#1
3rd August 2014, 01:25 PM
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KVS PRT Question Paper
I am looking for the KVS Primary Teachers question paper . Can you please provide question paper?
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#2
4th August 2014, 08:31 AM
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Re: KVS PRT Question Paper
Detailed information regarding the KVS Primary Teachers Exam Pattern is given below . The written exam consists of Part 1 and pat II. The distribution marks is given below in table: Time Alloted: 150 Minutes Paper Type: Multiple Choice Questions No. of Questions: 150 Part I-Section Questions Marks English 15 15 Total 30 30 Hindi 15 15 Part II-Section Questions Marks Current Affairs 30 30 Teaching Methodology 60 60 Numeric+ Reasoning 30 30 Total 120 120 The weightage of written test merit list is 70:30 31. Which amonst the following states sends highest number of parliamentarians in Lok Sabha? a) Maharashtra b) Bihar c) Andhra Pradesh d) Tamil Nadu 32. How many members can be nominated in Rajya Sabha by the President? a) 10 b) 12 c) 17 d) 15 33. The provision of social security is the fundamental principle of a) Laissez Faire Theory b) Theory of Welfare State c) Pluralistic Theory d) Evolutionary Theory 34. Mangla oil well is located in a) Haryana b) Rajasthan c) Goa d) Assam 35. From which date the model code of conduct is enforced in elections? a) From the date of notification b) From the last date of filling the nomination c) From the last date of withdrawal of candidatures d) From the date of announcement of election schedule by the Election Commission 36. Which amonst the following was not a constituent Assembly Member? a) G.Durgabai Deshmukh b) Mrs. Hansa Mehta c) Mrs. Renuka Ray d) Vijaylaxmi Pandit Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit was the first female President of United Nations General Assembly. 37. Which of the following crops had shown the maximum production increase after the beginning of Green Revolution in 1960? a) Wheat and Rice b) Oil seeds c) Pulses d) All of the above 38. Which one of the following is not correctly matched? a) Cornwallis – Permanent Settlement b) William Bentinck – Abolition of Sati Act c) Lytton – Vernacular Press Act d) Ripon – Rowlatt Act 39. Aurangzeb spent nearly 25 years in Deccan, because a) He was totally free from North India b) He wanted to shift his capital in South c) He wanted to check Maratha expansion d) He was not secured in his own capital 40. The theory which gave birth to the French Revolution and the Revolution in America is a) Legal theory of rights b) Theory of natural rights c) Social welfare theory d) Historical theory of rights 41. In Haryana, a Gram Sabha consists of a) Elected members of village Panchayat b) Members of Panchayat Samiti c) Registered voters of the village/villages in the Panchayat circle d) All residents of the village/villages in the Panchayat cirlce 42. Which one of the following is a national party? a) Bahujan Samaj Party b) Communist Party (Marxist) c) Nationalist Congress Party d) All of the above 43. On which plate margins maximum volcanoes & earthquakes occur? a) Destructive Plate Margins b) Constructive Plate Margins c) Conservative Plate Margins d) None of the above 44. Which of the following forest type cover the maximum area on Indian land? a) Tropical rain forest b) Tropical Deciduous forest c) Mountain forest d) Mangrove forest 45. Which one of the following means ‘by what authority’? a) Habeas corpus b) Quo warranto c) Certiorari d) Mandamus 46. 