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17th August 2014, 11:44 AM
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Join Date: Apr 2013
Re: National Institute of Fashion Technology entrance exam preparation tips

As you want to get the National Institute of Fashion Technology entrance exam preparation tips so here it is for you:

Firstly you must know complete syllabus and exam pattern for NIFT Entrance Exam

Now you have to give more concentration on high weight age topics and make notes for important topics

For better preparation you have to solve previous year question paper of it or buy books for it

you can also join coaching classes for preparation of it..

National Institute of Fashion Technology will conduct entrance examination which will comprise of the following:

Creative Ability Test(CAT)
General Ability Test (GAT)
Situation Test (Not applicable for Bachelor of Fashion Technology)

Here for your reference I am giving you last year question papers of National Institute of Fashion Technology entrance exam:

Some content of the file has been given here:

Question papers of National Institute of Fashion Technology entrance exam


1. 12833 + 133% of 1655 - of 3533=?
(a) 10000 (b) 10500 (c) 11000 (d) 9500
2. 9999 + 8888 + 777 + ? = 19700
(a) 36 (b) 16 (c) 64 (d) 26
3. 60 ? 6 x 111 = 666666

(a) 0

(b) 2

(c) 1

(d) 6

4. Find the least number of 3 digits, which is exactly divisible by 14.

(a) 112

(b) 100

(c) 114

(d) None of these

5. What fraction is 6 bananas in 5 dozens?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

6. A person went to the market and purchased a pen for Rs. 15. If he is still left with th of his total money, find the total amount of money he had initially.

(a) Rs. 40

(b) Rs. 37.50

(c) Rs. 55

(d) None of these

7. Find the distance covered by a man walking for 12 min at a speed of 3.5 km/h.

(a) 0.7 km

(b) 7 km

(c) 1.7 km

(d) 7.7 km

8. Find the greatest number of 5 digits which is exactly divisible by 463.

(a) 99082

(b) 99545

(c) 99568

(d) 99999

9. What percentage is equivalent to ?

(a) 15%

(b) 85%

(c) 65%

(d) 60%

10 If Mohan’s salary is 10% more than that of Sohan, then how much per cent is Sohan’s salary less than that of Mohan?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

11. The radius of a circular wheel is How many revolutions it has to make in travelling 11 km?

(a) 1500

(b) 1200

(c) 1000

(d) 1600

12. What is the compound interest of Rs. 5000 for 4 yr if the rate of interest is 10% p.a. for the first 2 yr and 20% p.a. for the next 2 yr.

(a) Rs. 2320.50

(b) Rs. 3712

(c) Rs. 3745

(d) Rs. 5368

13. What is the number of numbers between 400 and 500, if both the numbers are counted?

(a) 101

(b) 100

(c) 99

(d) 102

14. How many bricks are required to build a wall of 15 m length, 12 m height and 20 cm thickness, if the brick is 36 cm long 25 cm wide and 10 cm thick?

(a) 2000

(b) 4000

(c) 12000
None of these
15. A sum of money placed at compound interest doubles itself in 4 yr. In how many years will it amount to eight times itself?

(a) 12 yr

(b) 10 yr

(c) 8 yr

(d) 9 yr

16. 465.85 + 764.86 – 211.99 = ?

(a) 1100

(b) 1080

(c) 1000

(d) 1020

17 149.9% of 149.9 + 149.9 = ?

(a) 375

(b) 400

(c) 350

(d) 425


18. 3001 x 749 1001 – 1399 = ?

(a) 650

(b) 700

(c) 950

(d) 850


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19. The average of five numbers is 56. If the average of first four numbers is 54. What is the value of the fifth number?

(a) 60

(b) 120

(c) 90

(d) 80

20. If a number is added to seven-ninth of thirty five per cent of 900, the value so obtained is 325. What is the number?

(a) 60

(b) 120

(c) 90

(d) 80

21. What least number should be subtracted from 1740, so that it will be completely divisible by 88?

(a) 156

(b) 68

(c) 58

(d) 146

Q. No. 22 -25 What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions?
22. 36 x 15 – 56 x 784 112 = ?

(a) 138

(b) 238

(c) 158

(d) 148

23. 28.314 – 31.427 + 113.928 = ? + 29114

(a) 81.711

(b) 80.701

(c) 71.711

(d) 81.701

24. of 1 of 75% of 540 = ?

