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9th December 2016, 11:43 AM
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Join Date: Aug 2012
Re: JIPMER MBBS Free Online Mock Test

JIPMER MBBS is a national level entrance exam scheduled to be conducted on June 5, 2016 for admission to 200 MBBS seats offered at Jawaharlal Institute of Postgraduate Medical Education & Research (JIPMER).

JIPMER MBBS Entrance Exam will be conducted by Jawaharlal Institute of Postgraduate Medical Education and Research (JIPMER) for admission to MBBS course

The duration of the JIPMER MBBS course is 4 years and 6 months, followed by 1 year of Compulsory Rotatory Internship

JIPMER questions:

Physics

1. A car of mass 1000 kg moves on a circular track of radius 40 m. If the coefficient of friction is 1.28. The maximum velocity with which the car can be moved, is

(a) 22.4 rn/s
(b) 112 m/s
(c) (0.64 * 40)/ (1000 * 100) m/s
(d) 1000 m/s

2. The escape velocity for the earth is 11.2 km/s. The mass of another planet 100 times mass of earth and its radius is 4 times radius of the earth. The escape velocity for the planet is

(a) 280 km/s
(b) 56.0 km/s
(c) 112 km/s
(d) 56 km/s

3. Light travels faster in air than that in glass. This is accordance with

(a) wave theory of light
(b) corpuscular theory of light
(c) neither (a) nor (b)
(d) Both (a) and (b)

4. The speed of air flow on the upper and lower surfaces of a wing of an aeroplane are v1 and v2 respectively. If A is the cross section area of the wing and p is the density of air, then the upward life is

(a) 1/2ρA(v2 —v2)
(b) 1/2ρA(v1 + v2)
(c) 1/2ρA(v12 — v22)
(d) 1/2ρA(v12 + v22)

5. A body is thrown with a velocity of 9.8 m/s making an angle of 30° with the horizontal. It will hit the ground after a time

(a) 1.5s
(b) 1s
(c) 3s
(d) 2s

6. A radioactive element 90X238 decays into 83Y222The number of β-particles emitted are

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 6

7. Minimum excitation potential of Bohr’s first orbit in hydrogen atom is

(a) 3.6V
(b) 10.2 V
(c) 13.6 V
(d) 3.4V

8. A gas expands 0.25 m3 at constant pressure 103 N/m2, the work done is

(a) 250 N
(b) 250W
(c) 250 J
(d) 2.5 erg

9. The work done in increasing the size of a soap film for 10 cm x 6m to 10 cm x 11cm is 3 x 10-4 J. The surface tension of the film is

(a) 1.0 x 10-2 N/m
(b) 6.0 x 10-2 N/m
(c) 3.0 x 10-2 N/m
(d) 1.5 x 10-2 N/m

10. A parallel palte condenser is filled with two dielectrics as shown in figure. Area of each pate is A m2 and the separation is d metre.

The dielectric constants are K1 and K2 respectively. Its capacitance in farad will be

11. A luminous object is placed at a distance of 30 cm from the convex lens of focal length 20 cm. On the other side of the lens, at what distance from the lens a convex mirror of radius of curvature 10 cm be placed in order to have an upright image of the object coincident with it

(a) 30 cm
(b) 60 cm
(c) 50 cm
(d) 12 cm

12. A battery of emf 10 V and internal resistance of 0.5 ohm is connected across a variable resistance R. The maximum value of R is given by

(a) 0.5Ω
(b) 1.00Ω
(c) 2.0Ω
(d) 0.25Ω

13. For a R/Cv gas = 0.67. This gas is made up of cv molecules which are

(a) mono atomic
(b) poly atomic
(c) mixture of diatomic and poly atomic molecules
(d) diatomic

14. A point source of light is placed 4 m below the surface of water of refractive index 5/3.

The minimum diameter of a disc which should be placed over the source on the surface of water to cut-off all light coming out of water is

(a) 6 m
(b) 3 m
(c) 4 m
(d) 2 m

15. A moving body of mass m and velocity 3 km/h collides with a rest body of mass 2 m and stick to it. Now the combined mass starts to move. What will be the combined velocity?

