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22nd July 2014, 01:15 PM
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MHT CET Exam Paper with Solutions
Please provide me solved question paper for Maharashtra common entrance test in a PDF file format ?
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23rd July 2014, 09:50 AM
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Re: MHT CET Exam Paper with Solutions
Here I am giving you solved question paper for Maharashtra common entrance test in a PDF file attached with it so you can get it easily, MHT CET Exam Paper with Solutions 1.Which of the following is not an electro magnetic wave a) x-rays b) alpha-rays c) gamma-rays d) light rays 2.Electro magnetic waves of wave length ranging from 100Åto 4000Å come under a) x-rays b) UV region c) visible region d) infra-red region 3.Electro magnetic theory suggests that the light consists of a) magnetic vector alone b) electric vector alone c) electric and magnetic vectors perpendicular to each other. d) parallel electric and magnetic vector 4.The frequency of radio waves corresponding to a wave length of 10 m is a) 3×107Hz b) 3.3×108Hz c) 3×109Hz d) 3×10−7Hz 5.The electromagnetic waves travel with velocity of a) sound b) light c) greater than that of light d) greater than that of sound 6.The existence of EM waves were experimentally confirmed by a) Maxwell b) Faraday c) Hertz d) Tesla 7.The back emf in a DC motor is maximum when a) the motor has picked up maximum speed b) the motor has just started moving c) the speed of motor is still on increase d) the motor has just been switched off 8.AC measuring instrument measures a) peak value b) rms value c) any value d) average value 9.The Q-factor of a resonant circuit is equal to a) 1CWR b) 1WL c) CWR d) fCW 10.In a step-down transformer, the number of turns in a) Primary are less b) Primary are more c) Primary and secondary equal d) secondary are infinite 11.In AC circuits choke is preferred to resistors because a) choke coil is cheap b) voltage increases c) energy is not wasted d) current increases 12.A choke is used as resistance in a) AC circuits b) DC circuits c) half-wave rectifier circuits d) both AC and DC circuits 13.The frequency of AC mains in India is a) 110 C/S b) 50 C/S c) 60 C/S d) 120 C/S 14.A transformer works on a) DC only b) AC only c) both AC and DC d) high voltage only 15.Alternating voltage a) is independent of time b) varies directly with time c) varies inversely with time d) varies sinusoidaly with time 16.The law of electromagnetic induction have been used in the construction of a) electric operator b) electric motor c) galvanomet d) none of the above 17.Power consumed in an AC circuit become zero if a) inductance and resistance are both high b) inductance and resistance are both low c) inductance very high and resistance negligible d) inductance low and resistance high 18.The rms value of current (Irms) is a) b/2 b) 2Io c) ω d) 2I0 19.In a purely inductive circuit the current a) is in phase with the voltage b) is out of phase with the voltage c) eads the voltage by 900 d) lags behind the voltage by 900 20.A lamp is connected in a series with a capacitor and an ac source, what happens if the capacity of the capacitor is reduced? a) the lamp shines more brightly b) the lamp shines less brightly c) there is no change in the brightness of the lamp d) brightness may increase or decrease depending on the frequency of ac 21.A transformer is a device which converts a) low voltage low current into high voltage high current b) high voltage low current into low voltage high current c) high voltage high current into low voltage low current d) electric power into mechanical power 22.The resonant frequency of an LC circuit is a) 1/2πLC b) 12πLC c) 12πL/C d) 12πC/L 23.If the conductance and capacitance are both doubled in LCR circuit, the resonant frequency of the circuit will a) decrease to one half the original value b) decrease to one-forth the original value c) increase to twice the original value d) decrease to twice the original value 24.The power factor in an LCR circuit at resonance is a) zero b) 1 c) 0.8 d) 1/2 25.The power factor in a circuit is unity. Then the impedance of the circuit is a) inductive b) capertive c) partially inductive and partially conductive d) resistive 26.One complete set of negative and positive values of alternating