JTO forms Date

I want to appear in JTO exam so please tell me the Last date of issuing of JTO forms?

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BSNL (Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited) conducts JTO (Junior Telecom Officer) exams

Tentative Dates:
Last date of applying to the registration form: March beginning
Date of the exam: Last week of the April
Declaration of the result: 10th May/June.
Admit card will be issued from: April 2nd week.

Eligibility Criteria:
Candidates must have B.E or B.Tech in IT/CSE/ECS/Mechanical with 50% marks, from recognized university.

Age limit:
21 to 35 years

Registration criteria:
Applicants must visit the official website.
Send all the relevant documents like caste, educational, birth certificate with a registration form.
No transaction will be deducted

BSNL JTO Question paper
If the voltage applied across a capacitance is triangular in waveform then the
waveform of the current is-a) Triangular b) Trapezoidal c) Sinusoidal d)
Rectangular Answer is :-Rectangular
1. 1. One of the following statement which is true for relative dielectric
constant is a) It is dimensionless b) It is not equal to unity for vacuum c) It's
value for all substances is less than one d) None Answer is :-It is
dimensionless
2. 2. Pure metals generally have-a) high conductivity and low temperature
coefficient b) high conductivity and large temperature coefficient c) low
conductivity and zero temperature coefficient d) low conductivity and high
temperature coefficient Answer is :-high conductivity and large
temperature coefficient
3. 3. For small size, high frequency coils, the most common core material is
a) Air b) Ferrite c) Powdered ion d) Steel Answer is :-Air
4. For an abrupt junction Varactor diode, the dependence of device
capacitance (C) on applied reverse bias (V) is given by-a) C a V1/3 b) C a V-1/3
c) C a V1/2
d) C a V-1/2 Answer is :-C a V-1/3
4. 5. A superconductor is aa) A material showing perfect conductivity and
Meissner effect below a critical temperature b) A conductor having zero
resistance c) A perfect conductor with highest dimagnetic susceptibility d) A
perfect conductor which becomes resistive when the current density through it
exceeds a critical value Answer is :-A material showing perfect conductivity
and Meissner effect below a critical temperature
5. 6. When a semiconductor based temperature transducer has a
temperature coefficient of –2500 mV/0C then this transducer is indeed aa)
Thermistor b) Forward biased pn junction diode c) Reverse biased pn junction
diode d) FET Answer is :-Forward biased pn junction diode
6. 7. The location of lightning arrestor is a) Near the transformer b) Near the
circuit breaker c) Away from the transformer d) None Answer is :-Near the
transformer
7. 8. Time constant of an RC circuit increases if the value of the resistance is
a) Increased b) Decreased c) Neither a nor b d) Both a and b Answer is
:-Increased
8. 9. Intrinsic semiconductors are those which a) Are available locally b) Are
made of the semiconductor material in its purest from c) Have more electrons
than holes d) Have zero energy gaps Answer is :-Are made of the
semiconductor material in its purest from
9. 10. The primary control on drain current in a JFET is exerted by a)
Channel resistance b) Size of depletion regions c) Voltage drop across channel
d) Gate reverse bias Answer is :-Gate reverse bias
10. 11. The electrical conductivity of metals which is expressed in ohm-1 m-1
is of the order of a) 1010 b) 105 c) 10-4 d) 10-6 Answer is :-105
11. 12. When biased correctly, a zener diode – a) acts as a fixed resistance b)
has a constant voltage across it c) has a constant current passing through it d)
never overheats Answer is :-has a constant voltage across it
12. 13. The current amplification factor adc is given by – a) IC/IE b) IC/IB c)
IB/IC d) IB/IC Answer is :-IC/IE
13. 14. Compared to bipolars, FETs have-a) high input impedance b) low
input impedance c) same input impedance d) none Answer is :-high input
impedance
14. 15. The source-drain channel of JFET is a) ohmic b) bilateral c) unilateral
d) both a and b Answer is :-both a and b
15. 16. diac is equivalent to a a) Pair of SCRs b) Pair of four layer SCRs c)