(a) 4 km/h
(b) 1 km/h
(c) 2 km/h
(d) 3 km/h

16. A transverse wave is represented by the equation

y = y0 sin (2π/λ) – 27c (vt – k)

For what value of X is the particle velocity equal to two times the wave velocity

(a) λ = πy0
(b) λ = (πy0/2)
(c) λ = (πy0/3)
(d) λ = 2π/y0

17. Ionisation potential of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. Hydrogen atom on the ground state rarely excited by monochromatic radiation of photon 12.1 eV. The special line emitted by a hydrogen atom according to Bohr’s theory will be

(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) four

18. The internal resistance of a primary cell is 4Ω. It generates a current of 0.2 A in an external resistance of 21Ω The rate at which chemical energy to consumed in providing current is

(a) 1 J/s
(b) 5 J/s
(c) 0.42 J/s
(d) 0.8 J/s

19. The binding energy per nucleon is maximum in the case

20. Two rigid bodies A and B rotate with rotational kinetic energies EA and EB respectively. The moments of inertia of A and B about the axis of rotation are IA and IB respectively.

If IA = IB and EA = 100 = EB the ratio of 4 angular momentum (LA) of A to the angular momentum (LB) of B is

(a) 25
(b) 5/4
(c) 5
(d) 1/4

21. The working principle of a ball point pen is

(a) Bernoulli’s theorem
(b) surface tension
(c) gravity
(d) viscosity

22. Progressive waves are represented by the equation

y1 = a sin (ωt – x)

and y2 = b cos (ωt — x)

The phase difference between waves is

(a) 0°
(b) 45°
(c) 90°
(d) 180°

23. Two simple pendulums of length 0.5 m and 20 m respectively are given small linear displacement in one direction at the same time. They will again be in the phase when the pendulum of shorter length has completed x oscillations, where k is

(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 5

24. A balloon contains 500 m3 of helium at 27°C and 1 atmosphere pressure. The volume of the helium at —3° C temperature and 0.5 atmosphere pressure will be

(a) 1000 m3
(b) 900 m3
(c) 700 m3
(d) 500 m3

25. 220 V, 50 Hz, AC source is connected to an inductance of 0.2 H and a resistance of 20 Ω in series. What is the current in the circuit?

(a) 3.33 A
(b) 33.3 A
(c) 5A
(d) 10 A

26. In 0.2 s, the current in a coil increases from 2.0 A to 3.0 A. If inductance of coil is 60 mH, then induced current in external resistance
of 3 Ω will be

(a) 1 A
(b) 0.5 A
(c) 0.2 A
(d) 0.1 A

27. Two coherent light beams of intensities I and 4I are superposed. The maximum and minimum possible intensities in the resulting beam are

(a) 5 / and /
(b) 5 / and 3/
(c) 9 / and /
(d) 9 / and 3/

28. A galvanometer acting as a voltmeter should have

(a) low resistance in series with its coil
(b) low resistance in parallel with its coil
(c) high resistance in series with its coil
(d) high resistance in parallel with its coil

29. The equivalent resistance across A and B is A

(a) 2 Ω
(b) 3 Ω
(c) 4 Ω
(d) 5 Ω

30. A black body has a wavelength of k at temperature 2000 K. Its corresponding wavelength at temperature 3000 K will be

(a) 2λ/3
(b) 3λ/2
(c) 4λ/9
(d) 9λ/4

31. At room temperature, copper has free electron density of 8.4 x 1028 m-3. The electron drift velocity in a copper conductor of cross-sectional area of 10-6m2 and carrying a current of 5.4 A, will be

(a) 4 ms-1
(b) 0.4 ms-1
(c) 4 cm s-1
(d) 0.4 mm s-1

32. A uniform wire of resistance R and length L is cut into four equal parts, each of length L/4 which are then connected in parallel combination.

The effective resistance of the combination will be

(a) R
(b) 4R
(c) R/4
(d) R/16

33. The half-life of radio isotope is 4 h. If initial mass of the isotope was 200 g, then mass remaining after 24 h will be

(a) 1.042 g
(b) 2.084 g
(c) 3.125g
(d) 4.167g

34. Which logic gate is represented by the following combination of logic gates?

(a) OR
(b) NOR
(c) AND
(d) NAND

35. The work function for metals A, B and C are respectively 1.92 eV, 2.0 eV and 5eV.

According to Einstein’s equation the metals which will emit photo, electrons for a radiation of wavelength 4100 Å is/are

(a) none
(b) A only
(c) A and B only
(d) All the three metals

36. Two boys are standing at the ends A and B of a ground, where AB = a. The boy at B starts running in a direction perpendicular to AB with velocity v1. The boy at A starts running simultaneously with velocity u and catches the other boy in a time t, where t is

37. A 5 amp fuse wire can withstand a maximum power of 1 W in circuit. The resistance of the fuse wire is

(a) 0.2 Ω
(b) 5 Ω
(c) 0.4 Ω
(d) 0.04 Ω

38. A force F is given F = at + bt2 , where, t is time. What are the dimensions of a and b?

(a) [MLT -1] and [MLT0 ]
(b) [MLT -3] and [ML2T4]
(c) [MLT -4] and [MLT1]
(d) [MLT -3] and [MLT -4]

