2023 2024 Student Forum > Management Forum > Main Forum

 
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6th December 2014, 03:16 PM
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Join Date: Apr 2013
Re: Merchant Navy after Graduation

After completing Bachelor of Technology you can apply for Merchant Navy job. The streams like Mechanical, Electronics and Communication, Electrical and Electronics, Civil, CSE, IT can apply for the post of Merchant Navy. As you are of ECE stream you can apply for Merchant Navy posts.

You can apply for the post of Short Service Commissioned Officer in Navy. One’s age should be between 19-25 years only for the post

You can apply for the post of Technical Officer in Navy for the post, one should have scored minimum 60% in your B.Tech

You can apply for the CDS EXAM (Combined Defence Service Exam). The exam is conduct by Union Public Service Commission 2 times in every year

The selection process is,
1) Written exam
2) Personnel Interview
3) Medical test

The Exam Syllabus is
1) General English
2) General Knowledge
3) Elementary Maths

Eligibility Criteria;
* You must be an Indian
* You must pass 4 years engineering degree for Engineer Officers and other related field officers or Engineers.
* You must be unmarried male candidate.

Physical Requirements;
* You must be physically and mentally fit.
* Your height must be 163cm or above
* Chest should be 86cm.
* Eyesight 6/6 without color blindness

Question Paper
Q1 Who among the following was the chairman of the drafting committee of the Indian Constitution?

a) Rajendra Prasad

b) Tej Bahadur Sapru

c) C Rajagopalachari

d) BR Ambedkar
[CDSE 1992]

Answer: (d)

Q2 Who among the following was the constitutional adviser to the constituent assembly of India?

a) Dr B N Rao

b) Dr B R Ambedkar

c) K M Munshi

d) M C Setalvad
[CDSE 1995]

Answer: (a)

Q3 Who among the following was not a member of the Constituent Assembly?

a) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel

b) Acharya JB Kriplani

c) Lok Nayak Jay Prakash Narayan

d) KM Munshi
[CDSE 2009]

Answer: (c)

Q4 Which among the following is/are the feature(s) of a Federal State?

1. The powers of the central and the state (Constituent Unit) governments are clearly laid down.

2. It has an unwritten constitution.

Select the correct answers using codes given below:

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2
[NDA 2008]

Answer: (a)

Q5 Who was the first foreign minister of free India?

a) Jawahar Lal Nehru

b) Gulzari Lal Nanda

c) Lal Bahadur Shastri

d) John Mathai
[NDA 2008]

Answer: (a)

Q6 Who among the following moved the objectives resolution which formed the basis of the Preamble of the Constitution of India in the Constituent Assemble on December 13, 1946?

a) Dr B R Ambedkar

b) Dr Rajendra Prasad

c) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel

d) Pt Jawahar Lal Nehru
[CDSE 2009]

Answer: (d)

Q7 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Provision of the Constitution of India

A) Amendment of the Constitution

B) Directive Principles

C) Emergency Power of the President

D) The Union – State Relationship

Source

1 Constitution of Germany

2 Constitution of Canada

3 Constitution of South Africa

4 Irish Constitution

a) A – 1, B – 2, C – 4, D – 3

b) A – 3, B – 4, C – 1, D – 2

c) A – 1, B – 4, C – 2, D – 3

d) A – 3, B – 1, C – 4, D – 2
[CDSE 2009]

Answer: (b)

Q8 Which of the following Statements is/are correct:

Article 26 of the Constitution of India states that subject to public order, morality and health, any religious domination or any section there of shall have the right

1 to establish and maintain the institutions for religious and charitable purposes

2 to manage its own affairs in matters of religion

3 to own and acquire movable and immovable property

a) 1 Only

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) 1, 2 and 3
[CDSE 2008]

Answer: (d)

Q9 The theory of Fundamental Rights implies:

a) Sovereignty of people

b) equality of opportunity for all

c) limited government

d) Equality of all before law
[NDA 1992]

Answer: (c)

Q10 Consider the following statements:

I A person who was born in 26 January, 1951 in Rangoon, whose father was a citizen of India by birth at the time of his birth is deemed to be the citizen of India by Descent.