Diode and two resistors d) Triac width Answer is :-Pair of four layer SCRs
16. 17. When a sample of N type semiconductor has electron density of
17. 6.25 ´ 1011 /cm3 at 300K and if the intrinsic concentration of carriers in
this sample is 2.5 ´ 1013/cm3 then the hole density will be – a) 106/cm3 b)
103/ cm3 c) 1010/ cm3 d) 1012/ cm3 Answer is :-103/ cm3
1. 18. The statement 'In any network of linear impedances, the current
flowing at any point is equal to the algebraic sum of the currents caused to flow
at that point by each of the sources of emf taken separately with all other emf's
reduced to zero' represents a) Kirchhoff's law b) Norton's theorem c) Thevenin's
theorem d) Superposition theorem Answer is :-Superposition theorem
2. 19. One of the following modes which has the characteristics of
attenuation becoming less as the frequency is increased and is attractive at
icrowave frequencies of circular cylindrical wave guides is – a) TE1 mode b)
TM01 mode c) TE01 mode d) Higher order mode Answer is :-TE01 mode
3. 20. A two-port network is symmetrical if – a) z11z22 – z12z21 = 1 b)
h11h22 – h12h21 = 1 c) AD – BC = 1 d) y11y22 – y12y21 = 1 Answer is :-AD
– BC = 1
4. 21. For transmission line load matching over a range of frequencies, it is
best to use aa) balun b) broad band directional coupler c) double stub d) single
stub of adjustable position Answer is :-double stub
5. 22. The poles and zeros of a driving point function of a network are
simple and interlace on the negative real axis with a pole closest to the origin. It
can be realised a) by an LC network b) as an RC driving point impedance c) as
an RC driving point admittance d) only by an RLC network Answer is:-only by
an RLC network
6. 23. Poles and zeros of a driving point function of a network are simple
and interlace on the jw axis. The network consists of elements – a) R and C b) L
and C c) R and L d) R, L and C Answer is :-L and C
7. 24. For a two port reciprocal network, the output open circuit voltage
divided by the input current is equal to – a) B b) Z12 c) — d) h12 Answer is
:-Z12
8. 25. In a short electric doublet the radiation properties are so that-a) The
induction field diminishes as the square root of the distance and is only
appreciable in the vicinity of the conductor. b) In the radiation, magnetic field is
minimum when the current is maximum. c) The radiation resistance of a short
doublet antenna is extremely high. d) Mean rate of power through a unit area of
spherical sphere surrounding this doublet is proportional to the square of the
elemental
length, other factors remaining constant. Answer is :-Mean rate of power
through a unit area of spherical sphere surrounding this doublet is
proportional to the square of the elemental length, other factors
remaining constant.
1. 26. The frequency modulated (FM) radio frequency range is nearly a) 250
–300 MHz b) 150 – 200 MHz c) 90 – 105 MHz d) 30-70 MHz Answer is :-90 –
105 MHz
2. 27. In an underground cable the distortion in the transmission of carrier
frequency can be eliminated by using a) Inductive loading b) Resistive loading
c) Capacitive loading d) Shielding Answer is :-Inductive loading
3. 28. The characteristic impedance of a transmission line with inductance
0.294 mH /m and capacitance 60 pF/m is a) 49 W b) 60 W c) 70 W d) 140 W
Answer is :-70 W
4. 30. For a quarter wavelength ideal transmission line of characteristic
impedance 50 ohms and load impedance 100 ohms, the input impedance will be
– a) 25W b) 50W c) 100W d) 150W Answer is :-25W
5. 31. The depth of penetration or skin depth for an electromagnetic field of
frequency 'f' in a conductor of resistivity r and permeability m is-a) inversely
proportional to r and f and directly proportional to m b) directly proportional to r
and inversely proportional to f and m c) directly proportional to f and inversely
proportional to r and m d) inversely proportional to r and m and directly
proportional to f Answer is :-directly proportional to r and inversely
proportional
to f and m
1. 32. When an antenna has a gain of 44dB then assuming that the main
beam of the antenna is circular in cross-section the beam width will be -a)
0.4456 0 b) 1.44560 c) 2.44560 d) 3.44560 Answer is :-2.44560
2. 33. Lens antennas used for microwaves are usually made of a)
