Institute of Banking Personnel Selection Bank PO Exams previous year question papers

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[Arun Vats]

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Reasoning Ability

Directions—(Q. 1–5) The President of a club is appointing nine officials A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I to serve on three committees to study three different aspects of activities of the club. There will be a Games Committee, a Food Service Committee and an Entertainment Committee. The appointments must respect the following—
>> Each committee must have exactly three members.
>> No person can serve on more than one committee.
>> H must serve on the Entertainment Committee.
>> C and D must serve on the same committee.
>> A and B cannot serve on the same committee.
>> E cannot serve on the same committee as I.
>> F must serve on the same committee as B or H or both B and H.

1. If B and G serve on the Games Committee, which of the following must serve on the Food Service Committee ?
(A) A
(B) D
(C) E
(D) F
Ans : (B)

2. Which of the following groups could constitute the Games Committee ?
(A) A, B, E
(B) A, D, G
(C) C, H, E
(D) F, I, B
Ans : (D)

3. If A is assigned to the Food Service Committee and C is appointed to Entertainment Committee, then which of the following must be true ?
1. G is appointed to the Food Service Committee.
2. E is appointed to the Games Committee.
3. I is appointed to the Entertainment Committee.
(A) I only
(B) III only
(C) I and III only
(D) II and III only
Ans : (A)

4. If F serves on the Food Service Committee and C serves on the same committee as H, then which of the following must serve on the Games Committee ?
1. A 2. G 3. I
(A) I only
(B) III only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
Ans : (C)

5. If I is on the Entertainment Committee and B is on the Food Service Committee, then which of the following must be true ?
(A) F is on the Entertainment Committee
(B) C is on the Games Committee
(C) G is on the Food Service Committee
(D) F is on the Games Committee
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 6–10) Letters of certain words have been rearranged and the jumbled spellings have been given below. Out of the choices given below each question, choose the last letter of the correct word—

6. AYDOT
(A) A
(B) D
(C) T
(D) Y
Ans : (D)

7. ILCEOP
(A) C
(B) E
(C) L
(D) O
Ans : (B)

8. CAPCET
(A) A
(B) C
(C) P
(D) T
Ans : (D)

9. VISERL
(A) E
(B) L
(C) R
(D) S
Ans : (C)

10. ERVSECI
(A) E
(B) I
(C) R
(D) S
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 11–15) Find out the correct answer out of the four alternatives given below each question and then mark it in your answer sheet.

11. Ice : Coolness : : Earth : ?
(A) Forest
(B) Weight
(C) Gravitation
(D) Ocean
Ans : (C)

12. Coconut : Shell : : Letter : ?
(A) Mail
(B) Letter-box
(C) Stamp
(D) Envelope
Ans : (D)

13. Income is related to profit in the same way as expenditure is related to—
(A) Loss
(B) Surplus
(C) Balance
(D) Sale
Ans : (A)

14. Much is related to many in the same way as measure is related to—
(A) Calculate
(B) Count
(C) Weigh
(D) Measurement
Ans : (B)

15. Clue is related to Mystery in the same way as warning is related to—
(A) Precaution
(B) Disaster
(C) Risk
(D) Danger
Ans : (D)

16. Find the oddman out—
(A) MOndAy
(B) tUESdAy
(C) WEdNESdAy
(D) thUrSdAy
Ans : (B)

17. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
(A) CUSTOMER : SGPSYYBK
(B) INTEREST : UUHVJYUQ
(C) OVERSEAS : TCHWWKCW
(D) BANKING : HPLOSGI
Ans : (B)

18. Three of the following four have similar relationship and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to the group ?
(A) PROFIT : RPQCKR
(B) OTHERS : QRJCTQ
(C) LEGUME : NCISOC
(D) CANKER : EYPIGP
Ans : (A)

19. Three of the four groups of letters given below are alike in a certain way while one is different. Choose the odd one—
(A) GWOURV
(B) LZKMSU
(C) JOEHNP
(D) SFXPMG
Ans : (D)

20. Three of the four groups of letters given below are alike in a certain way while one is different. Choose the odd one—
(A) IW
(B) MS
(C) FT
(D) JU
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 21–25) Find out the missing term in the following letternumber series—