(a) 378

(b) 756

(c) 252

(d) 332

25. 36% of 420 = 56% of 350 = ? - 94

(a) 48.2

(b) 49.2

(c) -138.8

(d) -158.8

26. It takes 6 technicians a total of 10 hours to build a new server from Direct Computer, with each working at the same rate. If six technicians start to build the server at 11 am and one technician per hour is added beginning at 5 pm, at what time will the server be complete?

(a) 6: 40 pm

(b) 7 pm

(c) 7 : 20 pm

(d) 8 pm

27. A child was asked to add first few natural numbers (that is 1 + 2 + 3 + .....) so long his patience permitted. As he stopped he gave the sum as 575. When the teacher declared the result wrong the child discovered he had missed one number in the sequence during addition. The number he missed was

(a) Less than 10

(b) 10

(c) 15

(d) More than 15

28. After the division of a number successively by 3, 4 and 7, the remainders obtained are 2, 1 and 4 respectively. What will be the remainder, if 84 divide the same number?

(a) 80

(b) 76

(c) 41

(d) 53

29. Find the least number which when divided by 36, 48 and 64 leaves the remainders 25, 37 and 53 respectively.

(a) 565

(b) 454

(c) 321

(d) 981

30. A man read 3/8 of a book on a day and 4/5 of the remainder, on the second day. If the number of pages still unread is 40, how many pages did the book contain?

(a) 300

(b) 315

(c) 320
None of these
SECTION 2 : ANALYTICAL ABILITY TEST
Q. No. 31 - 34 Choose the missing term from give alternatives.
31. GBC, HDF, IFI, ..........

(a) JKL

(b) JLH

(c) JHI

(d) JHL

32. a_ab_babab_b

(a) bbb

(b) baa

(c) aaa

(d) aab

33. The next number in the series2, -4, 8, -16, 32, ..... is

(a) -64

(b) 64

(c) 128

(d) -128

34. The next number in the series 3, 5, 8, 12, 17, 23, ...............................

(a) 25

(b) 30

(c) 32

(d) 39

35. If in a certain language ‘rom pom to’ means ‘girl is bad ‘maim to tee’ means ‘boy is ugly’ and ‘dum pom po’ means ‘they are bad’, which word in the language means ‘girls’?

(a) To

(b) Tee

(c) Pom

(d) rom

36. If in a certain code ‘nee tim see’, means ‘how are you’, ‘ble nee see’ means ‘where are you? What is the code for ‘where’?

(a) see

(b) tim

(c) nee

(d) ble

37. A watch reads 12 : 15. If the hour hand points towards North-East, in which direction does its minute hand points?

(a) South-East

(b) South

(c) East

(d) South-west


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38. Seema walks 40 m South. Then, she turns right and walks 60 m. Then, she right and walks 55 m. Then she again turns left and walks 35 m. Then, she again turns left and walks 15 m. In which direction and how far is she from the starting point?

(a) 105 m East

(b) 105 m West

(c) 75 m East

(d) 95 m West

39. Shiva walks 10 km towards North and then turns right. After walking 3 km he again turns right and walks 7 km. Now, he turns left and walks 1 km. How far is he from the starting point?

(a) 10 km

(b) 7 km

(c) 20 km

(d) 5 km

Q. No. 40 - 43 Study the following information carefully and then answer the questions given below it.
An export processing unit has a computerized machine, which generates six codes to distinguish product of each of seven batches product in a day. The machine is fed code for first batch of each day. Based on that, the machine generates 6 codes by rearrangements of words for subsequent batches.
Following is an illustration of generation of codes for some batches of a day. Day’s first batch – who nut cream page for table. Day’s second batch – who for cream page nut table. Day’s third batch – who for page cream nut table. Day’s fourth batch – table of page cream nut table Day’s fifth batch – page table for nut who cream Day’s sixth batch – page who for nut table cream and so on Day’s seventh batch – Next day based on the same rule, new set of words will be introduced as given above.
40. If the seventh batch of the day is ‘from door no leaf glass but’, which of the following would be the first three words of code of batch third of that day?

(a) Door leaf from

(b) Door leaf but

(c) Glass leaf from

(d) But door no

41. If the code of sixth batch of the day is ‘very say could man on fire’, which of the following batch code would read as ‘say could very fire man on’?

(a) Second

(b) Third

(c) Fourth

(d) Fifth

42. If the code of fourth batch is ‘so when clean get lemon dust” which of the following would be the code for the seventh batch?