Polystyrene b) Glass of low refractive index c) Paraboloid surfaces d) Dielectric
media having large refractive index Answer is :-Polystyrene
3. 34. One of the following types of instrument which is an electrometer is -
a) Electrodynamometer b) PMMC c) Electrostatic d) Moving iron Answer is
:-Electrostatic
4. 35. When an ac current of 5A and dc current of 5A flow simultaneously
through a circuit then which of the following statement is true ? a) An ac
ammeter will read less than 10A but more than 5A b) An ac ammeter will read
only 5A c) A dc ammeter will read 10A d) A dc ammeter will read zero Answer is
:-An ac ammeter will read less than 10A but more than 5A
5. 36. When Q factor of a circuit is high, then a) power factor of the circuit is
high b) impedance of the circuit is high c) bandwidth is large d) none of these
Answer is :-none of these
_ .37. The resolution of a logic analyser is a) the maximum number of input
channels
_ .b) the minimum duration of the glitch it can capture c) it's internal clock
period d) the minimum amplitude of input signal it can display Answer is :-the
minimum amplitude of input signal it can display
6. 38. A memoryless system is – a) causal b) not causal c) nothing can be
said d) none Answer is :-causal
7. 39. An air capacitor is a – a) time variant b) active device c) time
invariant d) time invariant and passive device Answer is :-time invariant and
passive device
8. 40. Thermistors are made of a) pure metals b) pure insulators c) sintered
mixtures of metallic oxides d) pure semiconductor Answer is :-sintered
mixtures of metallic oxides
9. 41. Pirani gauge is used to measure – a) very low pressures b) high
pressures c) pressures in the region of 1 atm d) fluid flow Answer is :-very low
pressures
10. 42. These circuits converts input power at one frequency to output power
at a different frequency through one stage conversion – a) AC voltage
controllers b) Cyclo converters c) Phase controlled rectifiers d) Inverters Answer
is :-Cyclo converters
_ .43. In a forward voltage Triggering thyristor changes from – a) off state to
on state
_ .b) on state to off state c) on state to on state d) off state to off state Answer
is :-off state to on state
11. 44. A thyristor, when triggered, will change from forward blocking state to
conduction state if its anode to cathode voltage is equal to a) peak repetitive off
state forward voltage b) peak working off state forward voltage c) peak working
off state reverse voltage d) peak non-repetitive off state forward voltage
Answer is :-peak working off state forward voltage
12. 45. Gate characteristic of a thyristor-a) is a straight line passing through
origin b) is of the type Vg = a + bIg c) is a curve between Vg and Ig d) has a
spread between two curves of Vg – Ig Answer is :-has a spread between two
curves of Vg – Ig
13. 46. A four quadrant operation requires-a) two full converters in series b)
two full converters connected back to back c) two full converters connected in
parallel d) two semi converters connected back to back Answer is :-two full
converters connected back to back
14. 47. If for a single phase half bridge inverter, the amplitude of output
voltage is Vs and the output power is P, then their corresponding values for a
single phase full bridge inverter are – a) Vs, P b) Vs/2, P c) 2Vs, 2P d) 2Vs, P
Answer is :-2Vs, 2P
15. 48. In an enhancement type MOSFET the output V-I characteristics has –
a) only an ohmic region b) only a saturation region c) only ohmic region at 10
W voltage value followed by a saturation region at higher voltages d)an ohmic
region at large voltage values preceded by a saturation region at lower voltages
Answer is :-only ohmic region at 10 W voltage value followed by a
saturation region at higher voltages
1. 49. The energy gap in a semiconductor a) increases with temperature b)
remains constant c) slightly increase with temperature d) decrease with
temperature Answer is :-decrease with temperature
2. 50. In an electronic circuit matching means a) connecting a high
impedance directly to low impedance b) selection of components which are
compatible c) transferring maximum amount of signal between different kinds
of circuits. d) RC coupled stages Answer is :-transferring maximum amount
of signal between different kinds of circuits.
