government organization was appreciated because of
(A) increasing number of members to 126.
(B) imparting training to professionals and sharing technical expertise.
(C) consistent investment in conservation.
(D) its proactive role in renovation and restoration.
17. Indian conservation movement will be successful if there would be
(A) Financial support from the Government of India.
(B) Non-governmental organisations role and participation in the conservation movement.
(C) consistent investment, rigorous attention, and dedicated research and dissemination of
awareness for conservation.
(D) Archaeological Survey of India’s meaningful assistance.
18. As per the surveys of historical monuments in India, there is very small number of
protected monuments. As per given the total number of monuments and enlisted number of
protected monuments, percentage comes to
(A) 10 percent (B) 11 percent (C) 12 percent (D) 13 percent
19. What should India learn from Europe to conserve our cultural heritage ?
(i) There should be significant budget provision to conserve our cultural heritage.
(ii) Establish dedicated labs and training institutions.
(iii) Force the government to provide sufficient funds.
(iv) Conservation should be made part of mainstream research and engineering institutes.
Choose correct answer from the codes given below :
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (B) (i), (ii), (iv) (C) (i), (ii) (D) (i), (iii), (iv)
20. INTACH is known for its contribution for conservation of our cultural heritage. The full
form of INTACH is
(A) International Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage.
(B) Intra-national Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage
(C) Integrated Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage
(D) Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage

21. While delivering lecture if there is
some disturbance in the class, a
teacher should
(A) keep quiet for a while and then
continue.
(B) punish those causing
disturbance.
(C) motivate to teach those causing
disturbance.
(D) not bother of what is happening
in the class.
22. Effective teaching is a function of
(A) Teacher’s satisfaction.
(B) Teacher’s honesty and
commitment.
(C) Teacher’s making students learn
and understand.
(D) Teacher’s liking for professional
excellence.
23. The most appropriate meaning of
learning is
(A) Acquisition of skills
(B) Modification of behaviour
(C) Personal adjustment
(D) Inculcation of knowledge
24. Arrange the following teaching
process in order :
(i) Relate the present knowledge
with previous one
(ii) Evaluation
(iii) Reteaching
(iv) Formulating instructional objectives
(v) Presentation of instructional
materials
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)
(B) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv), (v)
(C) (v), (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)
(D) (iv), (i), (v), (ii), (iii)

25. CIET stands for
(A) Centre for Integrated Education
and Technology
(B) Central Institute for Engineering
and Technology
(C) Central Institute for Education
Technology
(D) Centre for Integrated Evaluation
Techniques.
26. Teacher’s role at higher education
level is to
(A) provide information to students.
(B) promote self learning in students.
(C) encourage healthy competition
among students.
(D) help students to solve their
problems.
27. The Verstehen School of
Understanding was popularised by
(A) German Social Scientists
(B) American Philosophers
(C) British Academicians
(D) Italian Political Analysts
28. The sequential operations in scientific
research are
(A) Co-variation, Elimination of
Spurious Relations, Generalisation,
Theorisation
(B) Generalisation, Co-variation,
Theorisation, Elimination of
Spurious Relations
(C) Theorisation, Generalisation,
Elimination of Spurious
Relations, Co-variation
(D) Elimination of Spurious Relations,
Theorisation, Generalisation,
Co-variation.
29. In sampling, the lottery method is
used for
(A) Interpretation
(B) Theorisation
(C) Conceptualisation
(D) Randomisation

30. Which is the main objective of research ?
(A) To review the literature
(B) To summarize what is already
known
(C) To get an academic degree
(D) To discover new facts or to
make fresh interpretation of
known facts
31. Sampling error decreases with the
(A) decrease in sample size
(B) increase in sample size
(C) process of randomization
(D) process of analysis
32. The principles of fundamental
research are used in
(A) action research
(B) applied research
(C) philosophical research
(D) historical research
33. Users who use media for their own
ends are identified as
(A) Passive audience
(B) Active audience
(C) Positive audience
(D) Negative audience
34. Classroom communication can be
described as
(A) Exploration
(B) Institutionalisation
(C) Unsignified narration
(D) Discourse
35. Ideological codes shape our collective
(A) Productions
(B) Perceptions
(C) Consumptions
(D) Creations

36. In communication, myths have power,
but are
(A) uncultural.
(B) insignificant.
(C) imprecise.
(D) unpreferred.
37. The first multi-lingual news agency of
India was
(A) Samachar
(B) API
(C) Hindustan Samachar
(D) Samachar Bharati
38. Organisational communication can
also be equated with
(A) intra-personal communication.
(B) inter-personal communication.
(C) group communication.
(D) mass communication.
39. If two propositions having the same
subject and predicate terms are such
that one is the denial of the other, the
relationship between them is called
(A) Contradictory
(B) Contrary
(C) Sub-contrary
(D) Sub-alternation
40. Ananya and Krishna can speak and
follow English. Bulbul can write and
speak Hindi as Archana does.
Archana talks with Ananya also in
Bengali. Krishna can not follow
Bengali. Bulbul talks with Ananya in
Hindi. Who can speak and follow
English, Hindi and Bengali ?
(A) Archana
(B) Bulbul
(C) Ananya
(D) Krishna

