2023 2024 Student Forum > Management Forum > Main Forum

 
  #2  
4th August 2014, 08:31 AM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Apr 2013
Re: KVS PRT Question Paper

Detailed information regarding the KVS Primary Teachers Exam Pattern is given below .

The written exam consists of Part 1 and pat II.
The distribution marks is given below in table:
Time Alloted: 150 Minutes
Paper Type: Multiple Choice Questions
No. of Questions: 150

Part I-Section Questions Marks
English 15 15
Total 30 30
Hindi 15 15

Part II-Section Questions Marks
Current Affairs 30 30
Teaching Methodology 60 60
Numeric+ Reasoning 30 30
Total 120 120

The weightage of written test merit list is 70:30

31. Which amonst the following states sends highest number of parliamentarians in Lok Sabha?
a) Maharashtra
b) Bihar
c) Andhra Pradesh
d) Tamil Nadu
32. How many members can be nominated in Rajya Sabha by the President?
a) 10
b) 12
c) 17
d) 15
33. The provision of social security is the fundamental principle of
a) Laissez Faire Theory
b) Theory of Welfare State
c) Pluralistic Theory
d) Evolutionary Theory
34. Mangla oil well is located in
a) Haryana
b) Rajasthan
c) Goa
d) Assam
35. From which date the model code of conduct is enforced in elections?
a) From the date of notification
b) From the last date of filling the nomination
c) From the last date of withdrawal of candidatures
d) From the date of announcement of election schedule by the Election Commission
36. Which amonst the following was not a constituent Assembly Member?
a) G.Durgabai Deshmukh
b) Mrs. Hansa Mehta
c) Mrs. Renuka Ray
d) Vijaylaxmi Pandit
Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit was the first female President of United Nations General Assembly.
37. Which of the following crops had shown the maximum production increase after the beginning
of Green Revolution in 1960?
a) Wheat and Rice
b) Oil seeds
c) Pulses
d) All of the above
38. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
a) Cornwallis – Permanent Settlement
b) William Bentinck – Abolition of Sati Act
c) Lytton – Vernacular Press Act
d) Ripon – Rowlatt Act
39. Aurangzeb spent nearly 25 years in Deccan, because
a) He was totally free from North India
b) He wanted to shift his capital in South
c) He wanted to check Maratha expansion
d) He was not secured in his own capital
40. The theory which gave birth to the French Revolution and the Revolution in America is
a) Legal theory of rights
b) Theory of natural rights
c) Social welfare theory
d) Historical theory of rights
41. In Haryana, a Gram Sabha consists of
a) Elected members of village Panchayat
b) Members of Panchayat Samiti
c) Registered voters of the village/villages in the Panchayat circle
d) All residents of the village/villages in the Panchayat cirlce
42. Which one of the following is a national party?
a) Bahujan Samaj Party
b) Communist Party (Marxist)
c) Nationalist Congress Party
d) All of the above
43. On which plate margins maximum volcanoes & earthquakes occur?
a) Destructive Plate Margins
b) Constructive Plate Margins
c) Conservative Plate Margins
d) None of the above
44. Which of the following forest type cover the maximum area on Indian land?
a) Tropical rain forest
b) Tropical Deciduous forest
c) Mountain forest
d) Mangrove forest
45. Which one of the following means ‘by what authority’?
a) Habeas corpus
b) Quo warranto
c) Certiorari
d) Mandamus
46. 180o Longitude is known as
a) Prime Meridian
b) International Date Line
c) Greenwhich Time
d) Equator
47. Arrange the following Delhi Sultans in chronological order:
i) Qutub-ud-din Aibak
ii) Iltumish
iii) Razia
iv) Nasir-ud-din Mahmud

Choose the correct answer
a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
b) (i), (iv), (ii), (iii)
c) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
d) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
48. Karn Prayag is the confluence of
a) Bhagirathi & Alakhnanda
b) Bhagirathi & Pinder
c) Dholi Ganga & Alakhnanda
d) Alakhnanda & Pinder
49. Which soil is found in the areas of excessive leaching due to heavy rainfall?
a) Black
b) Laterite
c) Alluvial
d) Mountain
50. Which amonst the following statement is/are correct about IMF?
i) There are 188 member countries in IMF.
ii) It is a specialised agency of United Nations.
iii) In IMF meber states do not have equal voting rights.
iv) It gives loan and technical advice to meber countires in the balance of payments crisis.

