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1st September 2014, 02:10 PM
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Last year question papers of Foundation Course in Company Secretary
Will you please share with me the last year question papers of Foundation Course in Company Secretary?
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1st September 2014, 04:12 PM
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Re: Last year question papers of Foundation Course in Company Secretary
As you want to get the last year question papers of Foundation Course in Company Secretary so here it is for you: Some content of the file has been given here: 1. Which one of the following is the oldest and simplest form of organisation ? (A) Functional organisation (B) Committee organisation (C) Line and staff organisation (D) Line organisation. 2. Which one of the following shows a big picture of what a company wants to achieve in future ? (A) Vision statement (B) Mission statement (C) Value statement (D) Quality statement. 3. Which among the following is one of the largest .Job providers. in India ? (A) Network marketing (B) Business process outsourcing (C) Medical tourism (D) Film industry. 4. Which one of the following is treated as a separate legal entity different from its members ? (A) Sole proprietorship (B) Hindu undivided family (C) Partnership (D) Limited liability partnership. 5. Value system of an organisation have an impact on its : I. Objectives II. Policies III. Practices IV. Profit The correct option is . (A) I and II only (B) I, II and III only (C) II, III and IV only (D) I, II III and IV. 6. Which one of the following is a great concern for E-COMMERCE ? (A) Speed (B) Quality (C) Security risk (D) Maintenance cost. 7. Why co-operative marketing society is formed ? (A) To protect the interest of general consumers (B) To sell the product of small farmers and producers (C) To protect the interest of small producers (D) To provide financial support to the members. PAPER.1 (Q. No. 1 to 50) BUSINESS ENVIRONMENT AND ENTREPRENEURSHIP PART.A BUSINESS ENVIRONMENT 8. The definition of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) in India is based on . (A) Total sales of the unit (B) Investment in machines and equipments (C) Market coverage (D) Export turnover. 9. Which one of the following is not a part of Porter's generic strategy ? (A) Focus (B) Cost leadership (C) Differentiation strategy (D) Market segmentation. 10. Which one of the following is not a part of 'marketing mix'? (A) Planning (B) Product (C) Price (D) Place. 11. The abbreviation .BIFR. with reference to sick companies in India means . (A) Board for Indian Financial Reserves (B) Board for Industrial and Financial Resources (C) Board for Industrial and Financial Reconstruction (D) Board for International Fund Reserves. 12. Which among the following are the key drivers of globalisation ? (A) Government action, exchange rates, competition and socio-demographic factors (B) Market convergence, competition, exchange rates and cost advantages (C) Cost advantages, government action, economic cycles and competition (D) Market, cost, competition and government policies. 13. In marketing, a distinctive group of consumers is known as . (A) A class (B) A segment (C) An emerging market (D) None of the above. 14. Which one of the following is a push factor influencing the internationalisation of a company ? (A) Difficulty in finding skilled staff in the home country (B) The need to be close to key resources (C) Low-cost labour in other countries (D) Financial incentives from governments in emerging markets. 15. Foundation of public enterprises in India was laid down by . (A) Indira Gandhi (B) Jawaharlal Nehru (C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (D) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan. 16. What is the meaning of maxim ultra vires ? (A) An accomplished act (B) Within the powers (C) Beyond the powers (D) With the guilty mind. 17. Which kind of precedent from the following creates and applies a new rule of law ? (A) Declaratory (B) Persuasive (C) Absolutely authoritative (D) Original. 18. Notice for calling a statutory meeting of a company should be given within a period of not less than . (A) 21 clear days (B) 14 clear days (C) 7 clear days (D) None of the above. 19. In a company maximum time difference between two board meetings is . (A) 3 months (B) 4 months (C) 6 months (D) 5 months. 20. Which one of the following company must hold statutory meeting ? (A) Private company (B) Public company having share capital (C) Government company (D) Public company not having share capital. 21. In a company who conceives the idea of the business ? (A) Promoters (B) Auditors (C) Directors (D) Shareholders. 22. .Voidable. contract means . (A) Parties are incompetent to contract (B) Free consent of the parties is missing (C) Consideration is inadequate (D) The object of contract is expressly declared void by the act itself. 23. An agreement in restraint of marriage . (A) Is voidable at the option of the promisor (B) Is voidable at the option of the promisee (C) Is expressly declared as void (D) Cannot be enforced as there is no privity of contract. 24. For acceptance to be considered as valid it must . (A) Be absolute (B) Be unqualified (C) Be both absolute and unqualified (D) Be conditional. 