41. A stipulative definition may be said to
be
(A) Always true
(B) Always false
(C) Sometimes true, sometimes
false
(D) Neither true nor false
42. When the conclusion of an argument
follows from its premise/premises
conclusively, the argument is called
(A) Circular argument
(B) Inductive argument
(C) Deductive argument
(D) Analogical argument
43. Saturn and Mars are planets like the
earth. They borrow light from the Sun
and moves around the Sun as the
Earth does. So those planets are
inhabited by various orders of
creatures as the earth is.
What type of argument is contained in
the above passage ?
(A) Deductive (B) Astrological
(C) Analogical (D) Mathematical
44. Given below are two premises. Four
conclusions are drawn from those two
premises in four codes. Select the code
that states the conclusion validly drawn.
Premises :
(i) All saints are religious. (major)
(ii) Some honest persons are saints.
(minor)
Codes :
(A) All saints are honest.
(B) Some saints are honest.
(C) Some honest persons are
religious.
(D) All religious persons are honest.

Following table provides details about the
Foreign Tourist Arrivals (FTAs) in India
from different regions of the world in
different years. Study the table carefully
and answer questions from 45 to 48 based
on this table.
Number of Foreign Tourist
Arrivals Region
2007 2008 2009
Western
Europe
1686083 1799525 1610086
North
America
1007276 1027297 1024469
South Asia 982428 1051846 982633
South East
Asia
303475 332925 348495
East Asia 352037 355230 318292
West Asia 171661 215542 201110
Total FTAs
in India
5081504 5282603 5108579
45. Find out the region that contributed
around 20 percent of the total foreign
tourist arrivals in India in 2009.
(A) Western Europe
(B) North America
(C) South Asia
(D) South East Asia
46. Which of the following regions has
recorded the highest negative growth
rate of foreign tourist arrivals in India
in 2009 ?
(A) Western Europe
(B) North America
(C) South Asia
(D) West Asia
47. Find out the region that has been
showing declining trend in terms of
share of foreign tourist arrivals in
India in 2008 and 2009.
(A) Western Europe
(B) South East Asia
(C) East Asia
(D) West Asia

48. Identify the region that has shown
hyper growth rate of foreign tourist
arrivals than the growth rate of the
total FTAs in India in 2008.
(A) Western Europe
(B) North America
(C) South Asia
(D) East Asia

49. The post-industrial society is
designated as
(A) Information society
(B) Technology society
(C) Mediated society
(D) Non-agricultural society
50. The initial efforts for internet based
communication was for
(A) Commercial communication
(B) Military purposes
(C) Personal interaction
(D) Political campaigns
51. Internal communication within
institutions is done through
(A) LAN
(B) WAN
(C) EBB
(D) MMS
52. Virtual reality provides
(A) Sharp pictures
(B) Individual audio
(C) Participatory experience
(D) Preview of new films
53. The first virtual university of India
came up in
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Tamil Nadu
54. Arrange the following books in
chronological order in which they
appeared. Use the code given below :
(i) Limits to Growth
(ii) Silent Spring
(iii) Our Common Future
(iv) Resourceful Earth
Codes :
(A) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
(B) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
(C) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

55. Which one of the following continents
is at a greater risk of desertification ?
(A) Africa
(B) Asia
(C) South America
(D) North America
56. “Women are closer to nature than
men.” What kind of perspective is this ?
(A) Realist (B) Essentialist
(C) Feminist (D) Deep ecology
57. Which one of the following is not a
matter a global concern in the removal
of tropical forests ?
(A) Their ability to absorb the
chemicals that contribute to
depletion of ozone layer.
(B) Their role in maintaining the
oxygen and carbon balance of
the earth.
(C) Their ability to regulate surface
and air temperatures, moisture
content and reflectivity.
(D) Their contribution to the
biological diversity of the planet.
58. The most comprehensive approach to
address the problems of manenvironment
interaction is one of the
following :
(A) Natural Resource Conservation
Approach
(B) Urban-industrial Growth
Oriented Approach
(C) Rural-agricultural Growth
Oriented Approach
(D) Watershed Development Approach
59. The major source of the pollutant gas,
carbon mono-oxide (CO), in urban
areas is
(A) Thermal power sector
(B) Transport sector
(C) Industrial sector
(D) Domestic sector
60. In a fuel cell driven vehicle, the
energy is obtained from the
combustion of
(A) Methane (B) Hydrogen
(C) LPG (D) CNG