(a) Get dust lemon when so clean

(b) Clean so when lemon dust get


(c) When get dust so clean lemon

(d) Clean dust lemon when so get

43. If the first batch code of a day is ‘five gave it close to mine’, which of the following will be the code for fourth batch?

(a) Five to it close gave min

(b) Mine to close it gave five


(c) Five to close it gave mine

(d) Close five to gave mine it

Q. No. 44 - 48 In these questions a statement is given following by two arguments numbered I and II Mark the answer as
(A) If only Argument I is strong
(B) If only Argument II is strong
(C) If both Arguments are strong
(D) If neither I nor II is strong
44. Statement : Has the Medical Science really lengthened the span of life?
Arguments I : Yes, the new drugs have been able to combat the diseases and increase the span of life.
Arguments II : No, the eternal truth that every person’s days are numbered cannot be denied.
45. Statement : Should mass media be fully controlled by the government?
Arguments I : yes, the contradictory news only confuses the people.
Arguments II : No, its credibility will be doubtful if it confuse people.
46. Statement : Should sales tax be abolished?
Arguments I : Yes, it will eliminate an important sources of corruption.
Arguments II : Yes, it will bring the prices of commodities down and hence consumers will be benefited.

47. Statement : Should there be women chief minister in states.
Arguments I : Yes, only then will the plight of women be removed and their conditions will improve
Arguments II : No, a women is not capable of ruling a state.

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48. Statement : Computer based technology is very fruitful for industrial development i India.
Arguments I : Yes, accuracy, fast production and fineness are possible through computer technology.
Arguments II : No, it will increase unemployment in the country.
Q. No. 49 - 53 Read the following information to answer these questions.
The director of an institute has announced that six guest lectures on different areas like Leadership, Decision Making, Quality Circle, Motivation, Assessment Centre and Group Discussion are to be organised, only one on each day from Monday to Sunday.
(1) Motivation should be organized immediately after Assessment Centre
(2) Quality Circle should be organised on Wednesday and should not be followed by Group Discussion
(3) Decision Making should be organised on Friday and there should be a gap of 2 days between Leadership and Group Discussion
(4) One day there will be no lectures (Saturday is not that day); just before that day Group discussion will be organised.

49. Which of the following pairs of lectures was orgainsed in the first and the last day?

(a) Quality Circle and Motivation

(b) Group Discussion and Quality Circle


(c) Group Discussion and Decision Making

(d) None of the above

50. How many lectures are organised between Motivation and Quality Circle?

(a) One

(b) Two

(c) Three
None of these
51. On which day, the following days, there was no lecture?

(a) Tuesday

(b) Wednesday

(c) Friday
None of these
52. On which of day, following days, there was no lecture?

(a) Sunday

(b) Monday

(c) Tuesday
None of these
53. On which day, the lecture on Group Discussion will be organised

(a) Monday

(b) Tuesday

(c) Thursday
None of these

SECTION 6 : ANALYTICAL ABILITY TEST
Instructions: Q No. 140
54. A toothpick is useful. Useful things are valuable. A toothpick is valuable. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(a) true (b) False
(c) Uncertain
55. Complete the analogy- “Marathon is to race as hibernation is to _________”
(a) Winter (b) Bear
(c) Dream (d) sleep

SECTION 3 : COMMUNICATION ABILITY TEST
Q No. 54 to 57 Sentences given in the each questions, when properly sequenced form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the four given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.
56. A. There was pile of pumpkins sitting on a flatbed truck and both Allen and Bush tried to host an aesthetically pleasing pumpkin by the stem.
B. Both stems snapped. “If you break it, you pay for it, Mr. President,” said Richard Keil of Blommberg News, Echoing Colin Powell’s famous rule, at the outset of the Iraq war.
C. Everything seemed to be going wrong for bush last week, even the metaphors.
D. On the way to the Allen fund raiser we stopped for a photo at a picturesque farm stand outside Richmond.
E. Bush didn’t seem to get the joke. “I suppose you’re right, “ he said and tried to buy the broken pumpkin.