25. A person whose behaviour arouses misunderstanding that he is a partner in the firm but actually he is not, is called . (A) Nominal partner (B) Dormant partner (C) Ostensible partner (D) Partner by estoppel. PART.B BUSINESS LAWS 26. Which one of the following cannot be claimed as a matter of right by a partner ? (A) To have access to books of account (B) To take part in the conduct of the business (C) To share the profits (D) To receive remuneration. 27. The phrase quantum meruit literally means . (A) As much as earned or reasonable remuneration (B) The fact in itself (C) A contract for sale (D) As much as is gained. 28. According to Section 25 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, the liability of a partner is . (A) Joint (B) Several (C) Joint and several (D) None of the above. 29. The relationship of partnership arises out of . (A) An Agreement (B) Statute (C) Operation of law (D) Both an agreement and statute. 30. A contract of sale of goods under Section 4 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 comprises of . (A) Executory contract of sale (B) Executed contract of sale (C) Both executory and executed contracts of sale (D) None of the above. 31. An unpaid seller of goods has a right . (A) Against the buyer only (B) Against both the buyer and the goods (C) Against the goods only (D) None of the above. 32. A bill of exchange contains a/an . (A) Unconditional undertaking (B) Unconditional order (C) Conditional undertaking (D) Conditional order. 33. Which one of the following is not an example of material alteration as per section 87 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 ? (A) Alteration of the date of instrument (B) Alteration of the sum payable (C) Alteration in the time of payment (D) Crossing of instrument. 34. A cheque is a . (A) Promissory note (B) Bill of exchange (C) Hundi (D) None of the above. 35. Who among the following is not a party to a cheque ? (A) The drawer (B) The acceptor (C) The drawee (D) The payee. 36. The word .Entrepreneur. has its origin from . (A) Latin word (B) French word (C) German word (D) Indian word. 37. Albert S. Humphery was the originator of . (A) SWOT Analysis (B) Industry Analysis (C) GE Model (D) BCG Matrix. 38. Components of creativity do not include . (A) Expertise (B) Creative thinking (C) Motivation (D) Self efficacy. 39. Which one of the following is correct about business plan ? (A) Business plan is necessary only for big companies (B) Business plan lays down the best growth path and strategy (C) Business plan is substitute for strategic planning (D) Business plan should emphasize on ideas and concept only. 40. Which one of the following is not a method of environmental scanning ? (A) SWOT Analysis (B) Industry Analysis (C) GE Model (D) PESTLE Analysis. 41. Who coined the statement ..sell dreams, not products.. ? (A) Joseph Schumpeter (B) Jacob Viner (C) Alfred Marshall (D) Steve Jobs. 42. Expansion into new line of business is . (A) Strength of the firm (B) Weakness of the firm (C) Opportunity of the firm (D) Threat of the firm. 43. According to the Porter's Five Forces Model, which one of the following is not a competitive force for a firm ? (A) Substitute products (B) Buyer's power (C) Supplier's power (D) Unique selling proposition. 44. Primary task for running a successful venture is . (A) Identification of opportunity (B) Developing a plan (C) Conceiving an idea (D) Arrangement of resources. PART.C ENTREPRENEURSHIP 45. ..What to achieve and till when.. is explained by _________ of an organization. (A) Objectives (B) Mission (C) Goal (D) Vision. 46. Which one of the following is not the characteristics of entreprenurship ? (A) Innovation (B) Organising skills (C) Indifferent approach (D) Risk taking. 47. Which one of the following is true about investment cost per job? (A) Investment costs per job are high in large and medium industries. (B) Investment costs per job are high in small scale enterprises. (C) Investment costs per job are high in micro enterprises. (D) Investment costs per job are higher in micro enterprises than small scale enterprises. 48. A company engaged in alcohol manufacturing merged with a cigarette manufacturing firm. What type of merger is this ? (A) Horizontal merger (B) Product extension merger (C) Market extension merger (D) Vertical merger. 49. In a business environment, which one of the following is not a political factor? (A) Tax policy (B) Employment laws (C) Environment regulations (D) Exchange rate. 50. Cantillon referred entrepreneurs as one of the classes of ________ who are financially independent aristocrat. (A) Landowners (B) Employees (C) Entrepreneurs (D) Investors. 51. The concept of 'zero base budgeting' was introduced in 1970 by . (A) Joseph L. Massie (B) Lester R. Bittel (C) Peter Pyhrr (D) Peter F. Drucker. 52. Functions of administration are . (A) Executive and governing (B) Policy making and implementation (C) Legislative and determinative (D) None of the above. 53. Which one of the following acronym did 'Luther Gulick' coin using initial letters of management's functions? (A) POSBRD (B) POSDBRD (C) POSDCORB (D) POCDSORB. 54. Mathematical approach to management is closely related to . (A) Empirical approach of management (B) Inter personal behaviour approach of management (C) Corporate approach of management (D) Decision theory approach of management. 