a) (i) & (ii)
b) (i) & (iii)
c) (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv)
d) (i) & (iv)
51. Vembanad is
a) A Sea Port
b) Lagoon Lake
c) Mountain Peak
d) Multipupose project
52. The Asiatic Society of Bengal was founded by
a) Sir James Grant
b) Max Mullor
c) Sir Wlliam Jones
d) Macaulay
53. The feature which applies to pressure groups but not to political parties is
a) fielding of candidates for contesting election
b) objective of safeguarding the interest of whole society
c) Membership is exhaustive
d) Do not participate directly in political process
54. The Right which is a legal but not a fundamental right
a) Freedom to move freely
b) Right against expolitation
c) Right to minorities to establish educational institutions
d) Right to property
55. The retreating monsoon in Indian subcontinent is known as
a) South-West Monsoon
b) South-East Monsoon
c) North-East Monsoon
d) North-West Monsoon
56. In Indonesia the ‘splash and burn agriculture’ is called as
a) Jhoom
b) Roke
c) Milpa
d) Ladang
57. Where the first, second & third Earth Summits took place in 1992, 2002 & 2012 respectively?
a) Johannesburg, Doha, Rio De Janerio
b) Rio De Janerio, Johannesburg, Doha
c) Rio De Janerio, Kyoto, Johannesburg
d) Rio De Janerio, Johannesburg, Rio De Janerio
58. Which of the following is not a session of Lok Sabha?
a) Budget session
b) Summer session
c) Winter session
d) Monsoon Session
59. The constitutional schedule which contain the list of recognised laguages of India is
a) 7th Schedule
b) 8th Schedule
c) 9th Schedule
d) 10th Schedule
60. The newspaper, which upheld the nationalist cause during India’s struggle for freedom was
a) The Leader
b) The Civil & Military Gazette
c) Dawn
d) The Statesman
  #3  
8th December 2014, 10:18 AM
Unregistered
Guest
 
KVS PRT Question Paper

I want to get KVS PRT mains biology question paper will you please provide me that ?
  #4  
8th December 2014, 01:32 PM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Apr 2013
Re: KVS PRT Question Paper

As you want to get KVS PRT mains biology question paper so here I am giving you some questions of that paper:

1. Which of the following is a ‘club moss’ ?
(A) Selaginella
(B) Equisetum
(C) Lycopodium
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

2. Raphe in Marsilea is present in—
(A) Female gametophyte
(B) Sporocarp
(C) Sporophyte
(D) Male gametophyte
Ans : (B)

3. The stele type occurring in Marsilea is—
(A) Solenostele
(B) Protostele
(C) Amphiphloic Siphonostele
(D) All of these
Ans : (C)

4. The morphological nature of rhizophore of Selaginella is—
(A) Root like
(B) Stem like
(C) Both root and stem like
(D) Rhizoid like
Ans : (C)

5. The Selaginella shows—
(A) Large and small leaves arranged spirally
(B) All leaves large
(C) All leaves small
(D) All of these
Ans : (A)


6. The anatomy of Pinus needle reflects the features of a—
(A) Mesophyte
(B) Xerophyte
(C) Hydrophyte
(D) Epiphyte
Ans : (B)

7. Girdling leaf traces are the characteristic feature of the stem of—
(A) Cycas
(B) Pinus
(C) Ephedra
(D) Gnetum
Ans : (A)

8. Pinus is a—
(A) Tree
(B) Shrub
(C) Herb
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

9. The recent era is—
(A) Cenozoic
(B) Mesozoic
(C) Proterozoic
(D) Archeozoic
Ans : (A)

10. Fossils are found in—
(A) Igneous rocks
(B) Quartz
(C) Soil
(D) Sedimentary rocks
Ans : (D)

11. Reserve food material in fungi is—
(A) Glycogen
(B) Starch
(C) Sucrose
(D) Maltose
Ans : (A)

12. Which is rootless fern ?
(A) Pteris
(B) Dryopteris
(C) Salvinia
(D) Adiantum
Ans : (C)

13. Which is common between aerobic respiration and anaerobic respiration ?
(A) Similar substrate
(B) Glycolysis
(C) Pyruvic acid
(D) All of these
Ans : (B)

14. Turpentine oil is obtained from—
(A) Coal
(B) Petroleum
(C) Cedarwood
(D) Pinus
Ans : (D)

15. Which alga was used by Calvin and his co-workers in their experiments of photosynthesis ?
(A) Chlamydomonas
(B) Chlorella
(C) Chara
(D) Volvox
Ans : (B)

16. Which is an oilseed crop ?
(A) Marigold
(B) Chrysanthemum
(C) Rose
(D) Sunflower
Ans : (D)

17. The first transgenic plant used for commercial production was—
(A) Cotton
(B) Tomato
(C) Tobacco
(D) Rice
Ans : (B)

18. Rare hybrid plants can be saved by—
(A) Pollen culture
(B) Embryo culture
(C) Protoplast culture
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

19. Which is not a category ?
(A) Ecotype
(B) Species
(C) Genus
(D) Order
Ans : (A)

20. Linnaeus published his concept of binomial nomenclature first in—
(A) Systema Naturae
(B) Species Plantarum
(C) Genera Plantarum
(D) Philosophia Botanica
Ans : (B)

