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25th July 2014, 02:42 PM
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Maharashtra State Eligibility Test for Lectureship Commerce last year question papers

Will you please share with me the Maharashtra State Eligibility Test for Lectureship Commerce last year question papers?
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  #2  
25th July 2014, 03:08 PM
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Re: Maharashtra State Eligibility Test for Lectureship Commerce last year question pa

As you want to get the Maharashtra State Eligibility Test for Lectureship Commerce last year question papers so here it is for you:

Some content of the file has been given here:

1. Match the pairs and select the
correct answer from the codes given
below :
List I
(a) Resource availability
(b) Status of technological
Advancement
(c) Regulatory Framework
(d) Values and Ethics of People
List II
(i) Technological Environment
(ii) Legal Environment
(iii) Cultural Environment
(iv) Natural Environment
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(B) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(C) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
2. The external stakeholders of
business include :
(A) Politicians, social activist,
shareholders, dealers
(B) Govt. organisations, NGO,
Dealers and Suppliers
(C) Bankers, Suppliers, Investors,
Dealers
(D) Dealers, Bankers, Investors,
Consultants
3. Which of the following agency
enables the company as well as the
public to evaluate the social
performance of the company ?
(A) Performance Audit
(B) Social Audit
(C) Social Accounting
(D) Social Evaluatory Audit
4. ................................. is a social
movement seeking to augment the
rights and powers of the buyers in
relation to sellers.
(A) Consumer protection
(B) Consumerism
(C) Consumer activism
(D) Consumer empowerment

5. Which of the following is not
a basic objective of a public
enterprise ?
(A) To redistribute of income and
wealth
(B) Import substitution
(C) To earn return on investment
of government funds
(D) To protect natural and social
environment
6. Which one of the following
accounting treatment is correct,
when old machinery is purchased for
` 76,400 and rings and pistons of the
old machine were changed to get fuel
efficiency, worth ` 3,600.
(A) Capital expenditure ` 76,400
and Revenue Expenditure
` 3,600
(B) Capital Expenditure ` 76,400
and Deferred Revenue
Expenditure ` 3,600
(C) Capital Expenditure ` 80,000
(D) Deferred Revenue Expenditure
` 80,000

7. Match the following phrases with
the descriptions of the accounting
processing cycle and choose the
correct answer from the codes given
below :
List I
(Phrases)
(a) Transaction Analysis
(b) Trial Balance
(c) Financial Statement
(d) Posting
List II
(Descriptions)
(i) Income statement and position
statement
(ii) A chronological record is
prepared that reflects the
economic effects of each
transaction
(iii) Transfer of amount for each
account affected by the
transaction, results in a
reclassification of the data
(iv) A listing of each account and
its debit or crediting ending
balance
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(B) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(C) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(D) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

8. Responsibility Accounting is
one of the basic components of a
good ......................... .
(A) Plan
(B) Control system
(C) Incentive scheme
(D) Motivating instrument
9. The entity postulate ....................... .
(A) refers to the name of the
company required in the
heading of the balance-sheet
(B) refers to the owners of the
entity, who must account for
their interest in the entity in
their personal holdings
(C) indicates that the accounting
unit on which the financial
reports are based is the
business itself, separate from its
owners
(D) holds that the business is made
up of many separate
components that are accounted
for separately but reported
collectively in the financial
statements

10. In Break-even Chart, the Break-
even point is the intersection of the
following two lines :
(A) Variable Cost Line and Fixed
Cost Line
(B) Total Cost Line and Sales
Line
(C) Sales Line and Marginal Cost
Line
(D) Fixed Cost Line and Sales
Line
11. Business Economics is :
(A) Applied Economics
(B) Only Static Economics
(C) Only Financial Economics
(D) Only Dynamic Economics
12. Risk and Uncertainty theory of
Profit was developed by :
(A) Marshall and Pigou
(B) Hawley and Knight
(C) J.B. Clark and J. Schumpeter
(D) McNair and Meriam
13. The income elasticity of demand for
inferior goods is :
(A) Negative
(B) Positive
(C) Zero
(D) Unitary