21. H 4 W, I 18 V, K 48 T, N 100 Q, ?, W 294 H
(A) P 1485 S
(B) R 180 M
(C) S 198 I
(D) T 206 K
Ans : (B)

22. 1 ED, 2 FD, 3 KH, ?, 15 KG, 48 KF
(A) 12 PX
(B) 6 RI
(C) 9 LV
(D) 8 TQ
Ans : (B)

23. M 4, T 7, P 7, Q 10, S 10, N 13, ?, K 16
(A) V 4
(B) K 7
(C) T 13
(D) G 15
Ans : (C)

24. R 5 P, T 6 M, V 9 J, X 15 G, ?
(A) A 12 L
(B) I 18 X
(C) Z 25 D
(D) U 20 Q
Ans : (C)

25. DGK 0, GKP 3, ?, PVC 15
(A) GKV 5
(B) KPV 8
(C) PVZ 9
(D) KPU 11
Ans : (B)

26. If the first 6 letters of the English Alphabet series are written in reversed order, then the next 6 letters are written in reversed order and so on, and at the end Y is interchanged by Z, then which letter is fourth letter to the right of 13th letter from the left ?
(A) M
(B) N
(C) Q
(D) P
Ans : (B)

27. If the English Alphabet series is written in the reverse order and every alternate letter starting from Y is dropped, which letter will be exactly in the middle of the remaining letters of the Alphabet series ?
(A) L
(B) O
(C) M
(D) N
Ans : (D)

28. If the letters in each of the following five groups of letters are first rearranged in the alphabetical order and then the groups of letters so formed are rearranged as in a dictionary, which letter group would have its group of letters in the MIDDLE among the five letter-groups ?
MEET, DEAF, ROAD, CODE, LACK
(A) LACK
(B) MEET
(C) ROAD
(D) DEAF
Ans : (C)

29. The letters skipped in between the adjacent letters in the series are followed by equal space. Which of the following series observes this rule ?
(A) HKNGSW
(B) EIMQVZ
(C) SUXADF
(D) RVZDHL
Ans : (D)

30. Select the series in which the letters skipped in between adjacent letters do not decrease in order—
(A) MGVFK
(B) PJXHM
(C) EQZFI
(D) GWIQU
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 31–35) These questions are based on code language which utilizes letters in the English Alphabet. In each question, there is a word written in capital letters, with one letter underlined. For each letter in that word there is a code written in small letters. That code is denoted by either (A), (B), (C), or (D), not in the same order. You have to find out the exact code for the underlined letter in the word. The letter of the that code is the answer. Please note that the same letter appearing in other word(s) may be coded differently.

31. D U E L
(A) g
(B) i
(C) p
(D) j
Ans : (C)

32. P I T Y
(A) g
(B) b
(C) r
(D) k
Ans : (B)

33. R I N G
(A) it
(B) rk
(C) mp
(D) ti
Ans : (A)

34. G O A L
(A) c
(B) q
(C) e
(D) j
Ans : (C)

35. S L A P
(A) dx
(B) ms
(C) vp
(D) io
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 36–40) Study the following arrangements carefully and answer the questions given below—
Series I. MNLqd fuw2UFOKP6hs (14) SHV 7gc8RIE(13)xtk
Series II. azj14GJBopir5v9TQY(10) emn(11) DACby(12)xWZ

36. How many capital letters are in Series I and in Series II each of which is either followed by or preceded by the same positioned capital letter of English alphabet from the other end ?
(A) 4, 3
(B) 6, 2
(C) 8, 1
(D) 10, 0
Ans : (A)

37. If the positions of the first twelve elements of Series I are reversed, and similarly the positions of the last twelve elements of Series II are reversed, then the third element to the right of the seventh element from the left end of Series I will be ……, whereas the third element to the left of the seventh element from the right end of Series II will be ……
(A) L, x
(B) j, x
(C) U, (11)
(D) x, L
Ans : (A)

38. Which of the following pairs of elements shows the elements of Series I and Series II respectively, which are exactly in the middle of the seventh element from the left end and the sixth element from the right end in Series I and II ?
(A) hy
(B) Hy
(C) sQ
(D) Sq
Ans : (C)

39. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above series. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) azj
(B) emb
(C) qdf
(D) xtk
Ans : (B)

40. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangements, each of which is immediately preceded by a digit and immediately followed by a consonant ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 41– 44) In the following coded arithmetic equations certain symbols are used with the following meaning—
I. P @ Q means add P to Q;
II. P & Q means subtract Q from P;
III. P # Q means multiply P with Q; and
IV. P $ Q means divide P by Q.
Now study the given information and answer the question following it—
Three persons A, B and C complete a work in 20 days. B and C together are 4/3 times as efficient as A and B together. On the other hand A and C together are 5/4 times as efficient as B and C together.

