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6th December 2014, 04:20 PM
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Re: Manipal PG Entrance exam Question Papers

Here is the Manipal PG Entrance exam Question Paper which you need
Manipal PG Entrance exam Question Papers
1. Which of the following is the remnant of the transverse obliterated ligament
a. Flexor pollicis longus
b. Flexor carpi ulnaris
c. Flexor carpi radialis
d. Flexor digitorum sublimes
2. The failure of degeneration of the the part of aorta from the 4th arch to the segmental artery is
a. Double arch of aorta
b. Patent ductus arteriosus
c. Coarctation of aorta
d. Hypoplastic aorta
3. Bunion is
a. Exostosis of the base of the 1st metatarsal bone
b. Bursa at the base of the metatarsal bone
c. Inflamed adventitial bursa at the base of the 1st metatarsal bone
d. Exostosis at the head of the 1st metatarsal bone
4. Unexpectedly increase in diffusing capacity is found in
a. Cystic fibrosis
b. Pulmonary heamorrage
c. Bronchitis
d. Bronchiectasis
5. The adenylate cyclase is found is associated with
a. cAMP
b. Phosphodiesterase
c. GTP regulating proteins
d. Nuclear receptors
6. AMP activates which of the following
a. Phosphofructokinase I
b. Pyruvate kinase
c. Phosphoglucomutase
d. Hexokinase
7. Packed cells are formed by
a. Filtration
b. Centrifugation
c. Precipitation
d. Sedimentation
8. The sequence in respiratory chain in the mitochondria is
a. c-c1-b-a-a3
b. c1-c-b-b1-a3-a
c. b-c1-c-a3-a
d. a-a3-b-c-c1
9. The riders bone is due to calcification of which of the following bones
a. Adductor longus
b. Adductor magnus
c. Popliteus
d. Vastus lateralis


10. Brush burns refers to
a. Injury due to friction
b. Injury due to electrocution
c. Injury due to steam
d. None of the above
11. Erythema ab igne
a. Is due to excessive heat
b. Due to excessive cold
c. Due to increased friction
d. None of the above
12. The main controlling agent for respiratory drive is
a. Co2
b. Oxygen
c. No
d. Hbo3
13. The left to right shunt is seen in all of the following except
a. PDA
b. VSD
c. ASD
d. TGA
14. Digoxin is used in which of the following conditions
a. Atrial ectopics
b. Flutter with 2:1 block
c. Ventricular tachyarrhythmia
d. Ventricular bigeminy
15. Digoxin toxicity can be recognized when there is
a. QT interval is shortened
b. Ventricular bigeminy
c. Atrial flutter
d. Mobitz II degree heart block
16. The duration of the depolarisation of the heart from the SA node to the AV node is reflected on the ECG by
a. QT interval
b. PR interval
c. RS interval
d. RR interval
17. An adult female presented with thickening of base of nail plate of all the fingers .The most likely cause for her condition would be
a. Lead poisoning
b. Psoriasis
c. Lichen Planus
d. Pemphigus
18. A 13 year old boy presented with a 6 year old lesion over his buttock.On examination the lesion showed scarring at one side and also there was puckering of the overlying skin. The lesion is most likely to be
a. Tuberculous Chancre
b. Lupus vulgaris
c. Scofuloderma
d. None of the above

19. The most common cause of intestinal obstruction in an adult is
a. Diverticula
b. Adhesions
c. Trichobezoar
d. Volvulus
20. In pheochromocytoma there is increased level of
a. Serum HMA
b. Serum bradykinin
c. Urinary VMA
d. All of the above
21. In Werdnig Hoffman’s disease the lesion is at
a. Posterior horn cell
b. Anterior horn cell
c. Peripheral nerve
d. Motor end plate
22. Neonatal seizures with best prognosis is seen
a. Hypoglycemia
b. Late onset hypocalcemia
c. Hypoxia
d. Kernicterus
23. In a 30 year old patient presenting at 38weeks gestation with increased reflexes and hypertension and pedal edema all of the following can be seen except
a. Hypocalcemia
b. Increased platelets
c. Increased uric acid levels
d. Increased creatine levels
24. In toxic shock syndrome all of the following can be seen except
a. Shock
b. Fever
c. Hypercalcemia
d. Rash
25. Muscle crossing both shoulder and elbow joint is
a. Corochobrachialis
b. Medial head of triceps
c. Biceps bracii
d. Brachilais
26. The main bone of the nasal septum is
a. Vomer
b. Nasal bones
c. Maxillary bone
d. None of the above
27. All of the following open in the middle meatus except
a. Anterior ethmoidal sinus
b. Nasolacrimal duct
c. Maxillary sinus
d. Frontal sinus
28. Deep peronial nerve supplies all of the following except
a. Tibialis anterior
b. Extensor Hallusis longus
c. Extensor digitorum longus
d. Peroneus brevis