55. Under ______ organization, there is a clear demarcation between thinking and doing. (A) Line and staff (B) Functional (C) Matrix (D) Project management. 56. Performance appraisal means systematic process of measuring and evaluation of _______ of each employee by a person trained for merit rating. (A) Personality/Performance (B) Intelligence (C) Mental health/vigour (D) Participation. 57. Ranking Method of performance appraisal can conventionally be applied when the number of employees is . (A) Large (B) Small (C) Both (A) and (B) above (D) None of the above. 58. Who among the following suggested the method of goal setting approach for performance appraisal which is also called 'Management by Objectives' ? (A) Peter F. Drucker (B) Douglas McGregor (C) Newmann and Summer (D) Henri Fayol. 59. Which one of the following is called the Siamese twins of management? (A) Planning and organizing (B) Co-ordination and co-operation (C) Directing and controlling (D) Planning and controlling. PAPER.2 (Q. No. 51 to 100) BUSINESS MANAGEMENT, ETHICS AND COMMUNICATION (This Question Paper is supplied in English Medium only) PART.A BUSINESS MANAGEMENT 60. Which one of the following control techniques provides basis for collective actions to be taken to improve future performance? (A) Internal audit (B) Standard costing (C) Break-even analysis (D) Statistical control. 61. Which one of the following involves assessing potential threats and finding ways to avoid those threats? (A) Crisis management (B) Total quality management (C) Administrative management (D) Risk management. 62. The traditional control techniques are . (A) Budgetary control and CPM (B) PERT and CPM (C) Zero base budgeting and management audit (D) Budgetary control and standard costing. 63. Premises signify ___________ within which planning will take place. (A) Planning assumptions (B) Planning deviations (C) Planning resources (D) None of the above. 64. The fundamental assumption of ________ is that full advantage of employee potential can be utilised by motivating them to accept organizational objectives. (A) Theory-X (B) Equity theory (C) Monistic theory (D) Theory-Y. 65. While appraising performance of people, it is assumed that people usually differ in . (A) Their tasks (B) Their behaviour (C) Their abilities and aptitude (D) Their ways of actions. 66. How many principles of management have been suggested by Henri Fayol? (A) 10 (B) 14 (C) 12 (D) 16. 67. Entrepreneur's role of a disturbance handler, allocator of resources and negotiator's role are ______ roles that the manager has to perform. (A) Interpersonal (B) Decisional (C) International (D) None of the above. 68. According to decision theory approach, which one of the following is the core of management? (A) Leadership (B) Decision-making (C) Motivation (D) Planning. 69. Management is an art because it involves use of . (A) Experience and intelligence (B) Creativity and personalization (C) Skills and knowhow (D) None of the above. 70. Which one of the following is the first and primary step in the planning process? (A) Premising (B) Determining alternative courses (C) Evaluating alternatives (D) Establishing objectives. PART.B BUSINESS ETHICS 71. The idea of business ethics caught the attention of academics, media and business firms by the end of . (A) First World War (B) Second World War (C) Cold war (D) None of the above. 72. Providing information to law enforcement or regulatory agencies about a business' illegal or improper activities by its employees. is known as . (A) Ethical wrong (B) Whistle blowing (C) Ethical dilemma (D) Ethical wonder. 73. Which one of the following is not correct about business ethics? (A) Business ethics is a universal and absolute concept (B) Business ethics is based on well accepted moral and social values (C) Business ethics is a code of conduct which businessmen should follow while conducting their normal activities (D) Business ethics give protection to customers and other social groups related to a firm. 74. To be successful, business ethics and training program need to . (A) Be focused on personal opinion of employees (B) Be limited to higher management (C) Educate employees on formal ethical frameworks and models of ethical decision-making (D) Promote the use of emotions in making tough ethical decisions. 75. When a firm charges different prices from different groups of customers, it may be accused of . (A) Cultural relativism (B) Money laundering (C) Facilitating payments (D) Price discrimination. 76. Codes of conduct and codes of ethics . (A) Are formal statements that describe what an organisation expects of its employees (B) Become necessary only after a company has been in legal trouble (C) Are designed for top executives and managers and not for regular employees (D) Rarely become an effective component of the ethics and compliance program. 77. Which one of the following is not the primary elements of a strong organisational compliance program? (A) A written code of conduct (B) An ethics officer (C) Significant financial expenditures (D) A formal ethics training program. 78. Businesses must first be responsible to . (A) Employees (B) Customers (C) Owners (D) Bankers. 