(a) ABEDC

(b) BECAD


(c) CDABE

(d) ABECD

57. A. We all know chat exercise is good for you.

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B. Staying physically active helps keep your heart healthy and your muscles strong and in cancer patients it has even been shown to ward off relapse.
C. Now, a series of independently conducted studies on the effects of exercise in healthy older adults published on Monday in the Archives of Internal Medicine confirms that.
D. Logging time at the gym not only helps maintain good health but may even prevent

(a) ABCD

(b) DABC


(c) CDAB

(d) CDBA

58. A. Borderlines are the patients psychologists fear most.
B. They are power connected to the people close to them and terrified by the possibility of losing them yet attach those people so unexpectedly that they often ensure the every abandonment they fear.
C. When they want to hold, they claw instead.
D. Borderline patients seem to have no internal governor; they are capable of deep love and profound rage almost simultaneously.
E. As many as 75% hurt themselves and approximately 10% commit suicide, an extraordinarily high suicide rate.

(a) AEDBC

(b) CAEDB


(c) BDCAE

(d) DBCAE

59. A. He read it in an oddly methodical way.
B. The moment he had laid aside the body of the paper a masseuse stepped into the room.
C. First he tore off Page one and the editorial page of the bulky newspaper.
D. Rapidly, his marble-bright blue eyes took in every story.
E. When the rite was over, he sat up and as the masseuse worked at the fingers of his right hand, stiff from a palm affliction, Sulzberger picked up the detached Page One of the Times in his left.

(a) EACDB

(b) ADEBC


(c) CBDEA

(d) ACBED

Q No. 60 to 64 Each question consists of sentences which are divided into four parts, numbered (a) through, (d). Only one part in each sentence is not acceptable in standard written English. Identify that part in each of the sentences which contains the error.
60. (a) Her acceptance of speech.
(b) Was well received
(c) Eliciting thunderous applause
(d) At several points.
61. (a) An oppressive solemnity
(b) And not the festive mood
(c) One might have expected
(d) Characterized the mood by the gathering.
62. (a) All aspiring artists must
(b) Struggle by the conflict
(c) Between faith in their own talent
(d) And knowledge that very few are great enough to succeed
63. (a) Despite some bad news
(b) Michel’s stature was not diminished
(c) And her fans or critics
(d) Were unanimous in appreciating her work.
64. (a) Jazz is an American art form
(b) Which was now flourishing in Europe
(c) Through the efforts of expatriates
(d) In France, Scandinavia and Germany.
Q No. 65 to 69 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the underlined word in the sentence.
65. He puts on airs and claims himself to be omniscient .
(a) Ignorant
(b) Uneducated
(c) Unqualified

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(d) Backward
66. The committee set about making provisional arrangements for the annual conference.
(a) Unconditional
(b) Abiding
(c) Permanent
(d) Lasting
67. The priest would not allows anyone to desecrate the sanctity of the temple
(a) Desist
(b) Integrate
(c) Intensify
(d) Defame
68. I think you should undertake this job; it would really be a profitable venture for your.
(a) Refrain
(b) Leave
(c) Conceal
(d) Retrieve
69. I think it would be better if this paragraph is eliminated.
(a) Added
(b) Improve
(c) Deleted
(d) shortened
Q No. 70 to 73 In each of the following questions, out of the given alternatives, choose the one which is closest in meaning to the underlined word in the sentence.
70. Parents should cultivate in their children the habit of helping others.
(a) Propagate
(b) Sprout
(c) Create
(d) Foster
71. Scientific knowledge is an intoxicating draught and it may be one in which the human race is unable to sustain.
(a) Drink
(b) Product
(c) Disease
(d) Process
72. He is deluding himself with false hopes.
(a) Satisfying
(b) Entertaining
(c) misleading
(d) Assuring
73. The obstacles seem to be insurmountable , but no one should doubt what this fearless woman can accomplish.
(a) Too easy to achieve
(b) Too difficult to overcome
(c) Too tall and too high
(d) Too trivial to attract attention
Q No. 74 to 77 In each of the following questions, out of the given group of word choose the mis-spelt one.
74. (a) Impression (b) Compelition
(c) Miscellaneous (d) Reproach
75. (a) Exonerate (b) Queasy
(c) Hurricane (d) Surveilleance
76. (a) Incidently (b) Publicity
(c) Coddle (d) Realy
77. (a) Instructor (b) Grammer
(c) Carrier (d) Organiser
Q No. 78 to 80 In each of the following questions, an idiomatic expression / proverb has been given follows by