quantities is called a) time period b) amplitude c) frequency d) cycle 27.The instantaneous value of an ac is given by 1=5sin(wt+φ). The rms value of current is a) SA b) 2×SA c) S/2A d) 2.5A 28.Inductive reactance of a coil expressed as a) Ampere b) ohm c) volt d) weber 29.The average value of alternating current over a complete cycle is a) zero b) 1 rms c) i/2 d) i/2 30.A induction may store energy in a) Its electric field b) Its coils c) Its magnetic field d) Both electric and magnetic fields 31.Two different coils have self inductance 8mH and 2mH. The current in both coils are increased at same constant rate. The ratio of the induced emfs in the coil is a) 4:1 b) 1:4 c) 1:2 d) 2:1 32.A coil of resistance 5Ω and inductance 4H is connected to a 10V battery. The energy stored in the coil a) 0.8J b) 8J c) 16J d) 4J 33.Two coils of self inductance L1and L2are placed close together so that effective flux in one coil is completely linked with the other. If m is the mutual inductance between them, then a) M=L1L2 b) L1L22 c) M=(L1+L2)2 d) M=L1L2 34.The instrument which works on the principle of mutual induction is a) galvanometer b) ammeter c) potentiometer d) transformer 35.What is the self inductance of a coil in which an induced emf of 2V is set up when the current is charged at the rate of 4AS−1 a) 0.5mH b) 0.05H c) 2H d) 0.5H 36.Lenz's Law is a consequence of law of conservation of a) energy only b) charge only c) momentum only d) energy and momentum 37.Two blocks A (20kg) lying on a frictionless table are connected by a light string. The system is pulled horizontally with an acceleration of 2m/s2by a force F on B. The tension in the string is a) 10N b) 40N c) 100N d) 120N 38.A body of mass 2kg collides with a wall with a speed of 100 m/s and rebounds with the same speed. If the time of contact is 150s, the force exerted on the wall is a) 8N b) 2×104N c) 4N d) 104N 39.The mechanical advantage of a system of pulley s is four. The force needed to lift a mass of 100 kg will be a) 20kg. Wt b) 25kg. Wt c) 5kg. Wt d) 15kg. Wt 40.The distance x covered in time t by a body having initial velocity u and having constant acceleration a is given by x=ut+12at2. This result follows from a) Newton's First Law b) Newton's Second Law c) Newton's Third Law d) None of the above 41.A plumb bob is hanging from the ceiling of a car. If the car moves with the acceleration 'a' the angle made by the string with the vertical is a) sin−1(ag) b) sin−1(ga) c) tan−1(ag) d) tan−1(ga) 42.A weight W can be just supported on a rough inclined plane by a force F either acting along the plane or horizontally. If θ is the angle of friction, then F/W is a) tan θ b) sec θ c) sin θ d) cos θ 43.A 1000 kg lift is supported by a cable that can support 2000kg. The shortest distance in which the lift can be supported when it is descending with a speed of 2.5 m/s is (g=10m/s2) a) 5/16m b) 5/32 m c) 1m d) 2m 44.A body is projected up a 450rough incline. The coefficient of friction is 0.5. Then the retardation of the block is a) g/22 b) g/2 c) 3g/22 d) g/2 45.A body takes n times as much time to slide down as 450rough incline as it takes to slide down a smooth 450incline. The coefficient of friction is a) 1−1/n2 b) 1/1−n2 c) 1−1/n2 d) 1/1−n2 46.A ball of mass m is thrown upward with a velocity v. If air exerts an average resisting force F, the velocity with which the ball returns back to the thrower is a) vmgmg+F b) vFmg+F c) vmg−Fmg+F d) vmg+Fmg−F 47.A ball of mass 0.1kg strikes a wall normally with a speed of 30 m/s and rebounds with a speed of 20m/s. The impulse of the force exerted by the wall on the ball is a) 1N-S b) 5N-S c) 2N-S d) 3N-S 48.A body kept on a smooth inclined plane having inclination 1 in x will remain stationary relative to the inclined plane if the plane is given a horizontal acceleration equal to a) g/x2−1 b) gxx2−1 c) x2−1/gx d) x3−1/gx 49.The minimum acceleration with which a fireman can slide down a rope of breaking strength two-third of his weight is a) zero b) g/3 c) 3g d) g 50.An elevator is moving vertically up with an acceleration 'a'. The force exerted on the floor by a passenger of mass m is a) mg b) ma c) mg-ma d) mg+ma MHT CET Exam Paper with Solutions 1. Cells suspended in urine of a normal healthy person will a) Shrink due to loss of water c) Proliferate due to urochrome factors b) Swell, burst and finally die d) Shrink due