41. Which of the following equations represents the number of days in which A alone can finish the same work ?
(A) 24 # 20 $ (24 & 20)
(B) 30 # 20 & (30 @ 20)
(C) 30 # 20 $ (30 & 20)
(D) 40 # 20 $ (40 & 20)
Ans : (C)

42. Which of the following equations represents the number of days in which B and C together can finish the same work ?
(A) 24 # (3 @ 3) $ 4
(B) 20 # (12 & 6) $ 3
(C) 20 # (12 & 6) $ 5
(D) 30 # 20 $ (40 & 20)
Ans : (D)

43. Which of the following equations represents the number of days in which A and B working together can finish the same work ?
(A) 20 # (3 @ 3) $ 4
(B) 40 # 20 $ (40 & 20)
(C) 20 # (12 & 6) $ 5
(D) 20 # (12 & 6) $ 3
Ans : (B)

44. Which of the following equations represents the number of days in which A and C working together can finish the same work ?
(A) 40 # 20 $ (40 & 20)
(B) 20 # (12 & 6) $ 5
(C) 20 # (3 @ 3) $ 4
(D) 20 # (12 & 6) $ 3
Ans : (B)

45. A travel towards East. B travels towards North. C and D travel in opposite directions. D travels towards right of A. Which of the following is definitely true ?
(A) B and C travel in opposite directions
(B) C travels towards West
(C) D travels towards North
(D) B and C travel in the same direction
Ans : (D)

46. A cow runs 20 metres towards East and turns to right, runs 10 metres and turns to right, runs 9 metres and again turns to left, runs 5 metres and then turns to left, runs 12 metres and finally turns to left and runs 6 metres. Now which direction is the cow facing ?
(A) North
(B) East
(C) South
(D) West
Ans : (A)

47. A boy started walking positioning his back towards the sun. After sometimes, he turned left, then turned right and then towards the left again. In which direction is he going now ?
(A) East or West
(B) North or West
(C) South or West
(D) North or South
Ans : (D)

48. If Thursday was the day after the day before yesterday five days ago, what is the least number of days ago when Sunday was three days before the day after tomorrow ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Ans : (D)

49. In a row of boys facing North, a boy is thirteen from the left. When shifted to his right by three places, he becomes seventeenth from right end of the row. How many boys are there in the row ?
(A) 32
(B) 31
(C) 33
(D) 30
Ans : (A)

50. 136 vehicles are parked in a parking lot in a single row. After the first car there is one scooter. After the second car, there are two scooters. After the third car, there are three scooters and so on. Work out the number of scooters in the second half of the row—
(A) 61
(B) 62
(C) 63
(D) 64
Ans : (C)

51. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to that group ?
(A) 7
(B) 9
(C) 17
(D) 33
Ans : (B)

52. Choose the odd numeral pair in the following—
(A) 140 – 45
(B) 120 – 35
(C) 110 – 35
(D) 80 – 25
Ans : (B)

53. Choose that set of numbers from the four alternative sets, that is similar to the given set—
Given set — (246, 257, 358)
(A) (145, 235, 325)
(B) (143, 253, 246)
(C) (273, 365, 367)
(D) (233, 343, 345)
Ans : (A)

54. Choose the one which is different from the rest—
(A) 248
(B) 326
(C) 392
(D) 414
Ans : (C)

55. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) 156
(B) 152
(C) 72
(D) 42
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 56–60) In each question below, is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Give answer—
(A) If only assumption I is implicit;
(B) If only assumption II is implicit;
(C) If neither I nor II is implicit; and
(D) If both I and II are implicit.