180o Longitude is known as a) Prime Meridian b) International Date Line c) Greenwhich Time d) Equator 47. Arrange the following Delhi Sultans in chronological order: i) Qutub-ud-din Aibak ii) Iltumish iii) Razia iv) Nasir-ud-din Mahmud Choose the correct answer a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) b) (i), (iv), (ii), (iii) c) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv) d) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii) 48. Karn Prayag is the confluence of a) Bhagirathi & Alakhnanda b) Bhagirathi & Pinder c) Dholi Ganga & Alakhnanda d) Alakhnanda & Pinder 49. Which soil is found in the areas of excessive leaching due to heavy rainfall? a) Black b) Laterite c) Alluvial d) Mountain 50. Which amonst the following statement is/are correct about IMF? i) There are 188 member countries in IMF. ii) It is a specialised agency of United Nations. iii) In IMF meber states do not have equal voting rights. iv) It gives loan and technical advice to meber countires in the balance of payments crisis. a) (i) & (ii) b) (i) & (iii) c) (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv) d) (i) & (iv) 51. Vembanad is a) A Sea Port b) Lagoon Lake c) Mountain Peak d) Multipupose project 52. The Asiatic Society of Bengal was founded by a) Sir James Grant b) Max Mullor c) Sir Wlliam Jones d) Macaulay 53. The feature which applies to pressure groups but not to political parties is a) fielding of candidates for contesting election b) objective of safeguarding the interest of whole society c) Membership is exhaustive d) Do not participate directly in political process 54. The Right which is a legal but not a fundamental right a) Freedom to move freely b) Right against expolitation c) Right to minorities to establish educational institutions d) Right to property 55. The retreating monsoon in Indian subcontinent is known as a) South-West Monsoon b) South-East Monsoon c) North-East Monsoon d) North-West Monsoon 56. In Indonesia the ‘splash and burn agriculture’ is called as a) Jhoom b) Roke c) Milpa d) Ladang 57. Where the first, second & third Earth Summits took place in 1992, 2002 & 2012 respectively? a) Johannesburg, Doha, Rio De Janerio b) Rio De Janerio, Johannesburg, Doha c) Rio De Janerio, Kyoto, Johannesburg d) Rio De Janerio, Johannesburg, Rio De Janerio 58. Which of the following is not a session of Lok Sabha? a) Budget session b) Summer session c) Winter session d) Monsoon Session 59. The constitutional schedule which contain the list of recognised laguages of India is a) 7th Schedule b) 8th Schedule c) 9th Schedule d) 10th Schedule 60. The newspaper, which upheld the nationalist cause during India’s struggle for freedom was a) The Leader b) The Civil & Military Gazette c) Dawn d) The Statesman |
#3
8th December 2014, 10:18 AM
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KVS PRT Question Paper
I want to get KVS PRT mains biology question paper will you please provide me that ?
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#4
8th December 2014, 01:32 PM
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Re: KVS PRT Question Paper
As you want to get KVS PRT mains biology question paper so here I am giving you some questions of that paper: 1. Which of the following is a ‘club moss’ ? (A) Selaginella (B) Equisetum (C) Lycopodium (D) None of these Ans : (C) 2. Raphe in Marsilea is present in— (A) Female gametophyte (B) Sporocarp (C) Sporophyte (D) Male gametophyte Ans : (B) 3. The stele type occurring in Marsilea is— (A) Solenostele (B) Protostele (C) Amphiphloic Siphonostele (D) All of these Ans : (C) 4. The morphological nature of rhizophore of Selaginella is— (A) Root like (B) Stem like (C) Both root and stem like (D) Rhizoid like Ans : (C) 5. The Selaginella shows— (A) Large and small leaves arranged spirally (B) All leaves large (C) All leaves small (D) All of these Ans : (A) 6. The anatomy of Pinus needle reflects the features of a— (A) Mesophyte (B) Xerophyte (C) Hydrophyte (D) Epiphyte Ans : (B) 7. Girdling leaf traces are the characteristic feature of the stem of— (A) Cycas (B) Pinus (C) Ephedra (D) Gnetum Ans : (A) 8. Pinus is a— (A) Tree (B) Shrub (C) Herb (D) None of these Ans : (A) 9. The recent era is— (A) Cenozoic (B) Mesozoic (C) Proterozoic (D) Archeozoic Ans : (A) 10. Fossils are found in— (A) Igneous