#1
6th October 2014, 11:50 AM
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Law Officer Bank Exam Questions
Will you give me questions of Central Bank of India Law officer bank entrance exam?
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#2
6th October 2014, 01:09 PM
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Re: Law Officer Bank Exam Questions
Central Bank of India Officers Paper consists the Law related questions I am here giving you some of that questions that help you in preparation of the entrance exam. Questions are Multiple choice questions as some of them given below. List of some of the questions: 1. According to Constitution (Seventy-third) Amendment Act, 1992, in the event of dissolution of Panchayati Raj institutions election for the new body should be compulsorily held within (A) 2 months (B) 4 months (C) 6 months (D) 8 months 2. Article 144 of the Constitution mandates that all authorities, civil and judicial, in the territory of India shall act in aid of the (A) President (B) Supreme Court (C) Prime Minister (D) Parliament 3. Is there a presumption in favour of the constitutionality of statutes ? (A) Yes (B) No (C) Depends (D) Not in all cases 4. The minimum age for the membership of the Legislative Council is (A) 45 years (B) 30 years (C) 35 years (D) 21 years 5. Which Schedule of the Constitution deals with the Forms of Oaths or Affirmations ? (A) Third Schedule (B) Fourth Schedule (C) Seventh Schedule (D) Ninth Schedule 6. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court rule that the principle of sovereign immunity will not apply to a proceedings for award of compensation for violation of fundamental rights (A) Bhim Singh v. State of Punjab (B) Kasturi Lal v. State of U.P. (C) Rudal Sah v. State of Bihar (D) Nilabeti Behara v. State of Orissa 7. The Supreme Court has ruled that a person belonging to the non-reserved class transplanted by adoption or marriage or conversion or any other voluntary act to family belonging to the reserved class does not become eligible to benefit or reservation either under Article 5(4) or Article 16(4) of the Constitution in (A) Indra Sawhney v. UOI (B) Km. Madhuri Patel v. Addl Commissioner, Tribal Development (C) Valsamma Paul v. Cochin University (D) M.D. Kasekar v. Vishnath Pander Barde. 8. The UPSC has to serve only (A) Selected States (B) Union Territories (C) Entire Nation (D) Depends on President’s Will 9. Under Article 11 of the Constitution the Parliament passed the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2003 which provides the overseas citizenship to the People of Indian Origin in (A) 12 specified countries (B) 16 specified countries (C) 18 specified countries (D) 20 specified countries 10. Which one of the following statements is correct ? (A) The Constitution gives more importance to the society as a whole (B) The Constitution is individual centric or individual oriented (C) The Constitution is social-economic pattern of the society but ignores the individual (D) The Constitution has not ignored individual but has endeavoured to harmonise the individual interest with permanant interest of the community. 11. Assertion (A) : An accused person cannot be compelled to give his thumb impression Reason (R) : An accused person cannot be compelled to be witness against himself (A) Both A and R are true (B) Both A and R are false (C) A is true but R is false (D) A is false but R is true 12. A telephonic conversation of the accused with his friend was secretly tapped by the police. Can this lay basis for raising the issue that : (A) It infringes the fundamental right against testimonial compulsion under Article 20 (3) of the Constitution (B) It infringes the fundamental right to privacy under Article 19 of the Constitution (C) It infringes the fundamental right guaranteed in Article 21 relating to personal liberty (D) There is no constitutional bar to the prosecution of such accused. 13. While a proclamation of emergency is in operation in the country under Article 352 (A) The Parliament is empowered under Article 250 to legislate with respect to any matter in the State List (B) The power of the State Legislature to make a law which is entitled to make a law under the Constitution is suspended (C) A law passed by the Parliament may be amended by a State Legislature with the prior permission of the President (D) Parliament can delegate some of its powers to the State Legislatures. 13. In law, a man is presumed to be dead if he is not heard of as alive for : (A) 5 years (B) 7 years (C) 9 years (D) 8 years 14. Sati was declared illegal and punishable in 1829 by : (A) Cornwallis (B) Lord Rippon (C) Lord William Bentik (D) None of the above 15. A Lok Adalat is different from other courts : (A) Because its decisions cannot be challenged in any court of law (B) Because the system is developed by the Judges (C) Because the Parliamentary Act guides it (D) None of the above 16. Who among the following won the Noble Peace Prize, 2009 ? (A) Barak Obama (B) Paul Krugman (C) Roger Y. Tsien (D) Herald Zur Har Hangen 17. The overseas Citizens of India are not entitled for the following : (A) Cannot vote or contest elections (B) Cannot become President of India (C) Cannot become a Judge of a High Court (D) All of them 18. During whose regime the first census was undertaken in India : (A) Lord Rippon (B) Lord Dalhousie (C) Lord Hastings (D) Lord Mountbatten 19. Right to Education viz. Article 21 A was added in the Constitution by the : (A) Constitution 86th Amendment Act, 2002 (B) Constitution 85th Amendment Act, 2001 (C) Constitution 84th Amendment Act, 2001 (D) Constitution 83rd Amendment Act, 2000 19. For the purpose of fundamental rights an authority must come within the definition of ‘State’. Which of the following is not a State ? (A) ONGC (B) Industrial and Finance Corporation (C) NCERT (D) Kerala Legislative Assembly 20. In relation to affiliation of educational institutions with a University, the Supreme Court has pointed out that : (A) Grant of affiliation is purely a discretionary power of the State (B) Affiliation being a Fundamental Right cannot be denied (C) If an institution fulfils the condition of affiliation, the same must be given and there cannot be any discrimination (D) If policy of the Government does not permit affiliation, the same may be refused |
#3
16th December 2015, 12:58 PM
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Re: Law Officer Bank Exam Questions
Hello Buddy , Here I Need to previous year IBPS Bank Specialist Law Officer Exam Questions Paper , Will you please provide me same for my help ?