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some alternatives. Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom / proverb.
78. To read between the lines
(a) To concentrate
(b) To read carefully
(c) To suspect
(d) To grasp the hidden meaning
79. To flog a dead horse
(a) To act in a foolish way
(b) To waste one’s efforts
(c) To receive interest in an old subject
(d) To revive old memories.
80. To pay one back in the same coin
(a) To provoke a person to quarrel
(b) To offer another polite attention
(c) To retaliate
(d) To give a word of encouragement or praise to another
SECTION 4 : ENGLISH COMPREHENSION TEST
Read the following passages and answer the questions given below:
Passage 1
The world dismisses curiosity by calling it idle or mere idle curiosity even though curious persons are seldom idle. Parents do their best to extinguish curiosity in their children because it makes life difficult to be faced everyday with a string of unanswerable questions about what makes fire hot or why grass grows. Children whose curiosity survives parental discipline are invited to join our university. With the university, they go on asking their questions and trying to find the answers. In the eyes of a scholar, that is what a university for. some of the questions which the scholars ask seem to the world to be scarcely worth asking, let alone answering. they asked questions too minute and specialised for you and me to understand without years of explanation. If the world inquires of one of them why he wants to know the answer to a particular question he may say especially if he is a scientist, that the answer will in some obscure way make possible a new machine or weapon or gadget. He talks that way because he knows that the world understands and respects utility.
But to you who are now part of the university, he will say that he wants to know the answer simply because he does not know it, the way the mountain climber wants to climb a mountain, simply because it is there. Similarly a historian asked by an outsider why he studies history may come out with the argument that he has learnt to respect to report on such occasions, something about knowledge of the past making it possible to understand the present and mould the future. But if you really want to know why a historian studies the past, the answer is much simpler, something happened and he would like to know what. All this does not mean that the answers which scholars to find to their enormous consequences but these seldom form the reason for asking the question or pursuing the answers. It is true that scholars can be put to work answering questions for sake of the consequences as thousands are working now, for example, in search of a cure for cancer. But this is not the primary scholars. For the consequences are usually subordinate to the satisfication of curiosity.
81. Children whose curiosity survives parental discipline means
(a) children retaining their curiosity in spite of being discouraged by their parents
(b) children pursuing their mental curiosity
(c) children's curiosity subdued due to parents intervention
(d) children being disciplined by their parents
82. According to their passage, the children make life difficult for their parents
(a) by their ceaseless curiosity
(b) by unceasing bombardment of questions
(c) by asking irrelevant questions
(d) by posing profound questions
83. The common people consider some of the questions that the scholars ask unimportant
(a) as they are too lazy and idle
(b) as they are too modest
(c) as it's beyond their comprehension
(d) as it is considered a waste of time
84. A historian really studies the past

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(a) to comprehend the present and to reconstruct the future
(b) to explain the present and plan the future
(c) to understand the present and make fortune
(d) to understand the present and mould the future
85. According to their passage, parents do their best to discourage curiosity in their children
(a) because they have no time
(b) because they have no patience to answer them
(c) because they feel that their children ask stupid questions continuously
(d) because they are unable to answer all the questions
Passage 2
Piccadilly Circus was full of loneliness. It seethes and echoes with it. To live near it. Looking down on it is a discomforting exercise. You can't feel the pulse of London here, though people expect to. To Londoners it is a maddening obstruction between one place and another, and few voluntarily linger there. The only locals are those who live off the lingerers; the lingerers are primarily sightseers, with a fair sprinkling of people hoping to draw attention to themselves - both typically from the provinces. They have come to see the heart of London and expect to see spectacle, glamour and vice.
86. Piccadilly circus is
(a) the name of a circus company
(b) a lonely and resounding old building
(c) a centrally located area in London
(d) a huge heap of ruins
87. The passage implies that
(a) some Londoners love to spend their time near the Piccadilly circus
(b) no Londoner wants to be in Piccadilly circus
(c) Piccadilly circus is a hazardous place
(d) Piccadilly circus is place of vice
88. According to this passage, people from outside London go to Piccadilly circus because it is
(a) a historical place
(b) full of glamour
(c) full of exciting people
(d) the pulse of London
89. For those who live near Piccadilly circus, it is
(a) a very noisy place
(b) crowded with people
(c) an obstruction to traffic
(d) an awkward structure
90. The lingerers found in Piccadilly circus are mainly
(a) the citizens of London
(b) sightseers from provincial areas of Britain
(c) people who want to show off
(d) local idlers