56. Statement—To achieve economic development, people should work hard.
Assumptions :
I. Achieving economic development is desirable.
II. Working hard is not impossible.
Ans : (D)

57. Statement—He is too industrious to be poor.
Assumptions :I. Very industrious people also can be poor.
II. Very lazy people also can be rich.
Ans : (C)

58. Statement—Visitors may use lift at their own risk.
Assumptions :I. Using lift is not always safe.
II. Visitors do not want to use lift.
Ans : (A)

59. Statement—This book is so designed that even a layman can easily learn science in the absence of a teacher.
Assumptions :I. Learning science by everybody is desirable.
II. A layman generally finds it difficult to learn science on his own.
Ans : (B)

60. Statement—Although the rates of this hotel are comparable with other hotels, the amenities provided here are far superior.
Assumptions :I. Rates are independent of amenities provided.
II. Rates are dependent on amenities provided.
Ans : (C)

Contact Details:
Institute of Banking Personnel Selection
IBPS House,
Western Express Hwy,
Asha Nagar,
Kandivali East,
Mumbai,
Maharashtra 400066 ‎
1800 22 2366
India

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Hello provide me Institute of Banking Personnel Selection Bank PO Exams previous year question papers?

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Here I am providing Institute of Banking Personnel Selection Bank PO Exams previous year question papers………


1. According to the passage, which of the following is a reason for the author’s prediction regarding N11 countries?
(1) N11 countries are poorer, have less resources than BRIC countries and do not have much scope to grow.
(2) The size of these countries is too great to fuel a high rate of growth as expected by BRICs countries.
(3) The world economy is so large that the magnitude of growth from these countries will have to be huge to equal the growth of BRICs.
(4) These economies are agricultural and have not opened up their economies yet so their scope of growth is greater than that of BRlCs.
(5) Other than those given as options

2. What is the author’s view of globalisation’s “second unbundling”?
(1) It-proved beneficial since it created a large number of jobs and tremendous growth in cross-border trade.
(2) It disturbed the fragile balance of power among BRIC nations and caused internal strife.
(3) It caused untold damage to America’s economy since it restricted the spread of American farms off-shore.
(4) It proved most beneficial for the agricultural sector, creating huge employment opportunities.
(5) Citizens in advanced countries became much better off than those in emerging economies.

3. Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word TUMBLING given in bold as used in the passage.
(1) jumbling
(2) confusing
(3) reducing
(4) dilapidated
(5) hurrying

4. What do the comparative statistics of 2007 and 2013 for BRICs countries published by, the IMF as cited in the passage indicate?
(1) BRIC economies will contribute less to global growth.
(2) As the population of these countries grows, its growth rate is filling.
(3) The financial practices followed by these countries will continue to pay rich dividends.
(4) These countries are creating global financial imbalances to the detriment of smaller developing economies like Africa.
(5) IMF forecasts of growth rate for these countries have not been fulfilled.

5. What effect did rising economies of BRICs have on the global economy?
(1) It helped stabilise the global economy and insulate it from the fallout of the global fmancial crisis.
(2) Labour became more highly skilled and wages were alarmingly increased, reducing the off-shoring of jobs to developing countries.
(3) Though worldwide poverty rates tumbled, the gap between the rich and the poor in rich economies increased.
(4) The cost of living and level of inflation in these countries were mantained at low levels.
(5) All the given options are effects of the rise in BRIC economies.

6. What does the phrase “Their ranks will swell but their tread will no longer shake the Earth as it once did” convey in the context of the passage?
(1) While many countries will try and achieve the same rate of growth as BRICs they will not succeed.
(2) The growth of BRIC countries has changed the world’s economy in ways that any further growth will not have such a disruptive effect on the world economy.
(3) Developing countries have strengthened their fiscal systems in such a way that they will not be shaken to such a great extent again
(4) Poverty may increase as the gap between the rich and the poor increase but it will never reach the same leves as prior to the crisis.
(5) Citizens in advanced countries became much better off than those in emerging economies.

7. Which of the following best describes ‘catch-up growth’?
(1) Emerging economies tried but failed to catch up with America, which always grew at a higher growth rate.
(2) The size of emerging economies and their purchasing power has caught up with and now exceeds the rich countries together.
(3) The growth of the American economy determines the growth of emerging economies.
(4) From the later half of 1990s onwards emerging economies outdid America in terms of output per person.
(5) None of the given statements describes ‘catch up growth.’