21. When chlorophyll is burnt which element is obtained ?
(A) Ca
(B) Na
(C) Mg
(D) Mn
Ans : (C)

22. Iron deficiency results in—
(A) Leaf tip necrosis
(B) Small leaves disease
(C) Decreased protein synthesis
(D) Intervenal chlorosis appearing first in young leaves
Ans : (D)

23. A phytohormone is—
(A) Naturally produced
(B) Synthetic substance
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

24. During the seismonastic movement in Mimosa pudica turgor changes occur in—
(A) Leaflets
(B) Stipules
(C) Pulvinus leaf base
(D) Petiole and stem
Ans : (C)

25. Evergeen trees remain green through the year on account of—
(A) Cold climate
(B) Absence of leaf fall
(C) Leaves falling in small number interval
(D) Supply of moisture throughout year
Ans : (C)

26. Phenotypic ratio of dihybrid test cross is—
(A) 15 : 1
(B) 3 : 1
(C) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(D) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
Ans : (C)

27. The damaged ozone layer is situated in—
(A) Ionosphere
(B) Mesosphere
(C) Stratosphere
(D) Troposphere
Ans : (C)

28. Which one of the following is ordinarily not an air pollutant ?
(A) CO2
(B) CO
(C) SO2
(D) Hydrocarbon
Ans : (A)

29. Genes are made by—
(A) Histones
(B) Lipoproteins
(C) Hydrocarbons
(D) Polynucleotides
Ans : (D)

30. The term ‘ecosystem’ was proposed by—
(A) Odum
(B) Tansley
(C) Whitker
(D) Goli
Ans : (B)

31. The first juvenile larva of Ascaris is known as—
(A) Filiform larva
(B) Rhabditiform larva
(C) Miracidium larva
(D) Microfilariae
Ans : (B)

32. Chromosomes contain—
(A) Protein only
(B) DNA and protein
(C) DNA, RNA and histone
(D) DNA, RNA, histone and non-histone proteins
Ans : (B)

33. Which are phagocytes in liver ?
(A) Kupffer cells
(B) Aciner cells
(C) Diter cells
(D) Hensen's cells
Ans : (A)

34. Termites digest wood with the help of an enzyme secreted by the—
(A) Salivary glands
(B) Cells in the midgut
(C) Symbiotic protozoa
(D) Bacteria and fungi outside the body
Ans : (C)

35. In honeybee colony the drones are produced by—
(A) Fertilized eggs
(B) Unfertilized eggs
(C) Larvae fed upon leaves
(D) Fasting larvae
Ans : (B)

36. Jacobson's organ is concerned with—
(A) Smell
(B) Burrowing
(C) Touch
(D) Vision
Ans : (A)

37. Body organisation in Hydra is of—
(A) Tissue grade
(B) Organ grade
(C) Cellular grade
(D) Organ system grade
Ans : (A)

38. Leech obtains continuous blood flow from its victim by pouring in it—
(A) Heparin
(B) Hirudin
(C) Insulin
(D) Pepsin
Ans : (B)

39. Spicules of Sponges are formed by—
(A) Procytes
(B) Pinacocytes
(C) Scleroblasts
(D) Thesocytes
Ans : (B)

40. Heterocoelous centrum is a characteristics of—
(A) Amphibia
(B) Reptilia
(C) Birds
(D) Mammalia
Ans : (C)

41. The exclusively sedentary protochordate animals are found in the class—
(A) Pterobranchia
(B) Larvacea
(C) Ascidiacea
(D) Thaliacea
Ans : (A)

42. Cytopyge is found in—
(A) Paramecium
(B) Entamoeba
(C) Amoeba
(D) Trypanosoma
Ans : (A)

43. Littoral form of animals is found—
(A) In fresh water
(B) In sea water near the shore
(C) In deep sea
(D) At the bottom of the sea
Ans : (D)

44. Bladder worm is a larva of—
(A) Obelia
(B) Silkmoth
(C) Taenia
(D) Nereis
Ans : (C)

45. Which of the following secretions associated with digestion does not have enzymes ?
(A) Bile
(B) Gastric juice
(C) Saliva
(D) Pancreatic juice
Ans : (A)

46. Yellow fever is transmitted by—
(A) Female Culex
(B) Female Anopheles
(C) Female Aedes
(D) Housefly
Ans : (C)

47. The covering membrane of the vacuole is known as—
(A) Tonoplast
(B) Cell wall
(C) Plasma layer
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

48. Age of fishes was known as—
(A) Devonian
(B) Ordovician
(C) Crustaceous
(D) Silurian
Ans : (A)

49. ‘Quartan malaria’ is caused by—
(A) Plasmodium vivax
(B) Plasmodium malariae
(C) Plasmodium ovale
(D) Plasmodium falciparum
Ans : (B)