3. 51. P channel FETs are less superior than N channel FETs because a) They
have higher input impedance b) They have high switching time c) They
consume less power d) Mobility of electrons is greater than that of holes Answer
is :-Mobility of electrons is greater than that of holes
4. 52. Small increase in temperature in the CE connected transistor is the
-a) Increase in ICEO b) Increase in ac current gain c) Decrease in ac current
gain d) Increase in output resistance Answer is :-Increase in ICEO
5. 53. An amplifier has a band width of 20 KHz and a midband gain of 50
without feedback. If a negative feedback of 1% is applied then bandwidth with
feedback is a) 13. 3 KHz b) 30KHz c) 10KHz d) 40KHz Answer is :-30KHz
54. The output of a class B amplifier
a) is distortion free b) consists of positive half cycles only c) is like the
output of a full wave rectifier d) comprises short duration current pulses Answer
is :- consists of positive half cycles only
6. 55. An amplifier with negative feedback a) lowers its lower 3 dB
frequency b) raises its upper 3 dB frequency c) increases its bandwidth d) all of
the above Answer is :-all of the above
7. 56. What changes would be necessary in block C if FM signals are to be
received a) Block becomes redundant b) A FM detector would be required c) A
high frequency signal generator 1d) An additional local oscillator will be needed
Answer is :-A FM detector would be required
8. 57. The main disadvantage of Diode-Transistor logic (DTL) is its-a)
greater speed b) slower speed c) average speed d) none of the above Answer is
:-slower speed
9. 58. Time delay Dt in digital signals in an SIS O shift register is given by –
a) Dt = N ´ Fc b) Dt = N ´ 1/Fc c) Dt = 1/N ´ Fc d) Dt = N ¸ 1/Fc Answer is
:-Dt = N ´ 1/Fc
10. 59. The output Qn is 1 in a JK flip flop and it does not change when clock
pulse is applied) The possible combination of Jn and Kn can be – (y denotes
don't care) a) y and 0 b) y and 1 c) 0 and y d) 1 and y Answer is :-y and 0
11. 60. Basic memory cell of dynamic RAM consists of – a) a flip flop b) a
transistor acting as a capacitor c) a transistor d) a capacitance Answer is :-a
transistor acting as a capacitor
12. 61. The 2's complement of 10002 is – a) 0111 b) 0101 c) 1000 d) 0001
Answer is :-1000
13. 62. Master slave flip-flop is made up of – a) two flip flops connected in
series b) two flip flops connected in parallel c) a debouncer circuit d) a-D- latch
Answer is :-two flip flops connected in series
14. 63. Number of nybbles making one byte is – a) 2 b) 4 c) 8 d) 16 Answer
is :-2
15. 64. The intrinsic impedance of free space-a) is independent of frequency
b) decreases with increase of frequency c) increases with increase of frequency
d) varies as square root of frequency Answer is :-is independent of
frequency
16. 65. A system consists of 12 poles and 2 zeroes. Its high frequency
asymptote in its magnitude plot has a slope of a) –200 dB/decade b) –240
dB/decade c) –230 dB/decade d) –320 dB/decade Answer is :-–200
dB/decade
17. 66. Considering the conditions
1. High loop gain 2. Less ringing 3. Greater damping 4 Negative dB gain margin
System stability requirements would include?