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#4
16th December 2015, 12:59 PM
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Re: Law Officer Bank Exam Questions
Friend As per your Demanding Here I am providing previous year IBPS Bank Specialist Law Officer Exam Questions Paper : Under outsourcing of banking services, the customer is to be allowed a time period of _ for lodging complaint with the Ombudsman, if the customer does not get satisfactory response from the bank: 10 days 15 days 30 days 60 days 75 days “Escrow” is a term used to denote: negotiability of the instrument an instrument incomplete in respect of date an instrument without consideration conditional delivery of the instrument None of these What is the maximum amount of fee payable for filing a Recovery case with the Debt Recovery Tribunal? Rs.1 lakh Rs.1,20,000. Rs.1,50,000. 12% of the debit amount. None of these. Which of the following statements, is correct regarding securitization of Asset? Bank can take possession of Asset and sale itself or it can hand over to Re-construction Company. Securitised Company can act as secured creditor. Securitised Company gets all the Right of secured creditor. All of the above. None of these. The unfair Trade Practice includes: Quality and Quantity Potency and Purity Standard and price of goods and services. All of the above. None of these. Which of the following complaints can be lodged with the Banking Ombudsman regarding loans? Non-charging of interest as per RBI guidelines. Delay in disposal of loan applications beyond prescribed time limit of RBI. Not granting the loans as per guidelines. All of the above. None of these. The difference between Sale and Bailment is: Ownership is transferred to Buyer in the sale. Buyer has no obligation to return the goods. In the contract of Bailment- both (1)and (2)are not applicable. both (1) and (2). None of these. Which of the following is not the essential of a contract? Transfer of ownership. Immediate delivery of the goods. The contract must satisfy essentials of a valid contract. Goods must be a movable property. None of these. A private company is which: Restricts the right to transfer its shares. Limits the number of members to 50. Restricts the subscription of shares or debentures from the public. All of the above None of these. Which of the following are the duties of a Bailor? To disclose all the faults and defects in the goods Bailed. Bailor must compensate the loss to Bailee. Duty of the Bailor is to make aware the Bailee all the risk factors associated with the goods. All of the above. None of these. The essentials of a valid contract are: There should be an offer. Offer must be accepted. The parties to the consent must have free consent. All of the above. None of these. When a guaranteed loan is repaid by the guarantor the: guarantor steps in shoes of the bank securities in possession of creditors will be handed over to him guarantor is not entitled to the securities both (1) and (2) None of these A minor is competent to endorse an instrument: Subject to approval of the guardian without incurring any liability with the consent of all parties the statement is not true None of these Which of the following statement is correct regarding Bankers Book Evidence Act? No officer of a Bank can be compelled to produce any Bankers Books unless it is specially ordered by the court. The above position (1) applies only when Bank is not a party to the case. An investigating Police officer can compel a Bank officer to produce the Books without court order. All of the above None of these Where is Appellate Tribunal is located? Thiruvanthpuram Mumbai Each State Head Quarter All of these None of these What are the Rights available to a secured creditor? To sell the Assets. File application with DRT for recovery of full or remaining dues. To proceed against the guarantor. All of the above None of these Which of the following Rights of a consumer are protected under consumer protection Act,1986? The Right to be protected against making of goods which are hazardous of life and property. The Right against unfair trade practices. The Right to be assured access to a variety of goods and services at competitive prices. All of the above None of these The complaints which can be lodged with the Banking Ombudsman are: Delay in providing various services. Complaints regarding exporters. Delay in remittance to NRI. All of the above. None of these. Which of the following loan accounts can be referred to Lok Adalat? All NPA accounts. Both suit filed and non-suit filed accounts. Where liability does not exceed Rs.20 lacs. All of the above. None of these. Which of the following statements is correct? When neither the Bailor nor the Bailee is entitled to any remuneration is called gratitous Bailment. Where either the Bailee or the Bailor is entitled to remuneration is called non-gratitous Bailment. Motor car let out for hire is a contract of non-gratitous