50. The word ‘species’ was coined by—
(A) John Ray
(B) Mayer
(C) J. Huxley
(D) C. Linnaeus
Ans : (A)

51. An embryo of chick with 7 pairs of somites is—
(A) 20 hours old
(B) 22 hours old
(C) 24 hours old
(D) 18 hours old
Ans : (C)

52. In the mammals, cleavage result formation of solid mass of cells known—
(A) Blastula
(B) Gastrula
(C) Morula
(D) Neurula
Ans : (C)

53. F1particles are found in—
(A) Lysosome
(B) Mitochondria
(C) Golgi Body
(D) Endoplasmic reticulum
Ans : (B)

54. The name ‘polytene chromosome’ suggested by—
(A) E.G. Balbiani
(B) Kollar
(C) Heitz
(D) Bauer
Ans : (A)

55. Centriole is found in—
(A) Animal cells
(B) Red algae
(C) Prokaryotes
(D) Flowering plants
Ans : (A)

56. The first phylum of animal kingdom exhibiting bilateral symmetry is—
(A) Arthropoda
(B) Annelida
(C) Mollusca
(D) Platyhelminthes
Ans : (D)

57. The fresh water sponge is—
(A) Spongella
(B) Grantia
(C) Euplectella
(D) Euspongia
Ans : (A)

58. Flame cells are related with—
(A) Excretory system
(B) Digestive system
(C) Circulatory system
(D) Respiratory system
Ans : (A)

59. The intermediate host in the life cycle of F. hepatica (Liver fluke) is—
(A) Sheep
(B) Snail
(C) Man
(D) Bird
Ans : (B)

60. Vitelline membrane is found in—
(A) Birds
(B) Tunicates
(C) Fishes
(D) Mammals
Ans : (A)

61. Two-pigment system theory of photosynthesis was proposed by—
(A) Hill Emerson
(B) Emerson
(C) Blackmann
(D) Hatch and Slack
Ans : (B)

62. Photosynthetic pigments in chloroplast are embedded in membrane of—
(A) Thylakoids
(B) Photoglobin
(C) Matrix
(D) Envelope of chloroplast
Ans : (A)

63. The rate of photosynthesis is maximum in—
(A) Green light
(B) Blue light
(C) Red light
(D) White light
Ans : (C)

64. All energy is trapped in pigment system-1 in—
(A) ATP
(B) Carbohydrate
(C) NADH2
(D) P-700
Ans : (D)

65. How many ATP molecules are produced, as a net gain, during the complete breakdown of glucose ?
(A) 36
(B) 28
(C) 12
(D) 18
Ans : (A)

66. Father of taxonomy is—
(A) De Candolle
(B) Hooker
(C) Linnaeus
(D) Aristotle
Ans : (C)

67. For entry in gene pool, a mutation occur in—
(A) Somatic cells
(B) Germ cells
(C) Plasma proteins
(D) Somatic DNA
Ans : (B)

68. Vessels diffier from tracheids—
(A) In being living
(B) In being derived from a single cell
(C) In having vertical row of cells and their cross wall dissolved
(D) Because they conduct water
Ans : (C)

69. Which one is true nut ?
(A) Walnut
(B) Cashewnut
(C) Groundnut
(D) Coconut
Ans : (B)

70. After transcription, the mRNA molecule—
(A) Disintegrates
(B) Moves into cytoplasm
(C) Replicates itself
(D) Reassociates to form its structure
Ans : (B)

71. Fossilization is also known by the—
(A) Acclimatzation
(B) Pasteurization
(C) Preservation
(D) Tyndallization
Ans : (C)

72. The branch that deals with the plants studies in the geological past is called—
(A) Pteridology
(B) Palaeobotany
(C) Neurology
(D) Archaeology
Ans : (B)

73. Birbal Sahni Institute of Palaeobotany is situated at—
(A) Allahabad
(B) Delhi
(C) Mumbai
(D) Lucknow
Ans : (D)

74. In plants, largest egg is found in—
(A) Cycas
(B) Sequoia
(C) Pinus
(D) Selaginella
Ans : (A)

75. Which one of the following is an example of symbiosis ?
(A) Utricularia
(B) Agaricus
(C) Lichen
(D) Mango
Ans : (C)

76. Which of the following pteridophytes is known as ‘Horse-tail’ ?
(A) Rhynia
(B) Selaginella
(C) Equisetum
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

77. Marsilea is a—
(A) Homosporic pteridophyte
(B) Heterosporic pteridophyte
(C) Non-sporic pteridophyte
(D) Seeded pteridophyte
Ans : (B)

78. A plant bearing two types of spores is termed as—
(A) Heterospory
(B) Seed habit
(C) Homospory
(D) All of these
Ans : (A)

79. In Pinus present only—
(A) Male cone
(B) Female cone
(C) Male and female cones
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)