39. Two equal negative charges – q are fixed at the point (0, a) and (0, – a) on the y-axis. A positive charge Q is released from rest at the point (2a, 0) on the x-axis. The charge will

(a) execute SHM about the origin
(b) move to the origin and remain at rest
(c) move to infinity
(d) execute oscillatory but not SHM

40. An ice-cube of density 900 kg/m3 is floating in water of density 1000 kg/m3. The percentage of volume of ice-cube outside the water is

(a) 20%
(b) 35%
(c) 10%
(d) 25%

Chemistry

(a) aromatisation
(b) pyrolysis
(c) isomerisation
(d) oxidation

2. Number of hydrogen-bonded water molecules associated in CuSO4 – 5H0O is

(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) All the five

3. Which of the following species do not show disproportionation on reaction?

ClO–, ClO2– ,ClO3– and ClO4–

(a) ClO4–
(b) ClO3–
(c) ClO–
(d) None of these

4. Which one of the following acts as a nucleophile?

5. During estimation of nitrogen in the organic compound by Kjeldahl’s method, the ammonia evolved from 0.5 g of the compound in Kjeldahl’s estimation of nitrogen, neutralised 10 mL of 1M H2SO4.

Find out the percentage of nitrogen in the compound.

(a) 14%
(b) 28%
(c) 56%
(d) 68%

6. Which of the following compounds have highest melting point?

(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) I and II
(d) II and III

7. Identify the major product ‘X’ obtained in the following reaction.

8. Addition of water to alkynes occurs in acidic medium and in the presence of Hg2+ ions as a catalyst. Which of the following products will be formed on addition of water to but-l-yne under these conditions?

(a) CH3CH2CH2CHO
(b) CH3CH2COCH3
(c) CH3CH2COOH + CO2
(d) CH3COOH + HCHO

9. The correct order of increasing acidic strength is

(a) phenol< ethanol < chloroacetic acid < acetic acid
(b) ethanol< phenol < chloroacetic acid < acetic acid
(c) ethanol< phenol < acetic acid < chloroacetic acid
(d) chloroacetic acid < acetic acid < phenol < ethanol

10. KF has ccp structure. How many F– ions and octahedral voids are there in this unit cell respectively?

(a) 4 and 4
(b) 4 and 8
(c) 8 and 4
(d) 6 and 6

11. The osmotic pressure of blood is 8.21 atm at 37°C. How much glucose would be used for an injection that is at the same osmotic pressure as blood?

(a) 22.17 gL-1
(b) 58.14 gL-1
(c) 61.26 gL-1
(d) 75.43 gL-1

12. At equilibrium, the rate of dissolution of a solid solute in a volatile liquid solvent is

(a) less than the rate of crystallisation
(b) greater than the rate of crystallisation
(c) equal to the rate of crytallisation
(d) zero

13. A chelating agent has two or more than two donor atoms to bind a single metal ion.

Which of the following is not a chelating agent?

(a) Thiosulphato
(b) Glycinato
(c) Oxalato
(d) Ethane-1, 2-diamine

14. On addition of small amount of KMn04 to conc. H2SO4, a green oily compound is obtained which is highly explosive in nature. Identify the compound from the following.

(a) Mn2O7
(b) MnO2
(c) MnSO4
(d) Mn2O3

15. The magnetic nature of elements depends on the presence of unpaired electrons.

Identify the configuration of transition element, which shows highest magnetic moment.

(a) 3d7
(b) 3d5
(c) 3d8
(d) 3d2

16. Which of the following elements can be involved in pπ — dπ bonding?

(a) Carbon
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Phosphorus
(d) Boron

17. On addition of conc. H2SO4 to a chloride salt, colourless fumes are evolved but in case of iodide salt, violet fumes come out. This is because.

(a) H2SO4 reduces HI to I2
(b) HI is of violet colour
(c) HI gets oxidised to I2
(d) HI changes to HIO3

18. Affinity for hydrogen decreases in the group from fluorine to iodine. Which of the halogen acids should have highest bond dissociation enthalpy?