Bailment. All of the above. None of these. The essential elements of sale are: There should be a minimum of two parties. The subject matter of a contract of sale must be goods. The consideration of sale must be in money. All of the above. None of these. Which of the following is not an advantage of a company? In case of liquidation shareholders do not get priority in payment. Transfer of company’s shares provides liquidity. Members share the profits by the way of dividend. Company affords better borrowing facilities. None of these. Who can be a partner of a firm? Any person who is competent to contract. Any adult individual who is of sound mind. HUF represented by “Karta”. All of the above. None of these. The special category of clients includes: Politically exposed persons. Companies offering foreign exchange. Clients in high risk countries. All of the above. None of these. Which of the following is correct regarding obtaining of information? A person seeking information has to give in writing. PIO has to provide information within 30 days. If information is relating to life or liberty of a person,it will be provided within 48 hours. All of the above. None of these. The word “verify” in relation to a digital signature signifies: The initial electronic record was affixed with the digital signature. It is retained in fact. Both (1) and (2). only (1) None of these. If one of the joint guarantors pays the dues: he may claim the respective shares from others he cannot claim anything from others as the liability is joint and he has to bear the loss himself All of the above None of these If the ATM has not dispensed the cash but account has been debited, the dispute regarding such transactions is to be resolved by the banks within? one week 10 days 12 days 15 days None of these A cheque is presented for payment through clearing house but due to certain reasons,it is returned unpaid.The returning memo is enclosed to comply with: Negotiable Instruments Act RBI Act Banking Regulations Act It is a paractice RBI clearing House rules. A company has failed to file particulars of charge for a loan raised from bank and a period of 4 months have already lapsed: the change can be filed by the company any time by paying penalty the change can be filed by the company and bank together the charge can be filed with the permission of Company Law Board,by paying penalty None of these. For Term loan the period of limitation is three years from: Date of documents Date of default Date of sanction Due date of each instalment Date of default of each instalment In case the debt is acknowledged after the expiry of limitation period,the limitation period will be: Extended by another three years from this date Extended for another three years from date of expiry extended for 3 years Not be extended None of these Z is reported to have died.Some amount has been deposited by one of the debtors of Z in the bank account of Z. bank cannot credit the amount bank can credit the amount bank can credit the amount with the permission of the nominee or legal heirs. bank can credit the amount with the permission of court only None of these Charge created by a borrower in favour of a secured creditor on movable assets without possession,is known as_ as per provisions of _ Act. Lien,Indian Contract Act Assignment,SARFAESI Act Mortgage,Transfer of Property Act Hypothecation,SARFAESI Act. None of these. Mr.Abhay Lal informs the bank that he signed a cheque as Abhay instead of Abhay Lal,which are his usual signatures.Bank has paid the cheque but the customer claims refund of the amount: customer cannot seek refund as bank has made the payment as per his mandate customer can seek refund as the signatures do not tally customer can seek refund as bank is negligent the issue can be decided by a court,being a dispute None of these. Which of the following confers on the trustees,the power to obtain loan: Trust deed Trust deed writer Beneficiary Resolution from the trustees Commissioner of Charity Under which of the following categories,a contract of insurance is categorized? contract of agency contract of guarantee contract of indemnity contract of guarantee and indemnity an actionable claim A bank branch has received a mail transfer for credit to account of Mr.X who has expired.Which of the following would be the most appropriate option: the amount would be credited to the account if all particulars tally with the records the amount would be credited to the account if the legal heirs have no objection the amount would be credited to the account if survivors, nominees or legal heirs have authorised to do so the amount would not be credited to the account if survivirs,nominees or legal heirs have not given any authority 3 and 4 both |
#5
15th February 2016, 05:52 PM
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Re: Law Officer Bank Exam Questions
Hello sir ! I have apply law officer exam , will you please provide me law officer bank exam question ?