rocks (B) Quartz (C) Soil (D) Sedimentary rocks Ans : (D) 11. Reserve food material in fungi is— (A) Glycogen (B) Starch (C) Sucrose (D) Maltose Ans : (A) 12. Which is rootless fern ? (A) Pteris (B) Dryopteris (C) Salvinia (D) Adiantum Ans : (C) 13. Which is common between aerobic respiration and anaerobic respiration ? (A) Similar substrate (B) Glycolysis (C) Pyruvic acid (D) All of these Ans : (B) 14. Turpentine oil is obtained from— (A) Coal (B) Petroleum (C) Cedarwood (D) Pinus Ans : (D) 15. Which alga was used by Calvin and his co-workers in their experiments of photosynthesis ? (A) Chlamydomonas (B) Chlorella (C) Chara (D) Volvox Ans : (B) 16. Which is an oilseed crop ? (A) Marigold (B) Chrysanthemum (C) Rose (D) Sunflower Ans : (D) 17. The first transgenic plant used for commercial production was— (A) Cotton (B) Tomato (C) Tobacco (D) Rice Ans : (B) 18. Rare hybrid plants can be saved by— (A) Pollen culture (B) Embryo culture (C) Protoplast culture (D) None of these Ans : (C) 19. Which is not a category ? (A) Ecotype (B) Species (C) Genus (D) Order Ans : (A) 20. Linnaeus published his concept of binomial nomenclature first in— (A) Systema Naturae (B) Species Plantarum (C) Genera Plantarum (D) Philosophia Botanica Ans : (B) 21. When chlorophyll is burnt which element is obtained ? (A) Ca (B) Na (C) Mg (D) Mn Ans : (C) 22. Iron deficiency results in— (A) Leaf tip necrosis (B) Small leaves disease (C) Decreased protein synthesis (D) Intervenal chlorosis appearing first in young leaves Ans : (D) 23. A phytohormone is— (A) Naturally produced (B) Synthetic substance (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these Ans : (A) 24. During the seismonastic movement in Mimosa pudica turgor changes occur in— (A) Leaflets (B) Stipules (C) Pulvinus leaf base (D) Petiole and stem Ans : (C) 25. Evergeen trees remain green through the year on account of— (A) Cold climate (B) Absence of leaf fall (C) Leaves falling in small number interval (D) Supply of moisture throughout year Ans : (C) 26. Phenotypic ratio of dihybrid test cross is— (A) 15 : 1 (B) 3 : 1 (C) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (D) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 Ans : (C) 27. The damaged ozone layer is situated in— (A) Ionosphere (B) Mesosphere (C) Stratosphere (D) Troposphere Ans : (C) 28. Which one of the following is ordinarily not an air pollutant ? (A) CO2 (B) CO (C) SO2 (D) Hydrocarbon Ans : (A) 29. Genes are made by— (A) Histones (B) Lipoproteins (C) Hydrocarbons (D) Polynucleotides Ans : (D) 30. The term ‘ecosystem’ was proposed by— (A) Odum (B) Tansley (C) Whitker (D) Goli Ans : (B) 31. The first juvenile larva of Ascaris is known as— (A) Filiform larva (B) Rhabditiform larva (C) Miracidium larva (D) Microfilariae Ans : (B) 32. Chromosomes contain— (A) Protein only (B) DNA and protein (C) DNA, RNA and histone (D) DNA, RNA, histone and non-histone proteins Ans : (B) 33. Which are phagocytes in liver ? (A) Kupffer cells (B) Aciner cells (C) Diter cells (D) Hensen's cells Ans : (A) 34. Termites digest wood with the help of an enzyme secreted by the— (A) Salivary glands (B) Cells in the midgut (C) Symbiotic protozoa (D) Bacteria and fungi outside the body Ans : (C) 35. In honeybee colony the drones are produced by— (A) Fertilized eggs (B) Unfertilized eggs (C) Larvae fed upon leaves (D) Fasting larvae Ans : (B) 36. Jacobson's organ is concerned with— (A) Smell (B) Burrowing (C) Touch (D) Vision Ans : (A) 37. Body organisation in Hydra is of— (A) Tissue grade (B) Organ grade (C) Cellular grade (D) Organ system grade Ans : (A) 38. Leech obtains continuous blood flow from its victim by pouring in it— (A) Heparin (B) Hirudin (C) Insulin (D) Pepsin Ans : (B) 39. Spicules of Sponges are formed by— (A) Procytes (B) Pinacocytes (C) Scleroblasts (D) Thesocytes Ans : (B) 40. Heterocoelous centrum is a characteristics of— (A) Amphibia (B) Reptilia (C) Birds (D) Mammalia Ans : (C) 41. The exclusively sedentary protochordate animals are found in the class— (A) Pterobranchia (B) Larvacea (C) Ascidiacea (D) Thaliacea Ans : (A) 42. Cytopyge is found in— (A) Paramecium (B) Entamoeba (C) Amoeba (D) Trypanosoma Ans : (A) 43. Littoral form of animals is found— (A) In fresh water (B) In sea water near the shore (C) In deep sea (D) At the bottom of the sea Ans : (D) 44. Bladder worm is a larva of— (A) Obelia (B) Silkmoth (C) Taenia (D) Nereis Ans : (C) 45. Which of the following secretions associated with digestion does not have enzymes ? (A) Bile (B) Gastric juice (C) Saliva (D) Pancreatic juice Ans : (A) 46. Yellow fever is transmitted by— (A) Female Culex (B) Female Anopheles (C) Female Aedes (D) Housefly Ans : (C) 47. The covering membrane of the vacuole is known as— (A) Tonoplast (B) Cell wall (C) Plasma layer (D) None of these Ans : (A) 48. Age of fishes was known as— (A) Devonian (B) Ordovician (C) Crustaceous (D) Silurian Ans : (A) 49. ‘Quartan malaria’ is caused by— (A) Plasmodium vivax (B) Plasmodium malariae (C) Plasmodium ovale (D) Plasmodium falciparum Ans : (B) 50. The word ‘species’ was coined by— (A) John Ray (B) Mayer (C) J. Huxley (D) C. Linnaeus Ans : (A) 51. An embryo of chick with 7 pairs of somites is— (A) 20 hours old (B) 22 hours old (C) 24 hours old (D) 18 hours old Ans : (C) 52. In the mammals, cleavage result formation of solid mass of cells known— (A) Blastula (B) Gastrula (C) Morula (D) Neurula Ans : (C) 53. F1particles are found in— (A) Lysosome (B) Mitochondria (C) Golgi Body (D) Endoplasmic reticulum Ans : (B) 54. The name ‘polytene chromosome’ suggested by— (A) E.G. Balbiani (B) Kollar (C) Heitz (D) Bauer Ans : (A) 55. Centriole is found in— (A) Animal cells (B) Red algae (C) Prokaryotes (D) Flowering plants Ans : (A) 56. The first phylum of animal kingdom exhibiting bilateral symmetry is— (A) Arthropoda (B) Annelida (C) Mollusca (D) Platyhelminthes Ans : (D) 57. The fresh water sponge is— (A) Spongella (B) Grantia (C) Euplectella (D) Euspongia Ans : (A) 58. Flame cells are related with— (A) Excretory system (B) Digestive system (C) Circulatory system (D) Respiratory system Ans : (A) 59. The intermediate host in the life cycle of F. hepatica (Liver fluke) is— (A) Sheep (B) Snail (C) Man (D) Bird Ans : (B) 60. Vitelline membrane is found in— (A) Birds (B) Tunicates (C) Fishes (D) Mammals Ans : (A) 61. Two-pigment system theory of photosynthesis was proposed by— (A) Hill Emerson (B) Emerson (C) Blackmann (D) Hatch and Slack Ans : (B) 62. Photosynthetic pigments in chloroplast are embedded in membrane of— (A) Thylakoids (B) Photoglobin (C) Matrix (D) Envelope of chloroplast Ans : (A) 63. The rate of photosynthesis is maximum in— (A) Green light (B) Blue light (C) Red light (D) White light Ans : (C) 64. All energy is trapped in pigment system-1 in— (A) ATP (B) Carbohydrate (C) NADH2 (D) P-700 Ans : (D) 65. How many ATP molecules are produced, as a net gain, during the complete breakdown of glucose ? (A) 36 (B) 28 (C) 12 (D) 18 Ans : (A) 66. Father of taxonomy is— (A) De Candolle (B) Hooker (C) Linnaeus (D) Aristotle Ans : (C) 67. For entry in gene pool, a mutation occur in— (A) Somatic cells (B) Germ cells (C) Plasma proteins (D) Somatic DNA Ans : (B) 68. Vessels diffier from tracheids— (A) In being living (B) In being derived from a single cell (C) In having vertical row of cells and their cross wall dissolved (D) Because they conduct water Ans : (C) 69. Which one is true nut ? (A) Walnut (B) Cashewnut (C) Groundnut (D) Coconut Ans : (B) 70. After transcription, the mRNA molecule— (A) Disintegrates (B) Moves into cytoplasm (C) Replicates itself (D) Reassociates to form its structure Ans : (B) 71. Fossilization is also known by the— (A) Acclimatzation (B) Pasteurization (C) Preservation (D) Tyndallization Ans : (C) 72. The branch that deals with the plants studies in the geological past is called— (A) Pteridology (B) Palaeobotany (C) Neurology (D) Archaeology Ans : (B) 73. Birbal Sahni Institute of Palaeobotany is situated at— (A) Allahabad (B) Delhi (C) Mumbai (D) Lucknow Ans : (D) 74. In plants, largest egg is found in— (A) Cycas (B) Sequoia (C) Pinus (D) Selaginella Ans : (A) 75. Which one of the following is an example of symbiosis ? (A) Utricularia (B) Agaricus (C) Lichen (D) Mango Ans : (C) 76. Which of the following pteridophytes is known as ‘Horse-tail’ ? (A) Rhynia (B) Selaginella (C) Equisetum (D) None of these Ans : (C) 77. Marsilea is a— (A) Homosporic pteridophyte (B) Heterosporic pteridophyte (C) Non-sporic pteridophyte (D) Seeded pteridophyte Ans : (B) 78. A plant bearing two types of spores is termed as— (A) Heterospory (B) Seed habit (C) Homospory (D) All of these Ans : (A) 79. In Pinus present only— (A) Male cone (B) Female cone (C) Male and female cones (D) All of these Ans : (D) 80. Number of cotyledons found in the embryo of Cycas is— (A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 1 Ans : (B) 81. Bryophytes are— (A) Aquatic (B) Terrestrial (C) Amphibious (D) None of these Ans : (C) 82. Sporophyte is dependent on gametophyte in— (A) Algae (B) Pteridophyta (C) Fungi (D) Bryophyta Ans : (D) 83. In gametophytic phase of Bryophyta the last cell is— (A) Gamete (B) Spore (C) Elater (D) Zygote Ans : (A) 84. In Funaria, the calyptra is formed by— (A) Antheridium (B) Columella (C) Capsule (D) Archegonium Ans : (D) 85. A bryophyte differes from pteridophyte in— (A) Archegonia (B) Lack of vascular tissue (C) Independent gametophyte (D) None of these Ans : (B) 86. Acid rain is mainly a mixture of— (A) Sulphuric acid and nitric acid (B) Hexane and methane (C) Acetic acid and bromine (D) Ascorbic acid and citric acid Ans : (A) 87. Ribosomes are sites for— (A) Protein synthesis (B) Photosynthesis (C) Fat synthesis (D) Respiration Ans : (A) 88. Pyramid of energy is— (A) Alwayss inverted (B) Always upright (C) Sometimes inverted and sometimes upright (D) None of these Ans : (B) 89. ATP is— (A) An enzyme which brings about oxidation (B) A hormone (C) A molecule with high energy phosphate bond (D) A protein Ans : (C) 90. Which one of the following is not a feature of prokaryotic cell ? (A) Absence of nuclear membrane and the nucleus (B) Absence of cell organelles (C) Absence of genetic material (D) Absence of histone protein in the chromosome Ans : (C) 91. Which one of the following is highly dangerous radioactive pollutant ? (A) Phosphorus-32 (B) Sulphur-35 (C) Strontium-90 (D) Calcium-40 Ans : (C) 92. The indicator of SO2 pollution of air is— (A) Lichen (B) Fern (C) Black mould (D) Moss Ans : (A) 93. The founder of cell theory was— (A) Wolf (B) Rudolf Virchow (C) Myen, Von Moll and Raspail (D) Schleiden and Schwann Ans : (D) 94. Fats in our body are formed when— (A) There is little glycogen in the body (B) Blood sugar level becomes constant (C) Glycogen storage in liver and muscles is completed (D) Intake of protein is high Ans : (C) 95. Liver performs several functions. One of these functions is— (A) Histolysis (B) Digestion of proteins (C) Glycogenesis (D) Maintaining salt balance Ans : (C) 96. Poison fangs of snakes are— (A) Maxillary teeth (B) Specialized structures (C) Premaxillary teeth (D) Vomerine teeth Ans : (A) 97. Wings of butterfly, bird and bat are— (A) Homologous organs (B) Analogous organs (C) Unrelated organs (D) Vestigeal organs Ans : (B) 98. ‘Ozone Day’ is observed on— (A) January, 30 (B) April, 21 (C) September, 16 (D) December, 5 Ans : (C) 99. Which one of the following is the link between Annelida and Mollusca ? (A) Archaeopteryx (B) Peripatus (C) Neopilina (D) Coelacanth Ans : (C) 100. The heartbeat is regulated by— (A) Pacemaker (B) Vagus nerve (C) Sympathetic nerve (D) All of these Ans : (D) |
#5
8th December 2014, 04:28 PM
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KVS PRT question paper
I am looking for the question paper of KVS PRT exam so will you provide me?
