Model question for Pallavan Bank Post 1 exam

Will you please provide me question paper for Pallavan Grama Bank Post 1 examination soon ?

[Arun Vats]

Here I am giving you question paper for Pallavan Grama Bank Post 1 examination................

NUMERICAL APTITUDE QUESTIONS

1 (95.6x 910.3) ÷ 92.56256 = 9?
(A) 13.14
(B) 12.96
(C) 12.43
(D) 13.34
(E) None of these

2. (4 86%of 6500) ÷ 36 =?
(A) 867.8
(B) 792.31
(C) 877.5
(D) 799.83
(E) None of these

3. (12.11)2 + (?)2 = 732.2921
(A)20.2
(B) 24.2
(C)23.1
(D) 19.2
(E) None of these

4.576÷ ? x114=8208
(A)8
(B)7
(C)6
(D)9
(E) None of these

5. (1024—263—233)÷(986—764— 156) =?
(A)9
(B)6
(C)7
(D)8
(E) None of these

6. ?125÷5x ?=6265
(A)1253
(B) 1250
(C)1245
(D) 1550
(E) None of these

7.(42)2÷6.3 x 26 =?
(A)7182
(B) 7269
(C)7260
(D) 7240
(E) None of these

8.384×12×2=?
(A)9024
(B) 9216
(C)6676
(D) 6814
(E) None of these

9.6534÷40÷33=?
(A)3.06
(B) 5.25
(C)4.82
(D) 6.12
(E) None of these

10. ?2704 x ?2209=?
(A)1996
(B)2444
(C)2452
(D)1983
(E)None of these

11.2536+4851—?=3450+313
(A)3961
(B)4532
(C)3624
(D)4058
(E) None of these

12. (2560 x 1.4) +(7400 x 0.6) =?
(A)7512
(B) 9746
(C)6523
(D) 8024
(E) None of these

13. 36%of 850+? %of 592 = 750
(A)73
(B)89
(C)82
(D)75
(E) None of these

14.64%of 2650+40% 0f 320=?
(A)1824
(B) 1902
(C)1829
(D) 1964
(E) None of these

15. 486+32×25—59=?
(A) 514
(B) 528
(C) 599
(D) 507
(E) None of these

16. 1827÷ 36 x ?=162.4
(A)4.4
(B)3.2
(C)2.1
(D) 3.7
(E) None of these

17. 1008÷36=?
(A)28
(B) 32.5
(C)36
(D) 22.2
(E) None of these

18. 56.21 +2.36+5.41 —21.4+1.5=?
(A)40.04
(B) 46.18
(C)44.08
(D) 43.12
(E) None of these

19. 65%of 320+?=686
(A) 480
(B) 452
(C)461
(D) 475
(E) None of these

20. 83250÷?=74×25
(A)50
(B) 45
(C)40
(D) 55
(E) None of these

21. ?7744=?
(A)88
(B)62
(C)58
(D)78
(E)None of these

22.35%of ?=242
(A)729
(B)652
(C)693
(D)759
(E) None of these

23. 1256+4813+765=?
(A)5642
(B) 5876
(C)6788
(D) 6878
(E) None of these

24. 22 x4+(?)2=(13)2

(A) 81
(C) 27
(B) 9
(D) 64
(E) None of these

25. 432+2170+35=?
(A)494
(B) 475
(C)481
(D) 469
(E) None of these

26. Three numbers are in the ratio of 3: 4 :5 respectively. If the sum of the first and third numbers is more than the second number by 52, then which will be the largest number?
(A) 65
(B) 52
(C) 79
(D) 63
(E) None of these

27. The compound interest on a certain amount for 2 years at the rate of 8 p.c.p.a. is Rs.312. What will be the simple interest on the same amount and at the same rate and same time?
(A)Rs. 349.92
(B) Rs. 300
(C)Rs. 358.92
(D) Rs. 400
(E) None of these

28. The length of a rectangle exceeds its breadth by 7 ems. If the length is decreased by 4 cm. and the breadth is increased by 3 cms., then the area of the new rectangle will be the same as the area of the original rectangle. What will be the perimeter of the original rectangle?
(A)45 cms.
(B)40 cems.
(C)50 cms.
(D)55 cms.
(E)None of these