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#6
15th February 2016, 05:53 PM
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Re: Law Officer Bank Exam Questions
Hello sir ! as you want here we provide law officer bank exam question as follows 1. Under outsourcing of banking services, the customer is to be allowed a time period of for lodging complaint with the Ombudsman, if the customer does not get satisfactory response from the bank: a. 10 days b. 15 days c. 30 days d. 60 days e. 75 days 2. “Escrow” is a term used to denote: a. negotiability of the instrument b. an instrument incomplete in respect of date c. an instrument without consideration d. conditional delivery of the instrument e. None of these 3. What is the maximum amount of fee payable for filing a Recovery case with the Debt Recovery Tribunal? a. Rs.1 lakh b. Rs.1,20,000. c. Rs.1,50,000. d. 12% of the debit amount. e. None of these. 4. Which of the following statements, is correct regarding securitization of Asset? a. Bank can take possession of Asset and sale itself or it can hand over to Re-construction Company. b. Securitised Company can act as secured creditor. c. Securitised Company gets all the Right of secured creditor. d. All of the above. e. None of these. 5. The unfair Trade Practice includes: a. Quality and Quantity b. Potency and Purity c. Standard and price of goods and services. d. All of the above. e. None of these. 6. Which of the following complaints can be lodged with the Banking Ombudsman regarding loans? a. Non-charging of interest as per RBI guidelines. b. Delay in disposal of loan applications beyond prescribed time limit of RBI. c. Not granting the loans as per guidelines. d. All of the above. e. None of these. 7. The difference between Sale and Bailment is: a. Ownership is transferred to Buyer in the sale. b. Buyer has no obligation to return the goods. c. In the contract of Bailment- both (1)and (2)are not applicable. d. both (1) and (2). e. None of these. 8. Which of the following is not the essential of a contract? a. Transfer of ownership. b. Immediate delivery of the goods. c. The contract must satisfy essentials of a valid contract. d. Goods must be a movable property. e. None of these. 9. A private company is which: a. Restricts the right to transfer its shares. b. Limits the number of members to 50. c. Restricts the subscription of shares or debentures from the public. d. All of the above e. None of these. 10. Which of the following are the duties of a Bailor? a. To disclose all the faults and defects in the goods Bailed. b. Bailor must compensate the loss to Bailee. c. Duty of the Bailor is to make aware the Bailee all the risk factors associated with the goods. d. All of the above. e. None of these. 11. The essentials of a valid contract are: a. There should be an offer. b. Offer must be accepted. c. The parties to the consent must have free consent. d. All of the above. e. None of these. 12. When a guaranteed loan is repaid by the guarantor the: a. guarantor steps in shoes of the bank b. securities in possession of creditors will be handed over to him c. guarantor is not entitled to the securities d. both (1) and (2) e. None of these 13. A minor is competent to endorse an instrument: a. Subject to approval of the guardian b. without incurring any liability c. with the consent of all parties d. the statement is not true e. None of these 14. Which of the following statement is correct regarding Bankers Book Evidence Act? a. No officer of a Bank can be compelled to produce any Bankers Books unless it is specially ordered by the court. b. The above position (1) applies only when Bank is not a party to the case. c. An investigating Police officer can compel a Bank officer to produce the Books without court order. d. All of the above e. None of these 15. Where is Appellate Tribunal is located? a. Thiruvanthpuram b. Mumbai c. Each State Head Quarter d. All of these e. None of these 16. What are the Rights available to a secured creditor? a. To sell the Assets. b. File application with DRT for recovery of full or remaining dues. c. To proceed against the guarantor. d. All of the above e. None of these 17. Which of the following Rights of a consumer are protected under consumer protection Act,1986? a. The Right to be protected against making of goods which are hazardous of life and property. b. The Right against unfair trade practices. c. The Right to be assured access to a variety of goods and services at competitive prices. d. All of the above e. None of these 18. The complaints which can be lodged with the Banking Ombudsman are: a. Delay in providing various services. b. Complaints regarding exporters. c. Delay in remittance to NRI. d. All of the above. e. None of these. 19. Which of the following loan accounts can be referred to Lok Adalat? a. All NPA accounts. b. Both suit filed and non-suit filed accounts. c. Where liability does not exceed Rs.20 lacs. d. All of the above. e. None of these. 20. Which of the following statements is correct? a. When neither the Bailor nor the Bailee is entitled to any remuneration is called gratitous Bailment. b. Where either the Bailee or the Bailor is entitled to remuneration is called non-gratitous Bailment. c. Motor car let out for hire is a contract of non-gratitous Bailment. d. All of the above. e. None of these. 21. The essential elements of sale are: a. There should be a minimum of two parties. b. The subject matter of a contract of sale must be goods. c. The consideration of sale must be in money. d. All of the above. e. None of these. 22. Which of the following is not an advantage of a company? a. In case of liquidation shareholders do not get priority in payment. b. Transfer of company’s shares provides liquidity. c. Members share the profits by the way of dividend. d. Company affords better borrowing facilities. e. None of these. 23. Who can be a partner of a firm? a. Any person who is competent to contract. b. Any adult individual who is of sound mind. c. HUF represented by “Karta”. d. All of the above. e. None of these. 24. The special category of clients includes: a. Politically exposed persons. b. Companies offering foreign exchange. c. Clients in high risk countries. d. All of the above. e. None of these. 25. Which of the following is correct regarding obtaining of information? a. A person seeking information has to give in writing. b. PIO has to provide information within 30 days. c. If information is relating to life or liberty of a person,it will be provided within 48 hours. d. All of the above. e. None of these. |