80. Number of cotyledons found in the embryo of Cycas is—
(A) 4
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 1
Ans : (B)

81. Bryophytes are—
(A) Aquatic
(B) Terrestrial
(C) Amphibious
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

82. Sporophyte is dependent on gametophyte in—
(A) Algae
(B) Pteridophyta
(C) Fungi
(D) Bryophyta
Ans : (D)

83. In gametophytic phase of Bryophyta the last cell is—
(A) Gamete
(B) Spore
(C) Elater
(D) Zygote
Ans : (A)

84. In Funaria, the calyptra is formed by—
(A) Antheridium
(B) Columella
(C) Capsule
(D) Archegonium
Ans : (D)

85. A bryophyte differes from pteridophyte in—
(A) Archegonia
(B) Lack of vascular tissue
(C) Independent gametophyte
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

86. Acid rain is mainly a mixture of—
(A) Sulphuric acid and nitric acid
(B) Hexane and methane
(C) Acetic acid and bromine
(D) Ascorbic acid and citric acid
Ans : (A)

87. Ribosomes are sites for—
(A) Protein synthesis
(B) Photosynthesis
(C) Fat synthesis
(D) Respiration
Ans : (A)

88. Pyramid of energy is—
(A) Alwayss inverted
(B) Always upright
(C) Sometimes inverted and sometimes upright
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

89. ATP is—
(A) An enzyme which brings about oxidation
(B) A hormone
(C) A molecule with high energy phosphate bond
(D) A protein
Ans : (C)

90. Which one of the following is not a feature of prokaryotic cell ?
(A) Absence of nuclear membrane and the nucleus
(B) Absence of cell organelles
(C) Absence of genetic material
(D) Absence of histone protein in the chromosome
Ans : (C)

91. Which one of the following is highly dangerous radioactive pollutant ?
(A) Phosphorus-32
(B) Sulphur-35
(C) Strontium-90
(D) Calcium-40
Ans : (C)

92. The indicator of SO2 pollution of air is—
(A) Lichen
(B) Fern
(C) Black mould
(D) Moss
Ans : (A)

93. The founder of cell theory was—
(A) Wolf
(B) Rudolf Virchow
(C) Myen, Von Moll and Raspail
(D) Schleiden and Schwann
Ans : (D)

94. Fats in our body are formed when—
(A) There is little glycogen in the body
(B) Blood sugar level becomes constant
(C) Glycogen storage in liver and muscles is completed
(D) Intake of protein is high
Ans : (C)

95. Liver performs several functions. One of these functions is—
(A) Histolysis
(B) Digestion of proteins
(C) Glycogenesis
(D) Maintaining salt balance
Ans : (C)

96. Poison fangs of snakes are—
(A) Maxillary teeth
(B) Specialized structures
(C) Premaxillary teeth
(D) Vomerine teeth
Ans : (A)

97. Wings of butterfly, bird and bat are—
(A) Homologous organs
(B) Analogous organs
(C) Unrelated organs
(D) Vestigeal organs
Ans : (B)

98. ‘Ozone Day’ is observed on—
(A) January, 30
(B) April, 21
(C) September, 16
(D) December, 5
Ans : (C)

99. Which one of the following is the link between Annelida and Mollusca ?
(A) Archaeopteryx
(B) Peripatus
(C) Neopilina
(D) Coelacanth
Ans : (C)

100. The heartbeat is regulated by—
(A) Pacemaker
(B) Vagus nerve
(C) Sympathetic nerve
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)
  #5  
8th December 2014, 04:28 PM
Unregistered
Guest
 
KVS PRT question paper

I am looking for the question paper of KVS PRT exam so will you provide me?
  #6  
8th December 2014, 05:18 PM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Apr 2013
Re: KVS PRT question paper

Ok, as you want the question paper of KVS PRT exam so here I am providing you.

KVS PRT exam question paper

1. Among the following Indian cities, which one is located most southward?

(1) Hyderabad

(2) Vishakhapatnam

(3) Panaji

(4) Belgaum

Ans. (3)

2. Match List- I (National Highway) with List-II (Connected Cities) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I List-II

(National Highway) (Connected Cities)

A. NH 3 1. Delhi -Lucknow

B. NH 4 2. Agra-Bikaner

C. NH 11 3. Agra-Mumbai

D. NH 24 4. Chennai-Thane (Mumbai)

Code:

A B C D

(1) 3 1 2 4

(2) 2 4 3 1

(3) 3 4 2 1

(4) 2 1 3 4

Ans. (3)

3. Match List- I (Defense Institute) with List- II (City) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I List-II

(Defense Institute) (City)

A. College of Defense Management 1. Pachmarhi

B. Army Air Defense College 2. Bangalore

C. Army Supply Corps (ASC) Centre and College 3. Secunderabad

D. Army Education Corps (AEC) Training College and Centre 4. Gopalpur

Code:

A B C D

(1) 3 4 2 1

(2) 1 2 4 3

(3) 3 2 4 1

(4) 1 4 2 3

Ans. (2)

4. Which of the following are Defense Public Sector Undertakings?

1. Goa Shipyard Limited

2. The Bharat Dynamics Limited

3. Mishra Dhatu Nigam Limited

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(1) 1 and 2

(2) 2 and 3

(3) l and 3

(4) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (1)

5. Match List- I (Young Indian Player) with List- II (Game/Sport) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I List-II

(Young Indian Player) (Game/Sports)

A. Armaan Ebrahim 1. Squash

B. Joshna Chinnappa 2. Hockey

C. Adrian D’Souza 3. Lawn Tennis

D. Karan Rastogi 4. Auto racing

5. Swimming

Code:

A B C D

(1) 2 3 5 1

(2) 4 1 2 3

(3) 2 1 5 3

(4) 4 3 2 1

Ans. (2)

6. Match List- I (Person) with List- II (Organization) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I List-II

(Person) (Organization)

A. Shiv Nadar 1. Satyam Computers

B. Kumaramangalam Birla 2. Tata Consultancy Services

C. R. Raju 3. Grasim Industries

D. S. Ramadorai 4. HCL Technologies

Codes:

A B C D

(1) 2 3 1 4

(2) 4 1 3 2

(3) 2 1 3 4

(4) 4 3 1 2

Ans. (4)

7. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(1) Gol Gumbaz : Hyderabad

(2) Tomb of Itmad-ud-daula : Agra

(3) Tomb of Sher Shah : Sasaram

(4) Tomb of Rani Rupmati : Ahmedabad

Ans. (1)

8. Where is the Baglihar Hydroelectric Project located?

(1) Ferozepur District of Punjab

(2) Doda District of Jammu and Kashmir

(3) Faridkot District of Punjab

(4) Baramulla District of Jammu and Kashmir

Ans. (2)

(For the next Five Items)

ABC Ltd. presently has three Accounts Assistants (A. B and C) and five Accounts Officers (D, E, F, G and H). Its management is planning to-open a new office in another city using 3 Accounts Officers and 2 Accounts Assistants from its present staff. The following guidelines have been established to set up the new: office.

1. A and C are constantly finding faults with each other and should not be sent as members of the same team.

2. C and E function well alone but not as a team. They should not be sent as members of the same team:

3. D and G do not enjoy good relations. They should not be sent as members of the same team

4. Since D and F have been competing for a promotion, they should not be sent as members of the same team.

Based upon the above, answer the next five items:

9. If C and F are moved to the new office, what is the number of different teams that can be formed?

(1) 1

(2) 2

(3) 3

(4) 4

Ans. (1)

10. If C is sent to the new office which member of the staff can not go with C?

(1) H

(2) G

(3) F

(4) D

Ans. (4)

11. Under the guidelines developed, which of the following must go to the office?

(1) B

(2) D

(3) E

(4) G

Ans. (1)

12. Under the guidelines developed, which one of the following is the possible number of different teams, which can be sent to the new office?

(1) 15

(2) 12

(3) 8

(4) 6

Ans. (4)

13. If D goes to the new office which of the following is/are correct?

1. C cannot go.

2. A cannot go.

3. H must also go.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(1) 1 only

(2) 2 only

(3) l and 2

(4) 1 and 3

Ans. (4)

14. Consider the following statements

1. Megabyte (MB) is exactly equal to 2 20 bytes.

2. A byte is a unit of data that is eight binary digits long.

3. A bit has a single binary value, either 0 or 1.

Which of the statements given above is are correct?

(1) 2 only

(2) 3 only

(3) 1 and 2

(4) 1, 2, and 3

Ans. (4)

15. Consider the following statements.

1. Bluetooth technology uses simulation of a given environment.

2. Virtual reality uses short-range wireless connection for connecting mobile phones, computers with each other.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) 1 only

(2) 2 only

(3) Both 1 and 2

(4) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (4)

16. Match List -I (Temple/Cathedral) with List-II (Place) and select the correct answer using the code given below the list:

List-I List-II

(Temple/Cathedral) (Place)

A. Brihadeswara Temple 1. Guwahati

B. Vishwanatha Temple 2. Chennai

C. Kamakhya Temple 3. Thanjavur

D. Santhome Cathedral 4. Khajuraho

Codes:

A B C D

(1) 3 2 1 4

(2) 1 4 3 2

(3) 3 4 1 2

(4) 1 2 3 4

Ans. (3)

17. Match List -I (Scholar) with List- II (Work) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I List-II

(Scholar) (Work)

A. Panini 1. Brihatsamhita

B. Varahamihira 2. Vedanga Jyotisha

C. Lagdhacharya 3. Rajatragani

D. Kalhana 4. Asthadhyayi

Codes:

A B C D

(1) 4 1 2 3

(2) 3 2 1 4

(3) 4 2 1 3

(4) 3 1 2 4

Ans. (1)

18. Match List -I (World Heritage Site) with List- II (State) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I List-II

(World Heritage Site) (State)

A. Manas Wildlife Sanctuary 1. Bihar

B. Mahabodhi Temple Complex 2. Uttranchal

C. Group of Monuments, Pattadakal 3. Assam

D. Nandadevi National Park 4. Karnataka

Codes:

A B C D

(1) 2 4 1 3

(2) 3 1 4 2

(3) 2 1 4 3

(4) 3 4 1 2

Ans. (2)

(For the next THREE items)

In a group of six men and women—A, B, C, D, and F there are two housewives who have not taken up a any job one lecturer, one architect, one accountant and one lawyer. Further,

1. There are two married couples in the group.

2. The lawyer is married to D who is a housewife and she has not taken up any job

3. No lady in the group is either an accountant or an architect

4. C who is an accountant is married to F who is a lecturer

5. A is married to D and E is not one of the two non-working housewives.

Based on the above, answer the next THREE items:

19. Which of the fo1loing is a married couple?

(1) A-B

(2) A-F

(3) C-E

(4) None of the above.

Ans. (4)

20. What is E-working as?

(1) Lawyer

(2) Architect

(3) Lecturer

(4) Accountant

Ans. (2)

21 How many members of the group are males?

(1) 2

(2) 3

(3) 4

(4) Cannot be determined

Ans. (2)

22. Consider the following statements:

1. Black soils occur mainly in Maharashtra, Western Madhya Pradesh, and Gujarat.

2. Alluvial soils are confined mainly to the Northern plains

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) l only

(2) 2 only

(3) Both l and 2

(4) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (3)

23. Consider the following statements:

1. India has an installed e1ectrlc power generation’ capacity of more than 1 lakh MW.

2. The total hydroelectric power potential of India is estimated around. 1, 50,000MW.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(1) 1 only

(2) 2 only

(3) Both 1 and 2

(4) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (1)

24. Match List –I (Ore) with List-II (Metal) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I List-II

(Ore) (Metal)

A. Magnetite 1. Lead

B. Galena 2. Zinc

C. Bauxite 3. Iron

D. Sphalerite 4. Aluminum

Codes:

A B C D

(1) 3 4 1 2

(2) 2 1 4 3

(3) 3 1 4 2

(4) 2 4 1 3

Ans. (3)

25. Who among the following is the first to have taken 600 test cricket wickets?

(1) Courtney Walsh

(2) Glenn McGrath

(3) Shane Warne

(4) M. Murlitharan

Ans. (3)

26. Match List- I (Person) with List-II (Organization) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I List-II

(Person) (Organization)

A. E. Shreedharan 1. SEBI

B. M. Damodaran 2. Atomic Energy Commission

C. A. Kakodkar 3. Nuclear Power Corporation of India

D. S. K. Jain 4. Delhi Metro Rail corporation

Code:

A B C D

(1) 4 1 2 3

(2) 2 3 4 1

(3) 4 3 2 1

(4) 2 1 4 3

Ans. (1)
  #7  
9th May 2015, 10:18 AM
Unregistered
Guest
 
Re: KVS PRT question paper

Hello sir here I am looking for the Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan PRT previous year question paper of GK so can you please provide me this?
  #8  
9th May 2015, 10:18 AM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Apr 2013
Re: KVS PRT question paper

As per your request here I am sharing the question paper of GK of Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan PRT exam