a) 1 and 3 b) 1, 2 and 3 c) 1 and 4 d) 2, 3 and 4 Answer is :-2, 3 and 4
1. 67. In the equatorial plane only Geosynchronous satellite are launched
because it is the only plane which provides – a) 24 hour orbit b) stationary
satellite c) global communication d) zero-gravity environs Answer is
:-stationary satellite
2. 68. Radio Broadcasting is an example of – a) space multiplexing b) time
multiplexing c) frequency multiplexing d) none of the above Answer is
:-frequency multiplexing
3. 69. PAM signals can be demodulation by using a – a) Low pass filters
(LPE) alone b) A Schmitt trigger followed by a LPF c) A differentiator followed by
a LPF d) A clipper circuit by a LPF Answer is:-A clipper circuit by a LPF
4. 70. In an FDM receiver channels can be separated by using – a) AND
gates b) Band pass c) differentiation d) Integration Answer is :-AND gates
71. The most common modulation system used for telegraphy is-a)
frequency shift keying b) two – tone modulation c) pulse code modulation
d) single tone modulation Answer is :-frequency shift keying
5. 72. Use of varoctor diode in generation of modulated segial bea) FM
generation only b) 100AM generation only c) PM generation only d) both PM and
AM generation Answer is :-FM generation only
6. 73. In colour picture tube shadow mask is used to-a) reduce x-ray
emission b) ensure that each beam strikes only its own dots c) increase screen
brightness d) provide degaussing for the screen Answer is :-increase screen
brightness
7. 74. The circuit that separates composite video warefore from the sync
pulses is-a) the keyed AGC amplifar b) a clipper c) an integrator d) a sawtooth
current Answer is :-a sawtooth current
8. 75. Band width of microwaves is-a) 1GHz -103 GHz b) 1GHz –100 GHz c)
1 GHz –10 GHz d) 1 GHz – 106 GHz Answer is :-1GHz -103 GHz
9. 76. In transverse Magnetic mode-a) no electric line is in direction of
propagation b) no magnetic line is in direction of propagation c) bath magnetic
& electric lines are is direction of propagation d) neither magnetic nor electric
lines in direction of propagation Answer is :-no magnetic line is in direction
of propagation
10. 77. Signal transmission in sky wave propagation is due to – a) Reforction
of wave b) Reflection of wave c) Pierus through Inosphere d) None
Answer is :-Reforction of wave
1. 78. According to Barkhausen Criterion Phase shift of signal should be – a)
6000 b) 9000 c) 18000 d) 36000 Answer is :-3600
2. 79. The transmission does not have a) Partition noise b) Flicker noise c)
resistance d) Short noise Answer is :-Partition noise
3. 80. Varoctor diode has non linearity of a) capacitance b) Inductance c)
Resistance d) Is a linear device Answer is :-capacitance
4. 81. Noise figure is calculated as – a) i/p signal to noise ratio X o/p signal
to noise ratio b) i/p S/N Ratio / O/P S/N Ratio c) i/p S/N Ratio / O/P S/N Ratio X
100 d) i/p S/N Ratio + O/P S/N Ratio Answer is :-i/p S/N Ratio / O/P S/N
Ratio
5. 82. You can determine quickly the effect of adding poles and zeros by –
a) Nicholas chart b) Nyquist plot c) Bode plot d) Root locus. Answer is :-Bode
plot
_ .83. The polar plot of G(S) = intercepts real axis at w = wo. Then, the real
part and wo are given by-a) –5, 1 b) –2.5, 1 c) –5,0-5 d) –5, 2
_ .Answer is :-–5, 1
6. 84. Laplace transform F (s) of a function f (E) is given by
F(s)=10s(s+7)/(s+1)(s+8)(s+10) The initial and final values of F (t) will be
respectively-a) zero and 1 b) zero and 10 c) 10 and zero d) 70 and 80 Answer
is :-10 and zero
7. 85. A satellite link uses different frequencies for receiving and
transmitting in order to – a) avoid interference from terrestrial microwave links
b) avoid interference between its powerful transmitted signals and weak in
coming signal c) minimize free-space losses d) maximize antenna gain Answer