14. For the demand equation
P = 1000 – 4q, the marginal revenue
equation is :
(A) 1000q – 4q2
(B) 1000q – 8q2
(C) 1000q – 8q
(D) – 8q
15. The law of equi-marginal utility
states that :
(A) MUx.Px = MUy.Py = MUz.Pz
(B)
MU MU MU
MU
P P P
y x z
m
x y z
> > >
(C)
MU MU MU
MU
P P P
y x z
m
x y z
< < <
(D)
MU MU MU
MU
P P P
y x z
m
x y z
= = =
16. The difference between the
population parameter and its
estimate based on sample is called
as ............................. .
(A) Human error
(B) Population error
(C) Sampling error
(D) Non-sampling error

17. If each observation is doubled,
then the coefficient variation
will .......................... .
(A) not be changed
(B) be doubled
(C) be decreased to half of the
original
(D) be increased by 2
18. The regression lines are given by
3
3
2
x y −
5
2
8
y x ,
then the correlation coefficient
between x and y is .................... .
(A)
15
16
(B)
16
15
(C)
4
5
(D)
5
4


19. A sample of 100 observations
from normal distribution with mean
μ and variance 9, has mean 4.7.
The value of test statistic to test
H0 : μ = 5 is ............................. .
(A) 1
(B) 3.75
(C) –1
(D) –28.75
20. If P(A) =
1
3
, P(B) =
3
4
and
P(A ∩ B) =
1
12
, then P(A ∪ B)
= ................................ .
(A) 1
(B)
1
3
(C)
11
12
(D)
10
12

21. (I) A manager’s job is vital to
the society as it determines
whether our social institution
serve well or not.
(II) It is essential to study the
different parts of managerial
role as it decides the type and
nature of performance of an
organisation.
Based on the above two
statements following four
conclusions are derived, identify
which one is appropriate :
(A) A manager performs useful
work
(B) Social and organisational
success depends on the
performance of manager
(C) Manager do what people expect
them to do
(D) Different organisations require
different types of managerial
role
22. Which of the following is an essential
ability of a team leader ?
(A) Clarify goals and tasks and
gather ideas for improvement
(B) Work out a good scheme
(C) Identify faults in the scheme
(D) Eliminate the obstacles in the
planning process

23. .............................. is the function of a
line manager.
(A) Use special technical expertise
to advice and support
(B) To act as a manager in public
or non-profit organisation
(C) To be responsible for complex
multifunctional units
(D) Directly contribute to the
production of basic goods and
services
24. The four important functions of
management process are ........... .
(A) Planning, Controlling,
Organising and Leading
(B) Planning, Scheduling,
Budgeting, Decision-making
(C) Planning, Motivating, Directing
and Performance appraisal
(D) Scheduling, Idea generation,
Controlling and Organising
25. Arrange the needs as per Maslow’s
need hierarchy in correct order :
(A) Social needs—Safety needs—
Esteem needs—Psychological
needs
(B) Safety needs—Esteem needs—Self
actualisation needs—
Psychological needs
(C) Psychological needs—Social
needs—Esteem needs—Self
actualisation needs
(D) Social needs—Psychological
needs—Esteem needs—Self
actualisation needs

26. The term ‘marketing’ refers to :
(A) New product concepts and
improvements
(B) Advertising and promotion
activities
(C) A philosophy that stresses
customer value and satisfaction
(D) Planning sales campaign
27. The term “marketing mix”
describes :
(A) A composite analysis of all
environmental factors inside
and outside the firm
(B) A series of business decisions
that aid in selling a product
(C) A relationship between a firm’s
marketing strengths and its
business weaknesses
(D) A blending of four strategic
elements to satisfy specific
target markets