8. Which of the following can be said about ‘convergence with a vengeance?
(A) After the 1990s advanced economies like America were open to the idea of free trade and globalisation.
(B) There were huge technology advances which were conducive to allowing businesses to spread their area of operations.
(C) Rich economies felt threatened by the competition from China.
(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only(C)
(4) Only (A) and (B)
(5) Only (B) and (C)

9. Choose the word which is OPPOSITE in meaning to the word EXPANDED given in bold as used in the passage.
(1) widened
(2) pressured
(3) delayed
(4) shrunk
(5) frightened

10. What is the author’s main objective in writing the passage?
(A) To urge emerging economies to deal with growth, which can be disruptive, maturely and without conflict
(B) To point out that while the period of growth of BRICs was disruptive this disruption has almost come to a close.
(C) To criticise advanced economies for their handling of growth and promoting competition and conflict in certain regions
(1) Only (A) and (B)
(2) Only (A)
(3) Only(C)
(4) All (A), (B) and (C)
(5) Only (B) and (C)

11. Top managers are often stymied by the difficult of managing conflict.
(1) difficulties of managing
(2) difficulty for managing
(3) difficulty for management
(4) difficult of management
(5) No correction required

12. Reaching collective decisions based on individual preferences is an imperfect science.
(1) based for
(2) based
(3) in (4) based in
(5) No correction required

13. Hollywood bare escaped being totally sidelined by the rise of television.
(1) bare escapism
(2) barely escapism
(3) bare escapes
(4) barely escaped
(5) No correction required

14. Taking good decisions and implement those quickly are the hallmarks of high-performing organisations.
(1) implementation quickly
(2) implementing quick
(3) implementing these quickly
(4) quick implementing those
(5) No correction required

15. Innovation have always been the top corporat agenda.
(1) has always
(2) had being
(3) has always been
(4) always been
(5) No correctin required

16. Which of the following should be the LAST (SEVENTH) sentence after the rearrangement?
(1) F
(2) E
(3) D
(4) C
(5) B

17. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) F

18. Which of the following should he the FIFTH sentence after the rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) E
(5) F

19. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) E
(5) F

20. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after the rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E

21. Which ofthe following is most nearly the OPPOSITE in meaning as the word LEGITIMATE as used in the passage?
(1) legal
(2) criminal
(3) sensitive
(4) invalid
(5) regular

22. Which of the following statements is TRUE in the context of the passage?
(1) Theory E strategies are more likely to be popular among orgnaisations of Asian countries.
(2) Quite often, organisations opt for either of the two theories of organisational change suggested by the author.
(3) Theory E change strategies focus more on maximising economic worth of an organisation.
(4) The theories of change mentioned by the author are based on tested methods.
(5) None of the given statements is true.

23. The author in the given passage focuses on the following EXCEPT
(1) change not as easy as it appears
(2) how to increase protability through organisational change
(3) bringing about successful organisational change
(4) hindrances in the process of organisational change
(5) theories explaining the dynamics of organisational change

24. In the context of the passage, which of the following could possibly be an effect(s) of adopting Theory E, on employees for bringing about organisational change?
(1) Employees become more attached with the organisation
(2) Insecurity among employees
(3) Improved morale of employees
(4) Employees resorting to malicious methods to get faster promotions
(5) All those given as options

25. According to the author, for organisational change to be successful
(1) executives must focus on understanding the process of change.
(2) organisations must be willing to excuse those involved in the change process, in case it is unsuccessful.
(3) organisations must be willing to spend generously during the process.
(4) those involved in the change process must be given specialised training.
(5) None of the given options

26. As mentioned in the passage, despite best effects, many organisations fail to bring about a change because
(A) they lose track of important information between the huge amount of information available to them.
(B) they rarely change the roles assigned to employees throughout the change process.
(C) they tend to depend on a consultant, an outsider, who barely knows the culture of the organisation.
(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only (C)
(4) Both (A) and (B)
(5) Both (B) and (C)

27. Which of the following is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word ‘IMMERSING’ as used in the passage?
(1) engrossing
(2) fascinating
(3) ignoring
(4) saving
(5) holding

28. Which of the following is most nearly the OPPOSITE in meaning as the word ‘IMPERATIVE’ as’ used in the passage?
(1) optional
(2) mandatory
(3) significant
(4) slight
(5) binding

29. In the author’s view the best way to bring about organisational change is a blend of Theory E and O and this can be achieved through
(1) educating employees on the benefits of employing these theories.
(2) creating a specialised team of employees, thorough with these theories, for bringing about change
(3) motivating employees
(4) modelling successful change process of organisations that employed one of these theories.
(5) Other than those given as options

30. Which of the following is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word UNCONSCIOUS as used in the passage?
(1) comatose
(2) automatic
(3) distracted
(4) false
(5) international