is :-avoid interference between its powerful transmitted signals and
weak in coming signal
8. 86. The first determining factor in selecting a satellite system is its-a)
EIRP b) Antenna size c) Coverage area d) Antenna gain Answer is :-Coverage
area
9. 87. Equalizing pulses in TV are sent during-a) horizontal blanking b)
vertical blanking c) the serrations d) the horizontal retrace Answer is :-vertical
blanking
10. 88. The son seems to have ——– from his father a somewhat gloomy and
moody manner-a) washed b) inherited c) admired d) attempt Answer is
:-inherited
_ .89. Essayist works with words as sculptor with
_ .a) water b) stone c) air d) hills Answer is :-stone
11. 90. What is a collection of sheep called ?a) bunch b) flock c) herd d)
comet Answer is :-flock
12. 91. Join these sentences meaningfully by choosing the correct alternative
from the following : You can buy a book. You can read it. a) and b) nor c) either
d) neither Answer is :-and
13. 92. What is the opposite of Asperity – a) gentility b) superiority c)
kindness d) clarity Answer is :-superiority
14. 93. The Election Commission functions under-a) Ministry of Home Affairs
b) Ministry of Law c) Prime Minister's Secretariat d) None of these Answer is
:-None of these
15. 94. Article 352 of Indian Constitution needs to be revoked in case-a)
President's Rule is to be imposed b) Emergency is declared c) Services of a
Government servant are to be terminated without any enquiry d) A political
party of national level is to be banned Answer is :-Emergency is declared
16. 95. Radio-activity was first discovered by-a) Becquerel b) Madam Curie c)
Rutherford d) Jenner Answer is :-Becquerel
17. 96. Ninth Plan in India ranges from-a) 1995-2000 b) 1996-2001 c)
1997-2002 d) 1998-2003 Answer is :-1997-2002
18. 97. How much electricity does India propose to generate through nuclear
power by the year 2000 AD? a) 5,000 MW b) 10,000 MW c) 15,000 MW d)
20,000 MW Answer is :-10,000 MW
19. 98. In which year did the fall of Bastille take place?a) 1769 b) 1789 c)
1889 d) 1869 Answer is :-1789
20. 99. To form a quorum how many members of the Lok Sabha or Rajya
Sabha should be present? a) 1/10th of total membership b) 1/6th of total
membership c) 1/4th of total membership d) 1/5th of total membership Answer
is :-1/10th of total membership
100. How may countries are non-permanent members of the Security Council?
a) 6 b) 7 c) 9 d) 10 Answer is :-10 101. The International Date Line is
represented by-a) 1000meridian b) 000 meridian c) 1800meridian d) 900
meridian Answer is :-1800 meridian
102. India's first satellite was launched from-a) Sriharikota b) Cape Kennedy c)
Bangalore d) A Soviet cosmodrome Answer is :-A Soviet cosmodrome
103. Name the author of the famous book "Politics"-a) Aristotle b) Socrates c)
Plato d) None of them Answer is :-Aristotle
104. "Guernica" is Picasso's painting on-a) The Spanish Civil War b) The
American Civil War c) The French Revolution d) The Russian Revolution Answer
is :-The Spanish Civil War
105. The object of the Supreme Court's Keshvanand Bharati ruling is a) To put
a limit on Parliament's amendatory powers b) To give unlimited powers to
Parliament to amend the Constitution c) To give precedence to Directive
Principles over Fundamental Rights d) None of these Answer is :-To put a limit
on Parliament's amendatory powers
106. Which country in July '99 officially announced mastering of indigenously
developed neutron bomb technology? a) N. Korea b) France c) India d) China
Answer is :-China
107. Shifting cultivation is commonly used in which of the following
states?
a) Tamil Nadu
b) Maharashtra
c) Jammu and Kashmir
d) Nagaland
Answer is :-Nagaland
108) The polar plot of G(S) = 10/s(s+1)2 intercepts real axis at w =
wo. Then, the real part and wo are given by?