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#6
8th December 2014, 05:18 PM
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Re: KVS PRT question paper
Ok, as you want the question paper of KVS PRT exam so here I am providing you. KVS PRT exam question paper 1. Among the following Indian cities, which one is located most southward? (1) Hyderabad (2) Vishakhapatnam (3) Panaji (4) Belgaum Ans. (3) 2. Match List- I (National Highway) with List-II (Connected Cities) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I List-II (National Highway) (Connected Cities) A. NH 3 1. Delhi -Lucknow B. NH 4 2. Agra-Bikaner C. NH 11 3. Agra-Mumbai D. NH 24 4. Chennai-Thane (Mumbai) Code: A B C D (1) 3 1 2 4 (2) 2 4 3 1 (3) 3 4 2 1 (4) 2 1 3 4 Ans. (3) 3. Match List- I (Defense Institute) with List- II (City) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I List-II (Defense Institute) (City) A. College of Defense Management 1. Pachmarhi B. Army Air Defense College 2. Bangalore C. Army Supply Corps (ASC) Centre and College 3. Secunderabad D. Army Education Corps (AEC) Training College and Centre 4. Gopalpur Code: A B C D (1) 3 4 2 1 (2) 1 2 4 3 (3) 3 2 4 1 (4) 1 4 2 3 Ans. (2) 4. Which of the following are Defense Public Sector Undertakings? 1. Goa Shipyard Limited 2. The Bharat Dynamics Limited 3. Mishra Dhatu Nigam Limited Select the correct answer using the code given below. (1) 1 and 2 (2) 2 and 3 (3) l and 3 (4) 1, 2 and 3 Ans. (1) 5. Match List- I (Young Indian Player) with List- II (Game/Sport) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I List-II (Young Indian Player) (Game/Sports) A. Armaan Ebrahim 1. Squash B. Joshna Chinnappa 2. Hockey C. Adrian D’Souza 3. Lawn Tennis D. Karan Rastogi 4. Auto racing 5. Swimming Code: A B C D (1) 2 3 5 1 (2) 4 1 2 3 (3) 2 1 5 3 (4) 4 3 2 1 Ans. (2) 6. Match List- I (Person) with List- II (Organization) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I List-II (Person) (Organization) A. Shiv Nadar 1. Satyam Computers B. Kumaramangalam Birla 2. Tata Consultancy Services C. R. Raju 3. Grasim Industries D. S. Ramadorai 4. HCL Technologies Codes: A B C D (1) 2 3 1 4 (2) 4 1 3 2 (3) 2 1 3 4 (4) 4 3 1 2 Ans. (4) 7. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? (1) Gol Gumbaz : Hyderabad (2) Tomb of Itmad-ud-daula : Agra (3) Tomb of Sher Shah : Sasaram (4) Tomb of Rani Rupmati : Ahmedabad Ans. (1) 8. Where is the Baglihar Hydroelectric Project located? (1) Ferozepur District of Punjab (2) Doda District of Jammu and Kashmir (3) Faridkot District of Punjab (4) Baramulla District of Jammu and Kashmir Ans. (2) (For the next Five Items) ABC Ltd. presently has three Accounts Assistants (A. B and C) and five Accounts Officers (D, E, F, G and H). Its management is planning to-open a new office in another city using 3 Accounts Officers and 2 Accounts Assistants from its present staff. The following guidelines have been established to set up the new: office. 1. A and C are constantly finding faults with each other and should not be sent as members of the same team. 2. C and E function well alone but not as a team. They should not be sent as members of the same team: 3. D and G do not enjoy good relations. They should not be sent as members of the same team 4. Since D and F have been competing for a promotion, they should not be sent as members of the same team. Based upon the above, answer the next five items: 9. If C and F are moved to the new office, what is the number of different teams that can be formed? (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 Ans. (1) 10. If C is sent to the new office which member of the staff can not go with C? (1) H (2) G (3) F (4) D Ans. (4) 11. Under the guidelines developed, which of the following must go to the office? (1) B (2) D (3) E (4) G Ans. (1) 12. Under the guidelines developed, which one of the following is the possible number of different teams, which can be sent to the new office? (1) 15 (2) 12 (3) 8 (4) 6 Ans. (4) 13. If D goes to the new office which of the following is/are correct? 1. C cannot go. 2. A cannot go. 3. H must also go. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (1) 1 only (2) 2 only (3) l and 2 (4) 1 and 3 Ans. (4) 14. Consider the following statements 1. Megabyte (MB) is exactly equal to 2 20 bytes. 