79. The Sarbanes.Oxley Act, 2002 was enacted and passed in USA to . (A) Punish those who committed accounting frauds in the late 1990s (B) Improve corporate profits (C) Help laid-off employees get their jobs back (D) Help restore confidence in corporate America. 80. Most companies begin the process of establishing organisational ethics programs by developing . (A) Ethics training programmes (B) Codes of conduct (C) Ethics enforcement mechanisms (D) Hidden agendas. 81. Communication by the CEO of the organisation to the purchase officer is an example of . (A) Upward communication (B) Downward communication (C) Horizontal communication (D) Informal communication. 82. Which one of the following is grammatically correct? (A) I bought three dozens bananas (B) I bought three dozen bananas (C) I bought three dozens banana (D) I bought three dozen banana. 83. Don't worry we are prepared __________ anything. Which one of the following is the correct preposition to fill-in the blank space ? (A) By (B) From (C) To (D) For. 84. Which one of the following serves as a road map for the meeting? (A) Addendum to the notice (B) Agenda (C) Quorum (D) Notice. 85. Crosswise communication is also known as ___________ communication. (A) Vertical (B) Horizontal (C) Diagonal (D) None of the above. 86. If you want to reduce miscommunication, you should : (X) Start assuming (Y) Talk to people (Z) Improve your working environment The correct option is . (A) (X) and (Y) (B) (Y) and (Z) (C) (X) and (Z) (D) All of the above. 87. Which one of the following method is used frequently by an organisation to decide its strategic goals? (A) Group discussion (B) Brain storming (C) Interview (D) None of the above. 88. Which one of the following is not true about a job interview? (A) In a job interview, one needs to study about the job, the company and industry (B) Memorise and rehearse the answers to the probable questions in the interview (C) Reach at the interview venue about 10-15 minutes early (D) Bring an extra copy of resume at the time of interview. PART.C COMMUNICATION 89. Which one of the following is not a barrier to communication? (A) Incorrect choice of medium (B) Difference in status (C) Trust level (D) Open communication channel. 90. A remedy for all diseases or difficulties is called . (A) Panacea (B) Concrete (C) Numismatics (D) Philistine. 91. Ram scored overall 99% marks. No other students of his class could do this. On the basis of his performance we may say — (A) Ram is an intelligent student of his class (B) Ram is more intelligent student in his class (C) Ram is the most intelligent student of his class (D) Ram is one of the more intelligent boys of his class. 92. The quality of expressing much in few words is known as — (A) Exigency (B) Brevity (C) Apprises (D) None of the above. 93. The place where an aeroplane is housed is known as — (A) Shed (B) Yard (C) Cold storage (D) Hangar. 94. A person who seeks to promote the welfare of poor by donating money is known as — (A) Benefactor (B) Philanthropist (C) Collaborator (D) Ornithologist. 95. The Latin phrase mutatis mutandis stands for — (A) With the necessary changes (B) A way of doing something (C) A deadlock (D) Privilege entails responsibility. 96. The term 'subjudice' means . (A) Not to be considered by judiciary (B) Under judicial consideration (C) Prohibited by law (D) None of the above. 97. Which one of the following is correct about office notes? (i) Office notes are a form of internal communication between two different departments (ii) Office notes are put up by sections or departments to higher authorities (iii) The actual layout of the office note is same for all the companies The correct option is . (A) (i) and (ii) only (B) (ii) and (iii) only (C) (i) and (iii) only (D) All of the above. 98. Match the parts of communication process to their respective definition : 1. Receiver (i) It decodes the message to determine the meaning of the message sent 2. Feedback (ii) An idea or an argument initially originates from here. 3. Medium (iii) After this process one cycle of interpersonal communication is completed. 4. Sender (iv) It may be in the form of a letter or report, fax or telegram, telephone or email The correct option is . (A) 1(i), 2(iii), 3(iv), 4(ii) (B) 1(iii), 2(i), 3(iv), 4(ii) (C) 1(iv), 2(iii), 3(i), 4(ii) (D) 1(ii), 2(i), 3(iv), 4(iii). 99. Which one of the following general rules is not applicable when composing a telegram? (A) Block letters must be used as far as possible (B) Sentences are to be divided by the word 'STOP' (C) The message must be brief and clear (D) Normal grammar and punctuation must not be ignored. 100. When an organisation needs to share important information with members of general public such as a change of name or representative, it drafts — (A) A press release (B) An advertisement (C) A public notice (D) An e-mail message. Contact Details: The Institute of Company Secretaries of India C-37, Sector 62, Noida, Uttar Pradesh 201301 0120 452 2058 India Map Location: [MAP]https://www.google.co.in/maps?q=The+Institute+of+Company+Secretaries+of+Ind ia,+Noida,+Uttar+Pradesh,+India&hl=en&ll=28.612292 ,77.367804&spn=0.009513,0.013046&sll=18.934729,72. 837059&sspn=0.002562,0.003262&oq=The+Institute+of+ Company+Secretaries+of+India&hq=The+Institute+of+C ompany+Secretaries+of+India,+Noida,+Uttar+Pradesh, +India&t=m&z=16&iwloc=A[/MAP] |
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