29. The sum of the digits of a two digit number is 12. If the new number formed by reversing the digits is greater than the original number by 54, then what will be the original number?
(A)28
(B) 48
(C)39
(D) 93
(E) None of these

30. In a fraction, twice the numerator is two more than the denominator. If 3 is added to the numerator and the denominator each, then the resultant fraction will be 2/3 .What was the original fraction ?
(A)5/18
(B)6/13
(C)13/6
(D)7/12
(E) None of these

31. Four-fifth of a number is 10 more than two-third of the same number. What is the number?
(A) 70
(B) 75
(C) 69
(D) 85
(E) None of these

32. A shopkeeper purchased 200 bulbs for Rs. 10 each. However, 5 bulbs were fused and had to be thrown away. The remaining were sold at Rs. 12 each. What will be the percentage

profit?
(A) 25
(B) 15
(C) 13
(D) 17
(E) None of these

33. What should come in the place of question mark (?) in the number series given below?
25, 34, 52,79, 115,?
(A)160
(B) 140
(C)153
(D) 190
(E)None of these

34. What number should replace both the question marks (?) in the following question ?
?/144= 49 /?
(A)95
(B) 76
(C)82
(D) 84
(E)None of these

35. The sum of three consecutive even numbers is 252. What is the sum of the smallest and the largest numbers?
(A)158
(B) 148
(C)168
(D) 198
(E) None of these

36. Ajay spends 25% of his salary on house rent, 5% on food, 15% on travel, 10% on clothes and the remaining amount of Rs. 27,000 is saved. What is Ajay’s income?
(A) Rs. 60,000
(B) Rs. 80,500
(C) Rs. 60,700
(D) Rs. 70,500
(E) None of these

37. In how many different ways, can the letters of the word ‘CRISIS’ be arranged ?
(A) 150
(B) 240
(C) 120
(D) 200
(E) None of these

38. At each corner of a square park with side equal to 40 m, there is a flower bed in the form of a sector of radius 14 m. What is the area of the remaining part of the park?
(A)984 Square m
(B) 789 Square m
(C) 1014 Square m
(D) 1024 Square m
(E) None of these

39. The length of a rectangular field is thrice its breadth. If the cost of cultivating the field at Rs. 367.20 per square meter is Rs. 27,540, then what is the perimeter of the rectangle?
(A)47m
(B) 39m
(C)52m
(D)40m
(E) None of these

40. If the fractions8/5,7/2,9/5,5/4,4/5 are arranged in descending order of their values, which one will be fourth?
(A)4/5
(B)5/4
(C)9/5
(D)8/5
(E) 7/2

41. The present ages of Chetna and Shikha are in the ratio of 5 :7 respectively. After 7 years, their ages will be in the ratio of 11:14 respectively. What is the difference between their ages?
(A)9 years
(B) 4 years
(C)5 years
(D) 7 years
(E) None of these

42. If 13 men can complete a piece of work in 36 days, then in how many days will 18 men complete the same work?
(A)16 days
(B) 20 days
(C)26 days
(D) 30 days
(E) None of these

43. If the area of a circle is 75.44 square cm then what is the circumference of the circle?
(A)29.2 cm
(B) 28.9 cm
(C)30.8 cm
(D) 40.2 cm
(E) None of these

44. Girish started a business investing Rs. 45,000. After 3 months, Vijay joined him with a capital of Rs. 60,000. After another 6 months, Ankush joined them with a capital of Rs. 90,000. At the end of the year, they made a profit of Rs. 16,500. What is Girish’s share of profit ?
(A) Rs. 5,500
(B) Rs. 6,000
(C) Rs. 6,600
(D) As. 5,900
(E) None of these

45. What is the average age of a family of five members, whose ages are 42, 49, 56, 63 and 35 years respectively?
(A)60 years
(B) 49 years
(C)45 years
(D) 58 years
(E) None of these

46. A and B are two taps which can fill a tank individually in 10 minutes and 20 minutes respectively. However, there is a leakage at the bottom which can empty a filled tank in 40 minutes. If the tank is empty initially, how much time will both the taps take to fill the tank (leakage is still there) ?
(A) 8 minutes
(B) 7 minutes
(C) 10 minutes
(D)15 minutes
(E) None of these