28. Why do business spend a large
amount on advertising and
promotion when the product is in its
introduction stage ?
(A) Because that is the time when
the product is very profitable
(B) To ensure customers have the
correct information about the
product
(C) So that it can save the money
for advertising at all the other
stages of the life cycle
(D) To ensure that potential
customers become aware of the
new product
29. The concept of “Marketing Myopia”
was introduced by :
(A) E.J. McCarthy
(B) Theodore Levitt
(C) Philip Kotler
(D) W.J. Stanton
30. Which one of the following is an
example of non-store retailing ?
(A) Limited Line stores
(B) Super Markets
(C) Tele Marketing
(D) Discount stores

31. Which of the following is not an
assumption of the MM theory for
irrelevance of dividends ?
(A) Irrational investors
(B) No tax discrimination on capital
gains and dividends
(C) No transaction costs
(D) No flotation costs
32. The only viable goal of financial
management is ........................... .
(A) Profit maximization
(B) Wealth maximization
(C) Sales maximization
(D) Assets maximization
33. According to ............................., cost of
capital is the minimum required
rate of earnings or the cut-off rate
of capital expenditure.
(A) Hunt, William and Donaldson
(B) James C Van Horne
(C) Soloman Ezra
(D) Hampton, John

34. A motive for holding cash/near-
cash as a cushion to meet
contingencies/demand for cash, is
termed as ......................... .
(A) Precautionary motive
(B) Transaction motive
(C) Speculative motive
(D) Compensating motive
35. The data requirement for ....................
are after tax cash outflows and cash
inflows.
(A) Cash flow statement
(B) Fund flow statement
(C) Capital budgeting
(D) Flexible budgeting
36. Job analysis can be performed in all
of the following ways, except :
(A) Interviews conducted with
departing employees
(B) Analysing log books
(C) Observing hourly workers
(D) Giving workers checklist to
indicate which tasks on the list
are performed during the job

37. Under the Factories Act no worker
is permitted to work for more than
............................ hours in a day.
(A) 8
(B) 9
(C) 10
(D) 24
38. Which method of performance
appraisal makes use of critical
incidents to prepare rating scales ?
(A) Assessment centre
(B) Peer appraisal
(C) Self appraisal
(D) BARS
39. A progressive system of discipline
does not include this :
(A) Warning
(B) Discharge
(C) Slowdown
(D) Suspension

40. Who introduced the concept of
quality circles in India ?
(A) P.V. Rao
(B) Udai Pareek
(C) Dharani P. Sinha
(D) S.R. Udpa
41. Which one of the following is likely
to help in remedying an adverse
balance of payment ?
(A) Revaluation of currency
(B) Devaluation of currency
(C) Reduction in income taxes
(D) Reduction in excise duty
42. Balance of payment is an application
of ................................ .
(A) Single entry book-keeping
(B) Double entry book-keeping
(C) Either (A) or (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)

43. Absolute Cost Advantage Theory
was propounded by ....................... .
(A) Adam Smith
(B) Ricardo
(C) Malthus
(D) Marshall
44. Globalisation of financial services is
being promoted by :
(A) World Trade Organisation
(B) International Finance
Corporation
(C) International Bank for
Reconstruction and
Development
(D) International Monetary Fund
45. In which year was the EXIM Bank
established ?
(A) 1983
(B) 1984
(C) 1982
(D) 1985

46. Comparative cost advantage
proposition in international trade
was propounded by :
(A) Adam Smith
(B) D. Ricardo
(C) J.A. Frankel
(D) J.M. Fleming
47. The item labelled ‘interest, profit
and dividends’ is included
in Balance of Payments as an entry
of ........................ .
(A) Capital Account
(B) Financial Account
(C) Current Account Visibles
(D) Current Account invisibles
48. Which of the following is not an
international financial institution ?
(A) UNESCO
(B) IMF
(C) IDA
(D) IBRD
49. When one country has lower
opportunity cost of producing a good
or service than others it is ........... .
(A) Comparative advantage
(B) Competitive advantage
(C) Advantage of situation
(D) Policy advantage
50. A ban on trade in a particular
commodity with a particular country
is called .............................. .
(A) Protection
(B) Embargo
(C) Dumping
(D) Trade treaty

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