29. Which of the following structures enter through the greater sciatic notch and leave through the lessor notch
a. Obturator nerve
b. Pudendal artery
c. Femoral vessels
d. Lesser sciatic nerve
30. The sacrotuberous ligament represents the origin of
a. Gluteus Maximus
b. Semimembrabus
c. Medial head of biceps femoris
d. Sacrospinus lig
31. Ventral hernia includes
a. Obturator hernia
b. Incisinal hernia
c. Femoral hernia
d. Indirect inguinal hernia
32. Strangulated hernia is commonly seen in which of the following
a. Direct inguinal hernia
b. Indirect inguinal hernia
c. Femoral hernia
d. Obturator hernia
33. In a child who presented with twitching movements of the face and the upper extremities ,most probably has lesion involving
a. Precentral gyrus
b. Post central gyrus
c. Caudate nucleus
d. Frontal lobe
34. The root values of the pudendal nerve is
a. S1,2,3
b. S4
c. L1,2,3
d. L2,3,4
35. In a patient with thyroid surgery the block to be given is at the
a. Stellate ganglion
b. Upper cervical ganglion
c. Dorsal sympathetic ganglia
d. Any of the above
36. The stellate ganglion block would cause which of the following
a. Myosis
b. Flushing of skin
c. Ptosis
d. All of the above
37. The muscle arising from the scaphoid fossa is
a. Tensor tympani
b. Levator pelatii
c. Stylopharyngeus
d. Tensor palitii
38. EB virus belongs to which virus
a. Retro virus
b. Herpes virus
c. RNA virus
d. Pox virus

39. Butchers thigh would refer to
a. Lipodystrophy of subcutaneous tissue
b. Section of femoral vessels during boning
c. Rupture of vastus lateralis
d. Fracture of femur
40. The abnormal deposition of calcium pyro phosphate dyhydrate crystals(CPPD) would cause all of the following except
a. Pseudogout
b. Pseudoosteoarthritis
c. Pseudorheumatoid arthritis
d. Pseudoankylosing spondylitis
41. All of the following procedures can be done in osteoarthrosis except
a. Synovectomy
b. Osteotomy
c. Arthrodesis
42. 1st change in TB spine is
a. Erosion of pedicle
b. Narrowing of disc space
c. Abcess with soft tissue swelling
d. Disc collapse
43. LeFort’s fracture would include all of the following except
a. Maxilla
b. Mandible
c. Zygoma
d. Nasal bones
44. An infant was brought with history of running nose ,fever ,myalgia. There were also similar complaints seen in 3 other family members. Over the last 8 hours the infant has developed wheeze hyperexpansion of chest with difficulty in breathing ,but there were no rales on examination. The likely diagnosis is
a. Viral croup
b. Epiglotitis
c. Bronchiolitis
d. Bronchiectasis
45. On examination of a specimen the lung showed exudation of inflammatory cells with displacement of air .This is a pathologic feature of
a. Bronciectasis
b. Bronchial asthma
c. Lobar pneumonia
d. Bronchitis
46. At the end of a 48 hours fast the substance likely to be involved in the formation of blood glucose would be
a. Muscle glycogen
b. Liver glycogen
c. Aminoacid
d. Acetoacetate
47. The test commonly used to follow up patients to check for response of treatment in syphilis is
a. FTAbs
b. VDRL
c. Microheamglutination
d. TPI