(a) HF
(b) HCl
(c) HBr
(d) Hl

19. Which of the following statement is not correct about an inert electrode in a cell?

(a) It does not participate in the cell reaction.
(b) It provides surface either for oxidation or for reduction reaction.
(c) It provides surface for conduction of electrons.
(d) It provides surface for redox reaction

20. Which of the following statement is correct?

(a) E cell and Δr G of cell reaction both are extensive properties.
(b) E cell and Δr G of cell reaction both are intensive properties.
(C) E cell in the intensive property while Δr G of cell reaction is an extensive property.
(d) E cell is an extensive property while Δr G of cell reaction is an intensive property.

21. Which of the following curves is in accordance with Freundlich adsorption isotherm?

22. A number of elements available in earth’s crust but most abundant elements are

(a) Al and Fe
(b) Al and Cu
(c) Fe and Cu
(d) Cu and Ag

23. The element which forms oxides in all oxidation states + 1 to + 5 is

(a) nitrogen
(b) phosphorus
(c) arsenic
(d) antimony

24. Which of the following is the increasing order of enthalpy of vaporization?

(a) NH3, PH3, AsH3
(b) AsH3, PH3, NH3
(c) NH3, AsH3, PH3
(d) PH3, AsH3, NH3

25. When Br2 is treated with aqueous solutions of NaF, NaC1, NaI separately

(a) F2, Cl2 and l2are liberated
(b) only F2 and Cl2 are liberated
(c) only l2 is liberated
(d) onlyCl2 is liberated

26. In the presence of a catalyst, the heat evolved or absorbed during the reaction

(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains unchanged
(d) may increase or decrease

27. The rate of a gaseous reaction is given by the expression k[A][B]. If the volume of the reaction vessel is suddenly reduced to 1/4 th of the initial volume, the reaction rate relating to original rate will be

(a) 1/10
(b) 1/8
(c) 8
(d) 16

28. Which of the following is 3° amine?

(a) 1-methylcyclohexylamine
(b) Triethylamine
(c) Tert-butylamine
(d) N-methyl aniline

29. Which of the following enhances lathering property of soap?

(a) Sodium carbonate
(b) Sodium rosinate
(c) Sodium stearate
(d) Trisodium phosphate

30. The deficiency of vitamin C causes

(a) scurvy
(b) rickets
(c) pyrrohea
(d) perniciousanaemia

31. Excess fluoride (over 10 ppm) in drinking water can cause

(a) harmful effect of bones and teeth
(b) methemoglobinemia
(c) kidney damage
(d) laxative effect

32. For the process to occur under adiabatic conditions, the correct condition is

(a) ΔT = 0
(b) Δp = 0
(c) q = 0
(d) W = 0

33. (3/2O2(g)) → O3(g); Kp for this reaction is 2.47 x 10-29. At 298 K, ΔrG° for conversion of oxygen to ozone will be

(a) 100 kJ mol-l
(b) 150 kJ mol-l
(c) 163 kJ mol-l
(d) 2303 kJ mol-l

34. Which one of the following statements about C2 molecule is wrong?

(a) The bond order of C2 is 2.
(b) In vapour phase, C2 molecule is diamagnetic.
(c) Double bond in C2 molecule consists of both π- bonds because of the presence of 4e–s; in two π- molecular orbitals.
(d) double bond in C2 molecule consists of one a – bond and on It-bond.

35. The type of hybridisation in SF6 molecule is

(a) sp3d
(b) dsp3
(c) sp3d3
(d) d3sp3

36. Among LiCl, BeCl2, BCl3 and CCl4 , the covalent bond character follows the order

(a) LiCl< BeCl2< BCl3< CCl2
(b) BCl3< CCl4< BeCl2<LiCl
(c) BeCl2< LiCl< CCl4< BCl3
(d) CCl4< BCl3< BeCl2< LiCl

37. Maximum number of electrons in a subshell of an atom determined by the following?

(a) 4/+ 2
(b) 2n2
(c) 4/- 2
(d) 2/+ 1

38. The average kinetic energy of an ideal gas per molecule in SI units at 25°C will be

(a) 6.17 x 1021 JK-1
(b) 6.17 x 10-21kJK-1
(c) 6.17 x 1020 JK-1
(d) 7.16 x 10-21 JK-1

39. pka of acetic acid and pKb of ammonium hydroxide are 4.76 and 4.75 respectively.

Calculate the pH of ammonium acetate solution.

(a) 6.02
(b) 7.005
(c) 8
(d) 5.602

40. The value of Ke for the reaction, 2A ⇔ B + C is 2 x 10-3. At a given time, if the composition of reaction mixture is [A] = [B]=[C]= 3 x 10-3 M. Which is true?

(a) The reaction will proceed in forward direction
(b) The reaction will proceed in backward direction
(c) The reaction will proceed in any direction
(d) None of the above


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