Passage 3
The strength of the electronics industry in Japan is the Japanese ability to organise production and marketing rather than their achievements in original research. The British are generally recognised as a far more inventive collection of individuals, but never seem able to exploit what they invent. There are many examples, from the TSR Z hovercraft, high speed train and Sinclair scooter to the Triumph, BSA and Norton Motorcycle which all prove this sad rule. The Japanese were able to exploits their strengths in marketing and development many years ago, and their success was at first either not understood in the West or was dismissed as something which could have been produced only at their low price. They were sold because they were cheap copies of other people's ideas churned out of a workhouse which was dedicated to hard grind above all else.
91. It is evident from the passage that the strength of a country's industry depends upon

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(a) original research
(b) international cooperation
(c) dedicated workforce
(d) electronic development
92. The sad rule mentioned in this passage refers to
(a) the inability of the Japanese to be inventive like the British
(b) the inability of the British to be industrious like the Japanese
(c) the lack of variety in Japanese inventions
(d) the poorer marketing ability of British
93. The TSR Z hovercraft, high speed train, Sinclair scooter etc. are the symbols of
(a) Japanese success
(b) British failure
(c) British success
(d) Japanese failure
94. According to the passage, prosperity in industry depends upon
(a) Productivity
(b) Inventiveness
(c) marketing ability
(d) official patronage
95. The main theme of this passage is
(a) electronic industry in Japan
(b) industrial comparison between Japan and Britain
(c) the role of marketing efficiency in industrial prosperity
(d) the importance of original research in industry
Passage 4
What needs to be set right is our approach to work. It is a common sight in our country of employees reporting for duty on time and at the same time doing little work. If an assessment is made of time they spent in gossiping, drinking tea, eating "pan" and smoking cigarettes, it will be shocking to know that the time devoted to actual work is negligible. The problem is the standard which the leadership in administration sets for the staff. Forgot the ministers because they mix politics and administration. What do top bureaucrats do? What do the below down officials do? The administration set up remains week mainly because the employees do not have the right example to follow and they are more concerned about being in the good books of the bosses than doing work.
96. The employees in our country
(a) are quite punctual but not duty conscious
(b) are not punctual, but somehow manage to complete their work
(c) are somewhat lazy but good natured
(d) are not very highly qualified
97. According to the writer, the administration in India
(a) is by and large effective
(b) is very strict and firm
(c) is affected by red tape
(d) is more or less ineffective
98. The word 'assessment' means
(a) Enquiry
(b) Report
(c) Evaluation
(d) Summary
99. The leadership in administration
(a) sets a fine example to the employees
(b) is of a reasonably high standard
(c) is composed of idealists
(d) is of a very poor standard

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100. The central idea of passage could be best expressed by the following
(a) The employee outlook towards work is justified
(b) The employee must change their outlook towards work
(c) The employees would never change their work culture
(d) The employer-employee relationship is far from healthy
Passage 5
It is to progress in the human sciences that we must look to undo the evils which have resulted from a knowledge of physical world hastily and superficially acquired by population unconscious of the changes in themselves that the new knowledge has imperative. The road to a happier world than any known in the past lies open before us if atavistic destructive passions can be kept in leash while the necessary adaptations are made. Fears are inevitable in time, but hopes are equally rational and far more likely to bear good fruit. We must learn to think rather less of the dangers to be avoided than of the good that will lie within our grasp if we can believe in it and let it dominate our thoughts. Science, whatever unpleasant consequences it may have by the way, is in its very nature a liberator, a liberator of bondage to physical nature and in time to come, a liberator from the weight of destructive passions. We are on the threshold of utter disaster or unprecedentely glorious achievement. No previous age has been fraught with problems so momentous; and it is to science that we must look to for a happy future.
101. What does science liberate s from? It is liberate us from
(a) fears and destructive passions
(b) slavery to physical nature and from passions
(c) bondage to physical nature
(d) idealistic hopes of glorious future
102. Should human sciences be developed because they will
(a) provide more knowledge of the physical word
(b) make us conscious of the changing world
(c) make us conscious of the changing in ourselves
(d) eliminate the destruction caused by a superficial knowledge of the physical world
103. If man's bestial yearning is controlled
(a) the future will be tolerable
(b) the future will be brighter than the present
(c) the present will be brighter than the future
(d) the present will become tolerable
104. Fears and hopes according to the author
(a) are closely linked with the life of modern man
(b) can bear fruit
(c) can yield good results
(d) are irrational
105. To carve out a bright future man should
(a) analyse dangers that lie ahead
(b) try to avoid dangers
(c) overcome fear and dangers
(d) cultivate a positive outlook
Passage 6
Today perhaps your only association with the word 'polio' is the Sabin Oral Vaccine that protects children from the disease. Fifty five years ago this was not so. The dreaded disease, which mainly affects the brain ans spinal cord, causing stiffening and weakening of muscles, crippling and paralysis - which is Why I am in a wheelchair today. If somebody had predicted, when I was born, that this would happen to me, no one would have believed it. I was seventh child in a family of four pairs of brothers and sisters, with huge 23 year gap between the first and last. I was so fair and brown haired that I looked more look like a foreigner than a Dawood Bohri. I was also considered to be the healthiest of the brood.`
106. In his childhood, the narrator was
(a) a weakling
(b) very healthy
(c) tall and slim