2. A byte is a unit of data that is eight binary digits long. 3. A bit has a single binary value, either 0 or 1. Which of the statements given above is are correct? (1) 2 only (2) 3 only (3) 1 and 2 (4) 1, 2, and 3 Ans. (4) 15. Consider the following statements. 1. Bluetooth technology uses simulation of a given environment. 2. Virtual reality uses short-range wireless connection for connecting mobile phones, computers with each other. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (1) 1 only (2) 2 only (3) Both 1 and 2 (4) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (4) 16. Match List -I (Temple/Cathedral) with List-II (Place) and select the correct answer using the code given below the list: List-I List-II (Temple/Cathedral) (Place) A. Brihadeswara Temple 1. Guwahati B. Vishwanatha Temple 2. Chennai C. Kamakhya Temple 3. Thanjavur D. Santhome Cathedral 4. Khajuraho Codes: A B C D (1) 3 2 1 4 (2) 1 4 3 2 (3) 3 4 1 2 (4) 1 2 3 4 Ans. (3) 17. Match List -I (Scholar) with List- II (Work) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I List-II (Scholar) (Work) A. Panini 1. Brihatsamhita B. Varahamihira 2. Vedanga Jyotisha C. Lagdhacharya 3. Rajatragani D. Kalhana 4. Asthadhyayi Codes: A B C D (1) 4 1 2 3 (2) 3 2 1 4 (3) 4 2 1 3 (4) 3 1 2 4 Ans. (1) 18. Match List -I (World Heritage Site) with List- II (State) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I List-II (World Heritage Site) (State) A. Manas Wildlife Sanctuary 1. Bihar B. Mahabodhi Temple Complex 2. Uttranchal C. Group of Monuments, Pattadakal 3. Assam D. Nandadevi National Park 4. Karnataka Codes: A B C D (1) 2 4 1 3 (2) 3 1 4 2 (3) 2 1 4 3 (4) 3 4 1 2 Ans. (2) (For the next THREE items) In a group of six men and women—A, B, C, D, and F there are two housewives who have not taken up a any job one lecturer, one architect, one accountant and one lawyer. Further, 1. There are two married couples in the group. 2. The lawyer is married to D who is a housewife and she has not taken up any job 3. No lady in the group is either an accountant or an architect 4. C who is an accountant is married to F who is a lecturer 5. A is married to D and E is not one of the two non-working housewives. Based on the above, answer the next THREE items: 19. Which of the fo1loing is a married couple? (1) A-B (2) A-F (3) C-E (4) None of the above. Ans. (4) 20. What is E-working as? (1) Lawyer (2) Architect (3) Lecturer (4) Accountant Ans. (2) 21 How many members of the group are males? (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) Cannot be determined Ans. (2) 22. Consider the following statements: 1. Black soils occur mainly in Maharashtra, Western Madhya Pradesh, and Gujarat. 2. Alluvial soils are confined mainly to the Northern plains Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (1) l only (2) 2 only (3) Both l and 2 (4) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (3) 23. Consider the following statements: 1. India has an installed e1ectrlc power generation’ capacity of more than 1 lakh MW. 2. The total hydroelectric power potential of India is estimated around. 1, 50,000MW. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? (1) 1 only (2) 2 only (3) Both 1 and 2 (4) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (1) 24. Match List –I (Ore) with List-II (Metal) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I List-II (Ore) (Metal) A. Magnetite 1. Lead B. Galena 2. Zinc C. Bauxite 3. Iron D. Sphalerite 4. Aluminum Codes: A B C D (1) 3 4 1 2 (2) 2 1 4 3 (3) 3 1 4 2 (4) 2 4 1 3 Ans. (3) 25. Who among the following is the first to have taken 600 test cricket wickets? (1) Courtney Walsh (2) Glenn McGrath (3) Shane Warne (4) M. Murlitharan Ans. (3) 26. Match List- I (Person) with List-II (Organization) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I List-II (Person) (Organization) A. E. Shreedharan 1. SEBI B. M. Damodaran 2. Atomic Energy Commission C. A. Kakodkar 3. Nuclear Power Corporation of India D. S. K. Jain 4. Delhi Metro Rail corporation Code: A B C D (1) 4 1 2 3 (2) 2 3 4 1 (3) 4 3 2 1 (4) 2 1 4 3 Ans. (1) |
#7
9th May 2015, 10:18 AM
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Re: KVS PRT question paper
Hello sir here I am looking for the Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan PRT previous year question paper of GK so can you please provide me this?