47. What is 50% of 40% of Rs. 3,450?
(A) Rs. 690
(B) As. 520
(C) Rs. 517.5
(D) Rs. 499.2
(E) None of these

48. If an amount of Rs. 5,86,700 is distributed equally amongst 25 persons, then how much would each person get?
(A) Rs. 2,54,876
(B) Rs. 2,34,68
(C) Rs. 3,74,20
(D) Rs. 1,95,62
(E) None of these

49. An urn contains 9 blue, 7 white and 4 black balls. If 2 balls are drawn at random, then what is the probability that only one ball is white?
(A) 71/190
(B) 121/190
(C) 91/190
(D) 93/190
(E) None of these

50. If the price of 5 transistors and 2 pen stands is Rs. 810, then what will be the price of 7 transistors and 9 pen stands?
(A) Rs. 1,320
(B) Rs. 1,500
(C) Rs.1,150
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these

ANSWERS:
1 – D 2 – C 3 – B 4 – A 5 – D 6 – A 7 – E 8 – B 9 – E 10 – B 11 – C 12 – D 13 – D 14 – A 15 – B
16 – B 17 – A 18 – C 19 – E 20 – B 21 – A 22 – C 23 – E 24 – B 25 – A 26 – A 27 – B 28 – C 29 – C 30 – D 31 – B 32 – D 33 – A 34 – D 35 – C 36 – A 37 – E 38 – A 39 – D 40 – B 41 – E 42 – C 43 – C
44 – A 45 – B 46 – A 47 – A 48 – B 49 – E 50 – D

I want to crack Pallavan Grama Bank Recruitment exam . Will you please provide the question paper for an idea ?

[Arun Vats]

Pallavan Grama Bank Recruitment exam based on IBPS Score Card .For your idea , here I am providing the list of few questions of IBPS exam question paper .

1. In a certain code ‘BUILT’ is written
as ‘5#32@’ and ‘TRIBE’ is written as
‘@9345©’. How is ‘RULE’ written in
that code?
(1) 9#2© (2) 92#©
(3) @#2© (4) @2#©
(5) None of these
2. How many meaningful English can
be formed, starting was S, with the
second, the fourth, the fifth and the
eight letters of the word PERISHED,
using each letter only once in each
word? (To be counted from left)
(1) None (2) One
(3) Two (4) Three
(5) More than three
3. The positions of how many digits in
the numbers 837912 will remain
unchanged after the digits within
the number are rearranged in
descending order? (from left to
right)
(1) None (2) One
(3) Two (4) Three
(5) More than three
4. How many such pairs of letters are
three in the word STREAMING
each of which has as many letters
between them in the word as in the
English alphabet? (in both forward
and backward directions)
(1) None (2) One
(3) Two (4) Three
(5) More than three
5. In a certain code ‘CLEAR’ is written
as ‘SBFMD’ and ‘BONDS’ is written
as ‘TEOPC’. How is ‘STALE’ written
in that code?
(1) DKZSR (2) BUTFM
(3) TUBMF (4) FMBUT
(5) None of these

6-10. Study the following arrangement
of numbers, letters and symbols
carefully and answer the questions
given below:
R @ 2 9 T V A Y 5 © # J 1 P 8 Q $ E 3
* H % 6 W 4 I δ U Z
6. Four of the following five are alike
in a certain way based on their
positions in the above arrangement
and so form a group. Which is the
one that does not belong to that
group?
(1) J P © (2) E Q *
(3) W I % (4) 9 V @
(5) 1 # δ
7. Which of the following is the fifth to
the right of the nineteenth element
from the right end?
(1) P (2) V
(3) W (4) 8
(5) None of these
8. How many such numbers are there
in the above arrangement, each of
which is immediately prepared by a
consonant and immediately
followed by a symbol?
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Four
(5) More than four
9. If the positions of the last eighteen
elements in the above arrangement
are reserved, which of te following
will be the seventeenth from the left
end?
(1) E (2) P
(3) W (4) 6
(5) None of these
10. How many such vowels are three in
the above arrangement, each of
which is either immediately
followed by a symbol or immediately
preceded by a symbol?
(1) None (2) One
(3) Two (4) Three
(5) Four