1. For instant energy, athletes take :
a) Sucrose
b) Vitamin C
c) Sodium chloride
d) Milk
2. Which Sufi Saint’s Dargah is at Ajmer?
a) Salim Chishti
b) Muinuddin Chisti
c) Baba Farid
d) Hazrat Nizamuddin
3. Through which one among the following materials does sound travel the slowest?
a) Air
b) Glass
c) Water
d) Wood
4. The wheel (chakra) in Indian National Flag contains how many spokes?
a) 12
b) 18
c) 24
d) 26
5. In eye donation, which of the following parts of eyes is utilized?
a) Iris
b) Lews
c) Corena
d) Retina
6. Which among the following is not a Tennis Player?
a) Serena Williams
b) Steffie Graff
c) Martina Navratilova
d) Ricky Ponting
7. The number of chromosomes in a normal human body is:
a) 46
b) 43
c) 44
d) 45
8. Indian Railways earn the maximum revenue from :
a) passenger fare
b) freight
c) traffic tax
d) passenger tax
9. The time gap between two successive sessions of Parliament is not to exceed :
a) 4 months
b) 6 months
c) One year
d) What is specified by the President
10. The pH of human blodd is between :
a) 5 – 6.5
b) 6.5 – 7.5
c) 7.5 – 8
d) 8 – 8.5
Human blood has a normal pH of about 7.41 lies in the range 7.35 – 7.45
11.The process of metamorphosis of rocks may involve :
a) Sandstone turning into quartzite
b) Limestone becoming marble
c) Shale getting converted into slate
d) All of the above
12. The Constitution of India provides for the nominations of two members of Lok Sabha
by the President to represent :
a) The Paris
b) Men of eminence
c) The business community
d) The Anglo-Indian community
13. Which language is not specified in the 8th Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
a) Sanskrit
b) Sindhi
c) Urdu
d) Rajasthani
14.Which of the following pairs of language and its one of the greatest poet are not correctly matched?
a) Hindi – Kalidas
b) Bengali – R. N. Tagore
c) Urdu – Ghalib
d) Greek – Homer
Kalidas is the greatest sanskrit poet
15. Which of the following is concerned with the trade unions?
a) GNDU
b) BHU
c) INTUC
d) LDC
INTUC = Indian National Trade Union Congress
16. World No Tabacco Day is observed on :
a) 31 May
b) 11 June
c) 28 September
d) 10 October
17. Roof of the world is :
a) Pamirs
b) Tibet
c) Himalayas
d) Mount Everest
18. New Bank of India has been merged with which bank?
a) State Bank of India
b) Central Bank of India
c) Punjab National Bank
d) Canara Bank
19. Where are the head quarters of International Red Cross Committee?
a) Berlin
b) Prague
c) Moscow
d) Geneva
20. Choose the wrong definition :
a) Contour – Areas of equal height above the sea level
b) Isotherms – Area having the same temperature
c) Isohytes – Equal rainfall areas
d) Isobath – Places of equal atmospheric pressure
Isobars lines represent places of equal atmospheric pressure.
Isobath is the line connecting the points underwater with same depth.
21. Which of the following countries is not grouped with caribbeans?
a) Cuba
b) Bermuda
c) Jordon
d) Anguilla
22. India’s national emblem is :
a) Lotus flower
b) Lioned Capital
c) Lion
d) Cow
23. ‘Davis Cup’ is associated with the sport :
a) Lawn Tennis
b) Cricket
c) Hockey
d) Badminton
24. Which of the following is a famous ‘violin’ player?
a) Zia Moinuddin Khan
b) S. Balchandran
c) Sajjad Hussain
d) L. Subramaniam
25. “Trippani” is a dance/ dance drama of the state:
a) Maharashtra
b) Rajasthan
c) Gujarat
d) Manipur
26. Match the following and choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
I. Govinda 1. Rashtrakutas
II. Aryabhatta 2. Gupta Dynasty
III. Banabhatta 3. Harshavardhana
IV. Samundra Gupta 4. Indian Napolean

Codes :
I II III IV
a) 2 3 4 1
b) 1 2 3 4
c) 3 4 2 1
d) 4 3 1 2
27. Wazir -e-Azam of Pakistan presently is :
a) Asaf Ali Zardari
b) Syed Yousaf Raza Gillani
c) Parvez Musharraf
d) Muhammad Mian Soomro
28. Oscar award 2010 for best picture was given to :
a) Avatar
b) District 9
c) The Hurt Locker
d) An Education
29. Rate of evaporation does not depend on :
a) temperature of the liquid
b) surface area of the liquid
c) total mass of the liquid
d) air pressure
26. Match the following and choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
I. Sodium bicarbonate 1. Bleaching powder
II. Calcium carbonate 2. Baking soda
III. Potash 3. Chalk
IV. Calcium hypochlorite 4. Alum
Codes :
I II III IV
a) 1 2 4 3
b) 2 3 4 1
c) 4 2 3 1
d) 3 1 4 2
31. Robert Koch worked on :
a) Tuberculosis
b) Cholera
c) Malaria
d) Diabetes
32. Right to property is a :
a) Fundamental Right
b) Directive Principle
c) Legal Right
d) Social Right
33. The fifity-fifth amendment 1986 conferred statehood on :
a) Chhattisgarh
b) Sikkim
c) Arunachal Pradesh
d) Jharkhand
34. The Vice-President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of :
a) The elected members of Parliament
b) The members of both the houses of Parliament
c) The elected members of Parliament and State assemblies
d) Members of Loksabha and Legislative Councils
35. Which article of the Constitution provides the Parliament the power to amend the Constitution?
a) 370
b) 368
c) 390
d) 376


Quick Reply
Your Username: Click here to log in

Message:
Options




All times are GMT +5. The time now is 06:55 AM.


Powered by vBulletin® Version 3.8.11
Copyright ©2000 - 2024, vBulletin Solutions Inc.
SEO by vBSEO 3.6.0 PL2

1 2 3 4