Answer is :-–5, 1
SET D
Sec-I Ans. 1 A 2 C 3 C 4 D 5 A 6 B 7 D 8 C 9 C 10 A 11 D 12 B 13 B 14 B 15 C 16 B 17 D 18 B 19 A 20 A 21 C 22 A 23
D 24 D 25 B 26 B 27 C 28 C 29 C 30 B 31 A 32 17/15(C) 33 B 34 A 35 A 36 C 37 C 38 A 39 B 40 D 41 D 42 A 43 A 44
B 45 A 46 A 47 A 48 C 49 A 50 C Sec-II 1 D 2 A 3 A 4 A 5 C 6 C 7 C 8 D 9 B 10 D 11 A 12 B 13 C 14 C 15 D 16 A 17
C 18 C 19 D 20 B 21 D 22 D 23 B 24 A 25 A 26 A 27 B 28 B 29 C 30 A 31 B 32 D 33 A 34 C 35 B 36 B 37 C 38 D 39 A
40 D 41 A 42 B 43 B 44 D 45 B 46 B 47 B 48 A 49 B 50 C Sec-III 1 C 2 A 3 B 4 D 5 B 6 D 7 A 8 D 9 B 10 C 11 D 12 B
13 C 14 A 15 16 D 17 C 18 D 19 A 20 C
corect answer of set-A & B
SET A SET B
Sec-I Sec-I 1 B 1 B 2 D 2 D 3 C 3 B 4 C 4 A 5 A 5 A 6 D 6 A 7 B 7 C 8 B 8 C 9 B 9 D 10 C 10 A 11 B
11 B 12 D 12 D 13 B 13 C 14 A 14 C 15 A 15 A 16 A 16 D 17 C 17 B 18 C 18 B 19 D 19 B 20 A 20 C
21 B 21 B 22 A 22 A 23 17/15(c) 23 A 24 B 24 A 25 A 25 C 26 A 26 A 27 C 27 C 28 C 28 C 29 A 29
A 30 B 30 D 31 D 31 D 32 D 32 B 33 D 33 B 34 A 34 A 35 B 35 C 36 A 36 C 37 A 37 B 38 A 38 A
39 C 39 17/15(c) 40 A 40 B 41 C 41 A 42 C 42 A 43 A 43 C 44 D 44 C 45 D 45 A 46 B 46 B 47 B 47
D 48 A 48 D 49 C 49 D 50 C 50 A Sec-II Sec-II 1 C 1 A 2 C 2 C 3 D 3 C 4 B 4 D 5 D 5 B 6 A 6 D 7 B
7 A 8 C 8 A 9 C 9 A 10 D 10 C 11 A 11 C 12 C 12 C 13 C 13 D 14 D 14 B 15 B 15 D 16 D 16 A 17 A
17 B 18 A 18 C 19 A 19 C 20 C 20 D 21 A 21 D 22 B 22 B 23 D 23 B 24 A 24 B 25 C 25 A 26 B 26 B
27 B 27 C 28 C 28 D 29 D 29 D 30 A 30 B 31 D 31 A 32 A 32 A 33 B 33 A 34 B 34 C 35 D 35 B 36 B
36 C 37 B 37 A 38 B 38 B 39 A 39 D 40 B 40 A 41 C 41 C 42 D 42 B 43 D 43 B 44 B 44 C 45 A 45 D
46 A 46 A 47 A 47 D 48 C 48 A 49 B 49 B 50 C 50 B Sec-III Sec-III 1 D 1 D 2 A 2 B 3 D 3 B 4 B 4 C
5 C 5 6 D 6 D 7 B 7 C 8 B 8 D 9 C 9 A 10 10 C 11 D 11 C 12 C 12 A 13 D 13 B 14 A 14 D 15 C 15 B
16 C 16 D 17 A 17 A 18 B 18 D 19 D 19 B 20 B 20 C
So here is the answer key for SeT C
SET C
Sec-I 1 D 1 2 B 2 3 B 3 4 B 4 5 C 5 6 B 6 7 D 7 8 B 8 9 A 9 10 A 11 A 12 C 13 C 14 D 15
A 16 B 17 D 18 C 19 C 20 A 21 C 22 A 23 B 24 D 25 D 26 D 27 A 28 B 29 A 30 A 31 A
32 C 33 A 34 C 35 C 36 A 37 D 38 D 39 B 40 B 41 A 42 C 43 C 44 B 45 A 46 17/15(C)
47 B 48 A 49 A 50 C Sec-II 1 A 2 B 3 C 4 C 5 D 6 A 7 C 8 C 9 D 10 B 11 D 12 A 13 A 14
A 15 C 16 C 17 C 18 D 19 B 20 D 21 C 22 D 23 A 24 D 25 A 26 B 27 B 28 D 29 B 30 B
31 B 32 A 33 B 34 C 35 D 36 D 37 B 38 A 39 A 40 A 41 C 42 B 43 C 44 A 45 B 46 D 47
A 48 C 49 B 50 B Sec-III 1 D 2 C 3 D 4 A 5 C 6 C 7 A 8 B 9 D 10 B 11 D 12 A 13 D 14 B
15 C 16 D 17 B 18 B 19 C 20 C