11-15. Study the following information
carefully and answer the question
given below.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting
around a circular table facing the
center not necessarily in the same
order. F is fourth to the left of A and
second to the right of C. B is second
to the left of A, and A is to the
immediate right of G. E who is not
an immediate neighbour of B is
fourth to the left of D.
11. Which of the following is correct?
(1) F is third to the left of B
(2) H is third to the left of D
(3) C is third to the left of B
(4) E is third to the left of F
(5) All are correct
12. What is H’s position with respect to
G?
(1) Fifth to the right
(2) Third to the left
(3) Third to the right
(4) Fifth to the left
(5) Fourth to the left
13. Who is second to the right of E?
(1) C (2) H
(3) G (4) A
(5) Data inadequate
14. Who is the immediate right of F?
(1) D (2) H
(3) B (4) C
(5) None of these
15. Which of the following pairs
represents the immediate
neighbours of A?
(1) EB (2) GC
(3) EG (4) ED
(5) None of these

16-20. In the following questions, the
symbols ©, δ , $, * and % are used
with the following meaning as
illustrated below:
‘P δ Q’ means ‘P is not greater than
Q’.
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than
Q’.
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is neither greater
than nor smaller than Q.
‘P * Q’ means ‘P is smaller than Q’.
Now in each of the following
questions assuming the given
statements to be true, find which of
the two conclusions I and II given
below them is/are definitely true?
Give answer (1) if only Conclusion
I is true. Give answer (2) is if only
Conclusion II is true. Give answer
(3) is either Conclusion I or II is true.
Give answer (4) if neither
Conclusion I nor II is true. Give
answer (5) if both Conclusions I and
II are true.
16. Statements : R $ J
J % M,
M © K
Conclusions : I. K © J
II. K * J
17. Statements : D δ R
M $ R
M © F
Conclusions : I. F $ D
II. F $ R
18. Statements : H © F
F $ R
R * K
Conclusions : I. R * H
II. K $ F
19. Statements : B % D
D * T
T δ R
Conclusions : I. B $ T
II. R $ D
20. Statements :M % N
N * A
A $ B
Conclusions : I. B * N
II. A $ M

21-25. Each of the questions below
consists of a question and two
statements numbered I and II
given below it. You have to decide
whether the data provided in the
statements are sufficient to answer
the question. Read both the
statements and—
Give answer (1) if the data in statement I
alone are sufficient to answer the question,
while the data in statement II alone are not
sufficient to answer the question. Give
answer (2) if the data statement II alone are
sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement I alone are not sufficient
to answer the equation. Give answer (3) if
the data either in statement I alone or in
statement II alone are sufficient to answer
the question. Given answer (4) if the data
given in both the statements I & II together
are not sufficient to answer the question,
and Give answer (5) if the data in both the
statements I & II together are necessary to
answer the question.
21. Village P is towards which direction
of village R?
I. Village R is to the South-East of
village T and T is to the North
of village?
II. Village Q is to the South of
village P and to the South-West
of village R.
22. Who among A, B, C, D and E, each
having a different height, is the third
tallest?
I. E is shorter than only B.
II. C is taller than only A.
23. How many sisters does K have?
I. M is sister of K.
II. K’s mother has three children.
24. If a row of thirty students facing
North, what is R’s position from the
left end?
I. There are twelve students
between R and Q.
II. T is tenth from the right end
and there are sixteen students
between T and R.
25. How is ‘go’ written in a code
language?
I. ‘go over there’ is written as ‘pa
da na’ in that code language.
II. ‘go and sit’ is written as ‘sa ka
pa’ in that code language.