48. In brain the breakdown of L-DOPA is prevented by
a. Deprinyl
b. Pyridoxine
c. Haloperidol
d. Bromocriptine
49. Selective reuptake inhibitor of serotonin but not norepinephrine is by
a. Protryptiline
b. Flouxetine
c. Meprotriline
d. Amytrptiline
50. Presence of sensation without the presence of a stimuli would refer to
a. Delusion
b. Hallucination
c. Illusion
d. Projection
51. Spider leg appearance is seen in
a. Polycystic kidneys
b. Horse shoe kidney
c. Angiomyolipoma’s
d. Renal TB
52. PQLI would include all of the following except
a. IMR
b. MMR
c. Life expectancy at 1 year
d. Literacy rate
53. The treatment of choice in otosclerosis is
a. NaF
b. Stapedectomy
c. Cochlear implant
d. Antibiotics
54. The response to iron administration would be earliest seen by
a. Increased TIBC
b. Increased haemoglobin
c. Reticulocytosis
d. Increased hematocrit
55. Which of the following is true in the nitrogen metabolism
a. Ammonia is the most important nitrogen containing substance in urine
b. There is breakdown and resynthesis of 56 gms of protein everyday
c. The enzymes aminotransferase and glutamate dehydrogenase are the main enzymes in the formation of urea
d. Excess of aminoacid are used in the synthesis of proteins
56. Methyl trap which occurs due to vitamin B12 deficiency would be due to
a. Methionine metabolism is decreased
b. Conversion of glutamyl coA to Succinyl coA
c. Conversion of methyl coA to succinyl coA

57. RNA is extracted through which of the following
a. Northern blot
b. Southern blot
c. Eastern blot
d. Western blot
58. X linked inheritance is seen in all of the following except
a. Fabry’s disease
b. G6PD deficiency
c. Myotonic dystrophy
d. Heamophilia A
59. All of the following are true about ZES except
a. Multiple ulcers may be seen
b. Ulcers at unusual places may be seen
c. Gastrin level is increased
d. Urease breath test is positive
60. In a 40 year patient there was pleural fluid .Analysis of this fluid showed a protein ratio of 0.38 and a LDH level of 125 U/L and LDH ratio of pleural fluid to serum of 0.48. The most probable diagnosis is
a. Ureamia
b. Congestive cardiac failure
c. Sarcoidosis
d. Pulmonary embolism
61. Horner Trantas spots are seen in which of the following
a. Trachoma
b. Vernal Cataarh
c. Disciform keratitis
d. Fungal infection
62. Cromolyn’s are used in the treatment of Asthma to prevent recurrecnces. The mechanism of action is by
a. Leukotreine antagonist
b. Beta 2 agonist
c. Mast cell stabilizer
d. Inhibits neutrophils
63. Corneal guttata is seen
a. Fuch’s endothelial dystrophy
b. Senile endothelial dystrophy
c. Secondary endothelial dystrophy
64. Vitamin D deficiency is associated with which of the following
a. Anterior capsular cataract
b. Posterior capsular cataract
c. Zonular cataract
d. Nuclear cataract
65. Most unstable vaccine is
a. OPV
b. BCG
c. DPT
d. Measles
66. Addition of detergent which causes disruption of phospholipid membrane in all of the following except
a. Polio virus
b. Vaccinia
c. Variola
d. Eastern equine encephalitis virus

67. Anterior uveitis is seen in which of the following
a. Rheumatoid arthritis
b. Ankylosing spondylitis
c. HLA B27
d. All of the above
68. All of the following are dimorphic fungi except
a. Blastomycosis
b. Candida
c. Coccidiodomycosis
d. Histoplasmosis
69. Which of the following is true about IV administration of gamma globulin
a. Should be given slow IV because it induces anticomplementary activity
b. Can be safely given in IgA deficiency
c. Known to cause AIDS
d. Large doses in ITP cause remission
70. Aschoff nodules are seen in
a. Rheumatoid arthritis
b. Rheumatic fever
c. SLE
d. Sjogren’s syndrome
71. Raynouds phenomenon is seen in all of the following except
a. Scleroderma
b. Beurgers disease
c. Thoraxic outlet syndrome
d. Vibratory tool users
72. Heamorhagic cystitis is seen in use of
a. Adriamycin
b. Cyclophosphamide
c. Bleomycin
d. Busulphan
73. Cardiac toxicity is seen most in
a. Bleomycin
b. Adriamycin
c. Methotrexate
d. Busulphan
74. Hepar lobatum is associated with
a. Hepatitis A
b. Syphillis
c. Yellow fever hepatitis
d. Dengue
75. All of the following arise from the ovum except
a. Teratoma
b. Struma ovarii
c. Krukenberg’s
d. Dysgerminoma
76. Endometrial hyperplasia is seen to be associated with
a. Cystic terratoma
b. Endodermal tumor
c. PCOD
d. Sertoli leydig cell tumor
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