SILICA NIFT (GAT 2013-14) TEST PAPER Page 11
(d) short and stout
107. In this passage, the word 'brood' refers to
(a) polio victims
(b) foreign children
(c) children in the family
(d) Indian Children
108. The narrator was the seventh child in a family of
(a) 8 children
(b) 16 children
(c) 23 children
(d) 4 children
109. In this passage, the narrator is a patient of
(a) heart disease
(b) Polio
(c) Paralysis
(d) nervous weakness
110. In his childhood, the narrator looked "more like a foreigner than a Dawood Bohri" This was because he was
(a) a foreign child
(b) a very healthy boy
(c) tell and smart
(d) fair and brown haired
SECTION 5 : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE & CURRENT AFFAIRS
Choose the appropriate answer from the choices given.
111. Philology is the
(a) study of bones (b) study of muscles
(b) study of architecture (d) science of languages
112. Taoism is followed in
(a) Worldwide (b) Iran and north-west India
(c) China, Taiwan, Nauru, Brunei, Singapore and Vietnam (d) Japan
113. Shankracharya was the founder of
(a) Buddhism (b) Jainism
(c) Arya Samaj (d) Advaitic philosophy
114. Penicillin is widely used as
(a) an antiseptic (b) a disinfectant
(c) an antibiotic (d) an insecticide
115. Study of earthquakes is known as
(a) Ecology (b) Seismology
(c) Numismatics (d) None of the above
116. The headquarter of International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) are situated at
(a) Vienna (b) Geneva
(c) Rome (d) Paris
117. The headquarter of the International court of Justice (UNO) are located at
(a) Hague (Netherlands) (b) Addis Ababa
(c) Bangkok (d) New York, USA
118. The largest city of India is
(a) New Delhi (b) Mumbai
(c) Kolkata (d) Chennai
119. Who is the author of the book 'Forbidden Verses'?
(a) Salman RushDie (b) Abu Nuwas
(c) Ms. Taslima Nasrin (d) D.H. Lawrence
120. Who wrote the line: ' A thing of beauty is a joy forever'?
(a) John Keats (b) Robert Browing
(c) P.B.Shelley (d) William Wordsworth
121. The owner of Star TV is

SILICA NIFT (GAT 2013-14) TEST PAPER Page 12
(a) Rupert Murdoch (b) Tata Group
(c) Richard Attenborough (d) George Lucas
122. Who is the author of the book 'My Experiments with Truth'?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Michael Anderson
(c) Winston Churchill (d) Jarnes Morris
123. The absorption of ink by blotting paper involves
(a) viscosity of ink (b) capillary action phenomenon
(c) diffusion of ink through the blotting (d) siphon action
124. RADAR is used for
(a) locating submerged submarines (b) receiving a signals in a radio receiver
(c) locating geostationary satellites (d) detecting and locating the position of objects such as aeroplanes
125. Identify the vector quantity from the following
(a) Heat (b) Angular momentum
(c) Time (d) Work
126. Planets are
(a) luminous heavenly bodies revolving around a star (b) non-luminous heavenly bodies
(c) luminous heavenly bodies that twinkle (d) luminous heavenly bodies that do not twinkle
127. Supersonic plane fly with the speed
(a) less than the speed of sound (b) of sound
(c) greater than the speed of sound (d) of light
128. Ordinary table salt is sodium chloride. What is baking soda?
(a) Potassium chloride (b) Potassium carbonate
(c) Potassium hydroxide (d) Sodium bicarbonate
129. Other than spreading malaria, anopheles mosquitoes are also vectors of
(a) dengue fever (b) Filariasis
(c) Encephalitis (d) yellow fever
130. Plants growing on sand are called as
(a) Chasmophytes (b) Oxylophytes
(c) Lithophytes (d) Psammophytes
131. Radish is a
(a) Bulb (b) Conn
(c) modified root (d) Tuber
132. Pulses are a good source of
(a) Carbohydrates (b) Fats
(c) Proteins (d) Vitamins
133. Mycobacterium leprae causes leprosy, Corynebacterium diphtheria causes diphtheria and Vibrio comma causes
(a) Tetanus (b) Influenza
(c) Cholera (d) Typhoid
134. The Battle of Plassey was fought in
(a) 1757 (b) 1782
(c) 1748 (d) 1764
135. Tripitakas are sacred books of
(a) Buddhists (b) Hindus
(c) Jains (d) None of the above
136. The title given by the British Government to Mahatma Gandhi which he surrendered during the non-cooperation movement was
(a) Hind Keasri (b) Kaiser-e-Hind
(c) Rai Bahadur (d) Rt. Honorable
137. The Upanishads are
(a) a source of Hindu philosophy (b) books of ancient Hindu laws
(c) books on social behavior of man (d) prayers to God
138. Which of the following is not associated with the UNO?