to proliferation of protoplasm 2. Total no. of cranial nerves that carry sensory impulses are a) 4 pairs c) 7 pairs b) 3 pairs d) 5 pairs 3. A galactogogue is present in a) Flowers of Shatavari c) Leaves of Holy Basil(Tulsi) b) Roots of Asparagus racemosus d) Twigs of neem 4. Which of these as well as their isomers occur in EMP pathway? a) Glucose 6-phosphate c) 2-Phospho glyceric acid b) Dihydroxy acetone phosphate d) All of the above 5. Which of these organs are prominently affected by alcohol? a) Cerebellum c) GIT b) Liver d) All of these 6. Agents which produce allergy are known as a) Antigen c) Allergens b) Oncogenes d) Carcinogens 7. The average length of ovulatory cycle in a human female of reproductive age group is about ___ days. a) 14 c) 42 b) 28 d) 56 8. How many turns of Calvin cycle are required to reduce one molecule of CO2? a) 1 c) 36 b) 6 d) 12 or 18 9. Dry skin is NOT seen in a) Simmond's disease c) Grave's disease b) Gull's disease d) Cretinism 10. DNA fingerprinting technique can be used for a) Identification of genetic disorders such as haemophilia c) Absolute unique identity of people b) Identification of criminals from evidence such as blood, semen, etc. d) All of the above 11. In a case of sexual reproduction in angiosperms, the male plant is hexaploid(6n) and ploidy of female plant is unknown. Which of the below can be the possible ploidy of the primary endosperm nucleus produced in the process? a) 8 c) 11 b) 10 d) Data is insufficient 12. Part of the endoscopy machine that is not inserted into the body. a) Source of light c) Charge couple device(CCD) b) Probe d) Minor surgical instruments 13. Find the odd man. a) Epibiotc species c) Old endemics b) Ecological endemics d) Living fossils 14. Earthworms are put in layer no. ___ of vermibox. a) 2 c) 5 b) 3 d) 6 15. Most abundant type of W.B.C. a) Neutrophils c) Lymphocytes b) Basophils d) Monocytes 16. Example of a fomite. a) Anopheles and Culex mosquito c) Droplet nuclei containing tubercle bacilli b) Water contaminated with Salmonella d) Towels and handerchief of patient 17. Oncogenic viruses are those which cause a) Cirrhosis of liver c) Abortion in pregnancy b) Malignancy d) Slow reflexes 18. RELATED to computers. a) BMR c) CPU b) GFR d) HIV 19. NOT ASSOCIATED with closure of stomata. a) Decrease in osmotic concentration of guard cells c) Outflow of water from guard cells b) Night time d) Increase in pH of guard cells 20. Inarching is a) Whip grafting c) Approach grafting b) Cleft grafting d) Crown grafting ANSWER KEYS AND EXPLANATIONS 1. Cells suspended in urine of a normal healthy person will Ans: a) Shrink due to loss of water Urine is hypertonic compared to the cell. Hence, the cell will lose water by exosmosis and shrink in size. 2. Total no. of cranial nerves that carry sensory impulses are Ans: c) 7 pairs Along with sensory type of nerves, mixed types of cranial nerves also carry sensory impulses. Thus, 3 pairs of sensory and 4 pairs of mixed, total 7 pairs out of 12 total pairs carry sensory impulses. 3. A galactogogue is present in Ans: b) Roots of Asparagus racemosus Galactogogues(or lactogogues) are substances that induce milk production and flow. Roots of Asparagus racemosus are believed to stimulate milk production and flow. 4. Which of these as well as their isomers occur in EMP pathway? Ans: d) All of the above 1. Glucose 6-phosphate : Fructose 6-phosphate 2. DHAP : 3-PGAL 3. 2-PGA : 3-PGA 5. Which of these organs are prominently affected by alcohol? Ans: d) All of these 1. Alcohol affects cerebellum and causes incoordination of body movements 2. Alcohol causes fatty liver disease in early stages and cirrhosis in late stages 3. Alcohol causes inflammation of the mucosal lining of the GIT. This results in malabsorption and nutritional deficiencies. 6. Agents which produce allergy are known as Ans: c) Allergens - Antigen = substance that can evoke immune response. - Oncogenes = mutated genes that lead to cancer. - Allergens = antigens that produce allergy. Ex: pollen grains, dust, drugs, etc. - Carcinogens are substances capable of producing cancer. They produce mutations in normal genes and convert them into oncogenes. Ex: radiations, alcohol, tar, benzopyrene, etc. 7. The average length of ovulatory cycle in a human female of reproductive age group is about ___ days. Ans: d) 56 The average of menstrual cycle is about 28 days, while that of an ovulatory cycle is about 56 days. This is because each ovary releases the ovum alternatively. 