II A person who was born on 1st July, 1988 in Itanagar, whose mother is citizen of India at the time of his birth but the father was not, is deemed to be a citizen of India by birth.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) I only

b) II only

c) Both I and II

d) Neither I nor II
[CDSE 2009]

Answer: (c)

Q11 According to Article 164 (1) of the Constitution of India, in three states there shall be a minister in charge of tribal affairs who may in addition be in charge of the welfare of the scheduled castes and backward classes. Which one of the following states is not covered by the Article?

a) Jharkhand

b) Punjab

c) Madhya Pradesh

d) Orissa
[CDSE 2009]

Answer: (b)

Q12 Article 340 of the Constitution of India provides for the appointment of a Commission to investigate the conditions for the improvement of:

a) Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes

b) Socially and Educationally Backward Classes

c) Socially and Economically Backward Classes

d) Educationally and Economically Backward Classes
[CDSE 2004]

Answer: (a)

Q13 Who administers the Oath of Office to the President?

a) Chief Justice of India

b) Speaker of Lok Sabha

c) Prime Minister

d) Vice president

Answer: (a)

Q14 Consider the following Vice president of India:

1. V. V. Giri

2. M. Hidayatullah

3. B. D. Jatti

4. G. S. Pathak

Which one of the following is the correct chronology of their tenures?

a) 1 – 4 – 3 – 2

b) 2 – 1 – 3 – 4

c) 3 – 2 – 1 – 4

d) 4 – 1 – 3 – 2
[CDSE 2009]

Answer: (a)

Q15 With reference to the presidential election in India, consider the following statements:

1 The nomination paper of a candidate for the presidential election should be signed by at least 50 electors as proposers and another 50 as seconders.

2 The prescribed security deposit in the presidential election is Rupees 25, 000

Which of these statements is are correct?

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2
[CDSE 2004]

Answer: (a)

Q16 Who among the following Indian prime Ministers could not vote for himself during the ‘Vote of Confidence’ that he was seeking from the Lok Sabha?

a) V. P. Singh

b) P. V. NaraSimha Rao

c) Chandra Shekhar

d) Manmohan Singh
[CDSE 2009]

Answer: (d)

Q17 According to the constitution of India the maximum number of members representing the Union Territories in the Lok Sabha cannot exceed:

a) 10

b) 15

c) 20

d) 25
[CDSE 1992]

Answer: (c)

Q18 Which one of the following is the largest committee of the Parliament?

a) The Public Accounts Committee

b) The Estimates Committee

c) The Committee on Public Undertakings

d) The Committee on Petitions
[CDSE 2009]

Answer: (b)

Q19 The Constitution of India Does not mentions the post of:

a) The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

b) The Deputy Prime Minister

c) The Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha

d) The Deputy Speaker of the State Legislative Assemblies
[CDSE 1994]

Answer: (b)

Q20 Consider the following Statements:

1 A Bill pending in the legislature of three States shall not lapse by the reason of the Prorogation of the House or Houses thereof.

2 A bill pending in the legislative council of a state which has not been passed by the legislative assembly shall not lapse on the dissolution of the assembly.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2
[NDA 2008]

Answer: (c)

Q21 Consider the following Statements:

1 Salary and allowances for the Speaker of the Lok Sabha are charged on the consolidated fund of India.

2 In the warrant of precedence, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha ranks higher than all the Union Cabinet Ministers other than Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2
[NDA 2008]

Answer: (c)

Q22 Consider the following statements on parliamentary committees:

1 Members of Rajya Sabha are not associated with the committees on Public accounts and Public Undertakings.

2 Members of the committee on Estimates are drawn from both the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2
[CDSE 2008]

Answer: (d)

Q23 Under which of the following conditions the security deposit of a candidate contesting for a Lok Sabha seat is returned to him/her?

I The nomination made by the candidate is found to be invalid.

II The candidate has withdrawn his/her nomination even though it is found valid.

III The candidate lost the polls but secured 1/6th of the total number of valid votes polled in that election.

Select the correct answers using the codes given below:

a) I and II

b) I, II and III

c) II and III

d) I only
[CDSE 2009]

Answer: (a)

Q24 Identify the correct sequence of passing a budget in the Parliament:

a) Vote on Account – Finance Bill – Appropriation Bill – Discussion on Budget

b) Finance Bill – Appropriation Bill – Discussion on Budget – Vote on Accounts

c) Discussion on Budget – Vote on Accounts – Finance Bill – Appropriation Bill

d) Discussion on Budget – Appropriation Bill – Finance Bill – Vote on Accounts
[CDSE 2009]

Answer: (d)

Q25 The quorum for the join sitting of the Indian Parliament is:

a) 1/12th of the total members of the house.

b) 1/6th of the total members of the house.

c) 1/10th of the total members of the house.

d) 2/3rd of the total members of the house.
[CDSE 2009]

Answer: (c)


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