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#8
9th May 2015, 10:18 AM
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Re: KVS PRT question paper
As per your request here I am sharing the question paper of GK of Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan PRT exam 1. For instant energy, athletes take : a) Sucrose b) Vitamin C c) Sodium chloride d) Milk 2. Which Sufi Saint’s Dargah is at Ajmer? a) Salim Chishti b) Muinuddin Chisti c) Baba Farid d) Hazrat Nizamuddin 3. Through which one among the following materials does sound travel the slowest? a) Air b) Glass c) Water d) Wood 4. The wheel (chakra) in Indian National Flag contains how many spokes? a) 12 b) 18 c) 24 d) 26 5. In eye donation, which of the following parts of eyes is utilized? a) Iris b) Lews c) Corena d) Retina 6. Which among the following is not a Tennis Player? a) Serena Williams b) Steffie Graff c) Martina Navratilova d) Ricky Ponting 7. The number of chromosomes in a normal human body is: a) 46 b) 43 c) 44 d) 45 8. Indian Railways earn the maximum revenue from : a) passenger fare b) freight c) traffic tax d) passenger tax 9. The time gap between two successive sessions of Parliament is not to exceed : a) 4 months b) 6 months c) One year d) What is specified by the President 10. The pH of human blodd is between : a) 5 – 6.5 b) 6.5 – 7.5 c) 7.5 – 8 d) 8 – 8.5 Human blood has a normal pH of about 7.41 lies in the range 7.35 – 7.45 11.The process of metamorphosis of rocks may involve : a) Sandstone turning into quartzite b) Limestone becoming marble c) Shale getting converted into slate d) All of the above 12. The Constitution of India provides for the nominations of two members of Lok Sabha by the President to represent : a) The Paris b) Men of eminence c) The business community d) The Anglo-Indian community 13. Which language is not specified in the 8th Schedule of the Indian Constitution? a) Sanskrit b) Sindhi c) Urdu d) Rajasthani 14.Which of the following pairs of language and its one of the greatest poet are not correctly matched? a) Hindi – Kalidas b) Bengali – R. N. Tagore c) Urdu – Ghalib d) Greek – Homer Kalidas is the greatest sanskrit poet 15. Which of the following is concerned with the trade unions? a) GNDU b) BHU c) INTUC d) LDC INTUC = Indian National Trade Union Congress 16. World No Tabacco Day is observed on : a) 31 May b) 11 June c) 28 September d) 10 October 17. Roof of the world is : a) Pamirs b) Tibet c) Himalayas d) Mount Everest 18. New Bank of India has been merged with which bank? a) State Bank of India b) Central Bank of India c) Punjab National Bank d) Canara Bank 19. Where are the head quarters of International Red Cross Committee? a) Berlin b) Prague c) Moscow d) Geneva 20. Choose the wrong definition : a) Contour – Areas of equal height above the sea level b) Isotherms – Area having the same temperature c) Isohytes – Equal rainfall areas d) Isobath – Places of equal atmospheric pressure Isobars lines represent places of equal atmospheric pressure. Isobath is the line connecting the points underwater with same depth. 21. Which of the following countries is not grouped with caribbeans? a) Cuba b) Bermuda c) Jordon d) Anguilla 22. India’s national emblem is : a) Lotus flower b) Lioned Capital c) Lion d) Cow 23. ‘Davis Cup’ is associated with the sport : a) Lawn Tennis b) Cricket c) Hockey d) Badminton 24. Which of the following is a famous ‘violin’ player? a) Zia Moinuddin Khan b) S. Balchandran c) Sajjad Hussain d) L. Subramaniam 25. “Trippani” is a dance/ dance drama of the state: a) Maharashtra b) Rajasthan c) Gujarat d) Manipur 26. Match the following and choose the correct answer from the codes given below : I. Govinda 1. Rashtrakutas II. Aryabhatta 2. Gupta Dynasty III. Banabhatta 3. Harshavardhana IV. Samundra Gupta 4. Indian Napolean Codes : I II III IV a) 2 3 4 1 b) 1 2 3 4 c) 3 4 2 1 d) 4 3 1 2 27. Wazir -e-Azam of Pakistan presently is : a) Asaf Ali Zardari b) Syed Yousaf Raza Gillani c) Parvez Musharraf d) Muhammad Mian Soomro 28. Oscar award 2010 for best picture was given to : a) Avatar b) District 9 c) The Hurt Locker d) An Education 29. Rate of evaporation does not depend on : a) temperature of the liquid b) surface area of the liquid c) total mass of the liquid d) air pressure 26. Match the following and choose the correct answer from the codes given below : I. Sodium bicarbonate 1. Bleaching powder II. Calcium carbonate 2. Baking soda III. Potash 3. Chalk IV. Calcium hypochlorite 4. Alum Codes : I II III IV a) 1 2 4 3 b) 2 3 4 1 c) 4 2 3 1 d) 3 1 4 2 31. Robert Koch worked on : a) Tuberculosis b) Cholera c) Malaria d) Diabetes 32. Right to property is a : a) Fundamental Right b) Directive Principle c) Legal Right d) Social Right 33. The fifity-fifth amendment 1986 conferred statehood on : a) Chhattisgarh b) Sikkim c) Arunachal Pradesh d) Jharkhand 34. The Vice-President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of : a) The elected members of Parliament b) The members of both the houses of Parliament c) The elected members of Parliament and State assemblies d) Members of Loksabha and Legislative Councils 35. Which article of the Constitution provides the Parliament the power to amend the Constitution? a) 370 b) 368 c) 390 d) 376 |
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