8. How many turns of Calvin cycle are required to reduce one molecule of CO2? Ans: a) 1 Cavin cycle(C3 cycle) reduces 1 CO2 molecule per turn. NB: Glucose is a 6C sugar. Thus, 6 CO2 must be reduced, or in other words, 6 turns are required for the formation of 1 glucose. 9. Dry skin is NOT seen in Ans: c) Grave's disease - Simmond's disease is hyposecretion of GH in adults. Skin is dry and wrinkled. - Gull's disease is myxoedema or hyposecretion of thyroxine in adults. Skin is dry, thick, puffy, cold, and shows loss of hair. 10. DNA fingerprinting technique can be used for Ans: b) Identification of criminals from evidence such as blood, semen, etc. DNA fingerprinting technique CANNOT be used for identification of genetic disorders and establishing unique identity of people. Reasons for them being: 1. Genetic disorders like haemophilia, black urine disease, etc. result from mutations in the coding regions of the DNA(euchromatin). However, DNA fringerprinting is based upon VNTRs which are not present in these regions. 2. People with the same genetic constitutions such as monozygotic(identical) twins have the exactly same DNA, including VNTRs. Therefore the DNA profile of identical twins will be same even though they are two different persons. [However, DNA profile of dizygotic(fraternal) twins will not be similar]. 11. In a case of sexual reproduction in angiosperms, the male plant is hexaploid(6n) and ploidy of female plant is unknown. Which of the below can be the possible ploidy of the primary endosperm nucleus produced in the process? Ans: c) 11 After studying the process of gamete formation and double fertilization in angiosperms, one can come to the following conclusions: 1. Ploidy of PEN = (Half of male parent ploidy) + ploidy of secondary nucleus. 2. Ploidy of secondary nucleus is always an even no., and never an odd no. Thus, after substituting given information: Ploidy of PEN = 3 + An even no, or we can say: (PEN - 3) should be equal to some even no. Substituting values of (a), (b) and (c) in above equation, options (a) and (b) return values 5 and 7 respectively which are not even nos. However, option (c) returns 8 which is an even no. 12. Part of the endoscopy machine that is not inserted into the body. Ans: a) Source of light For endoscopy, - The light is obtained from a cold source located outside the body. - The light is transmitted to the site of examination by the optical fibres running through the probe. - Charge couple device(CDD) is present at the tip of the tube. It acts like a video camera. It converts the reflected light into electric signals and sends them to the video monitor on which the internal view is displayed in real-time. - Minor surgical instruments can be fitted to extra attachments provided at the tip of the probe. 13. Find the odd man. Ans: b) Ecological endemics Options (a), (c) and (d) mean the same - relic endemics. Ecological endemics are paleo endemics. 14. Earthworms are put in layer no. ___ of vermibox. Ans: b) 3 Earthworms are setup into third layer of the vermibox along with dry crop residue. There are total 7 layers, nunbered 1 - 7 from bottom to top. 15. Most abundant type of W.B.C. Ans: a) Neutrophils - Neutrophils comprise about 65 - 70% of white blood cells. - Lymphocytes = 28 - 30% - Eosinophils = 3% - Monocytes = 1 - 3% - Basophils = only 0.5% [Most scarce type] 16. Example of a fomite. Ans: d) Towels and handerchief of patient Fomites are inanimate(non-living) atricles that are contaminated by the handling of the patient. They are capable of harbouring and transmitting the pathogens to other people who handle. Other examples of fomites are soap, objects, door handles, utensils, etc. 17. Oncogenic viruses are those which cause Ans: b) Malignancy Oncogenic viruses are those which cause cancer or malignancy. Ex: Cancer of the cervix(part of uterus) is mostly caused by Human Papilloma Virus(HPV). 18. RELATED to computers. Ans: c) CPU BMR = Basal Metabolic Rate; GFR = Glomerular Filtration Rate, HIV = Human Immunodeficiency Virus. 20. Inarching is Ans: c) Approach grafting - Whip grafting is also known as tongue grafting. - Cleft grafting is a.k.a. wedge grafting. - Inarching is a.k.a. approach grafting. |
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