26-30. Study the following information
carefully and answer the question
given below.
Following are the conditions for selecting
Accounts Officer in an organization:
The candidate must—
(i) be at least 21 years and not more
than 26 years as on 1.11.2011.
(ii) be a commerce graduate (B.Com.)
with at least 55% aggregate marks.
(iii) have work experience of at least 2
years in the Accounts department of
an organization
(iv) have secured at least 50% marks in
the selection process.
In the case of a candidate who fulfils
all the conditions except—
(a) at (i) above but at least 21 years old
and not more than 28 years old and
has work experience of five as
Accounts Assistant in an
organization, his/her case is to be
referred to GM-Account.
(b) at (ii) above, but has secured at least
59% aggregate marks in graduation
and has secured at least 55% marks
in the selection process, his/her case
is to be referred to VP-Accounts.
In each question below, details of
one candidate are provided. You
have to take one of the following
courses of action based on the
conditions given above the
information provided in each
question and mark the number of
the course of action as your answer.
You are not to assume anything
other than the information provided
in each question. All these cases are
given to you as on 1.11.2011
Mark answer (1) if the case is to be
referred to GMAccounts
Mark answer (2) if the case is to be
referred to VPAccounts
Mark answer (3) if the candidate is to
be selected.
Mark answer (4) if the candidate is not
to be selected.
Mark answer (5) if the data provided
are inadequate to take
a decision.
26. Umesh Choksi was born on 25th
November 1989. He has secured
60% aggregate marks in B.Com. and
65% marks in the Selection Process.
He has been working in the
Accounts department of an
organization for the past three
years.
27. Pratibha Kale was born of 6th June
1988. She has secured 60%
aggregate marks in B.Com. and 49%
marks in the Selection Process. She
has been working in the Accounts
Department of an organization for
the past three years.
28. Arun Patil has secured 55%
aggregate marks in graduation. He
has been working for past four years
in the Accounts department of
organization. He has secured 50%
marks in the Selection process/ he
was born on 12th July 1988.
29. Prabha Dixit was born on 18th April
1985. She has been working as
Accounts Assistant in an
organization for the past five years.
She has secured 60% aggregate
marks in B.Com. and 55% marks in
the Selection Process.
30. Amul Verma has secured 50%
aggregate marks in B.Com. and 50%
marks in the Selection process. He
has been working in the Accounts
department of an organization for
past four years. He was born on 2nd
January 1987.

31-35. Study the following information
carefully and answer the question
given below:
P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven friends.
Each of them like a particular fruit, viz.
Apple, Banana, Pear, Guava, Orange,
Mango and Watermelon and each of them
has a favourite city, viz. Mumbai, Pune,
Delhi, Kolkata, Chennai, Hyderabad and
Cochin. the choices of fruit and favourite
city of the seven friends are not necessarily
in the same order.
Q likes Mango and his favourite city is
Chennai. The one whose favourite city is
Pune likes Watermelon. T’s favourite city is
Kolkata. R likes Guava and his favourite city
is not Mumbai. W’s favourite city is Cochin
and he does not like either Banana or Pear.
The favourite city of the one who likes
Orange is Hyderabad. T does not like poor.
P’s favourite city is neither Pune nor
Hyderabad. S does not like Watermelon.
31. Who likes Apple?
(1) W (2) T
(3) V (4) P
(5) Data inadequate
32. Which fruit does P like?
(1) Apple (2) Orange
(3) Pear (4) Watermelon
(5) None of these
33. Which is R’s favourite city?
(1) Mumbai (2) Pune
(3) Hyderabad (4) Delhi
(5) None of these
34. Which of the following
combinations of Person-Fruit-City
is incorrect?
(1) R-Guava-Kolkata
(2) V-Watermelon-Hyderabad
(3) T-Banana-Cochin
(4) S-Guava-Delhi
(5) All are incorrect
35. Which is V’s favourite city?
(1) Hyderabad
(2) Pune
(3) Mumbai
(4) Data inadequate
(5)None of these

36-40. In each question below are two
statements followed by two
conclusions numbered I and II.
You have to take the two given
statements to be true even if they
seem to be at variance from known
facts and then decide which of the
given conclusions logically
commonly follows from the given
statements disregarding
commonly known facts.
Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows.
Give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows.
Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or II
follows. Give answer (4) if neither
conclusion I nor II follows. Give answer (5)
if both conclusions I and II follows.
36. Statements : Some gears are
wheels. All
wheels are
brakes.
Conclusions : I. No brake is gear
II. Atleast some
gears are brakes.
37. Statements : No month is a
year. No year is a
second.
Conclusions : I. All months are
seconds.
II. No second is
month.
38. Statements : No plane is hill.
Some hills are
towns.
Conclusions : I. No town is
plane.
II. Some towns are
plane.
39. Statements : All metals are
liquids. All
liquids are gases.
Conclusions : I. All metals are
gases.
II. Atleast some
gases are liquids.
40. Statements : Some cities are
towns. Some
villages are cities.
Conclusions : I. Atleast some
villages are
towns.
II. No village is a
town.

For the question paper , here is the attachment