SILICA NIFT (GAT 2013-14) TEST PAPER Page 13
(a) ILO (b) WHO
(c) ASEAN (d) All of the above

139. Which of the following countries is not a member of the G-8 group?
(a) Germany (b) France
(c) Italy (d) Spain
140. The working language(s) of the UNESCO is/are
(a) French only (b) English only
(c) English and French (d) English, French and Russian
  #3  
20th February 2016, 09:55 AM
Unregistered
Guest
 
Re: National Institute of Fashion Technology entrance exam preparation tips

Hello sir ! I have apply for National Institute of Fashion Technology entrance exam . will you please give some preparation tips ?
  #4  
20th February 2016, 09:56 AM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: May 2012
Re: National Institute of Fashion Technology entrance exam preparation tips

Hello buddy as you want here we gives you National Institute of Fashion
Technology entrance exam preparation tips as follows

You have to need to cover all important topics .

Must revise the topics 3 to 4 time before the examination

Here we provide you syllabus of this exam

FOR BACHELOR OF DESIGN (B.DES.) AND MASTER OF DESIGN (M.DES.)

Quantitative Ability:

. The sub-test may include questions on Addition, Multiplication, Division,
Fractions, Percentage, Rate of Interest, Work and Task, Ratio and Proportion,
and Distance.

Communication Ability:

. It includes questions on synonyms, antonyms, words with corresponding
meanings, singular, plural, one word substitutes, idioms and phrases, correct
spellings etc.

English Comprehension:

the test of candidate’s ability to comprehend a situation from a given
passage, and test of basic English language.

Analytical Ability:

This sub-test is designed to test the candidate’s capacity for ability of
inference and logic from the given information.

General Knowledge and Current Affairs:

This sub-test is designed to test the candidate’s general knowledge and
current affairs.

for Bachelor of Technology (B.F.Tech.),

Master of Fashion Management (M.F.M),

Master of Design (M.Des.) and

Master of Fashion Technology (M.F.Tech.).

Quantitative Ability:

. The sub test consists of questions on Addition, Multiplication, Division,
Fractions, Percentage, Rate of Interest, Work and Task, Ratio and Proportion,
and Distance.

Communication Ability and English Comprehension:

It includes questions on synonyms, antonyms, words with corresponding
meanings, singular, plural, one word substitutes, idioms and phrases, correct
spellings, comprehend a situation from a given passage etc.

3) Analytical Ability and Logical Ability:

logic from the given information and to evaluate the candidate’s ability to
identify a the given problem and apply reasoning in solving the core issues of
the problem. Concepts and practice of creative and lateral thinking are likely
to be useful.

4) General Knowledge and Current Affairs:

This sub-test is designed to test the candidate’s general knowledge and
current affairs.

5) Case Study:

This sub-test is based on a situation of an industry environment.

GROUP DISCUSSIONS

1) Conceptual clarity

2) Knowledge of the topic assigned

3) Contribution made to the topic

4) Interpersonal skills

5) Ability to generate new ideas

6) Problem solving approach

7) Leadership qualities

8) Effective communication

PERSONAL INTERVIEW

Candidates shall be evaluated on the various parameters as listed below by a
panel, in the Personal Interview:

1) Career orientation

2) Aptness for the course

3) Overall personal achievements in academics and co-curricular activities

4) Communication

5) General awareness and aptitude, creative and lateral thinking


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