IGNOU OPENMAT exam Solved Question paper

I am looking for IGNOU OPENMAT exam Solved Question paper for M.Sc. Life Science, would you like to provide here???

[Kiran Chandar]

You are looking for IGNOU OPENMAT exam Solved Question paper for M.Sc. Life Science, I am giving here:

1. The most variable period of the cell cycle is :
(1) S-phase (2) G 1-phase (3) G 2-phase (4) G 0-phase
2. Which of the following does not constitute the cytoskeletal system ?
(1) Microtubules (2) Microbodies (3) Centrioles (4) Microfilaments
3. If a mother has blood group 'B' homozygous and father has 'A' unknown then the possible
blood group of the progeny can be :
(1) AB and B (2) AB and A (3) A + B (4) 0
4. Estuaries are considered nutrient traps of :
(1) Rivers (2) Rivers and Oceans
(3) Lakes (4) Lakes and Oceans
5. Phytoplanktons are dominant in which of the following freshwater zones ?
(1) Limnetic zone (2) Profundal zone
(3) Littoral zone (4) Aphotic zone
6. Complete photosynthetic apparatus of chloroplast necessary for photosynthesis is coded by :
(1) nuclear gene (2) chloroplast gene
(3) nuclear and chloroplast gene (4) chloroplast and mitochondrial gene
7. Out of the five major types of collagen molecules, which of the following is not found in the
connective tissue of vertebrates ?
(1) Type - 1 (2) Type - 2 (3) Type - 3 (4) Type - 4
8. The process of meiotic cell division in a primary sex cell in a human male usually gives
rise to :
(1) one diploid cell (2) four monoploid cells
(3) one monoploid cell (4) four diploid cells

9. During opening of stomata which ions are transported from neighbouring cells to guard
cells :
(1) K + ion (2) Cl - ion
(3) Na + ion (4) Ca + + ions
10. Concentration of urine in mammals depends on :
(1) Glomerulus's
(2) Length of Henley's loop
(3) Osmotic pressure of blood
(4) Size of organism
11. If mutation changes codon in such a way that there is no effect on functioning and overall
structure of protein. This type of mutation is termed as :
(1) Silent (2) Mis-sense (3) Transition (4) Frameshift
12. Age of the fossils with an organic content in them can be determined by the use of :
(1) Radioactive carbon (2) Serology
(3) Calorimetery (4) Chromatography
In meiosis crossing over occurs during :
(1) Prophase - I (2) Prophase - II
(3) Metaphase (4) Anaphase
14. If the Km of enzyme for substrate A is 1 x 10-6 and for substrate B is 4 x 10-8, it means :
(1) Enzyme has more affinity for substrate A than substrate B
(2) Enzyme has more affinity for substrate B than substrate A
(3) Enzyme has equal affinity for substrate A and substrate B
(4) Enzyme is non - specific
15. Resolving power of scanning electron microscope is :
(1) 0.001 nm (2) 0.01 nm
(3) 0.1 nm (4) 0.0001 nm
\

16. Neurodegeneration leads to all of the following, except :
(1) Alzheimer's disease
(2) Schizophrenia
(3) Parkinson's disease
(4) Retinoblastoma
17. The definitive evidence in favor of common descent for all living beings is :
(1) That they all contain RNA (2) The universality of DNA as the genetic material
(3) The universality of genetic code (4) That they all use carbohydrate as energy source
18. If the partial nucleotide sequence of a gene is 5' - TTGCATTACCGGCTAT - 3', the
corresponding mRNA sequence will be :
(1) 5' - ATAGCCGGTAATGCAA - 3' (2) 5' - AACGUAAUGGCCGAUA - 3'
(3) 5' - AACGTAATGGCCGATA - 3' (4) 5' - UUAGCCGGUAAUGCAA - 3'
19. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of a bacterial cell wall ?
It harbors the electron transport chain
It defines the size and shape of the bacterium
It contains modified sugars
Sometimes it contributes to its pathogenic function
20. When a mouse cell was placed in a solution, the cell volume increased. Thus, as compared to
the cell, the solution is :
(1) Hypertonic (2) Isotonic (3) Hypotonic (4) Mesotonic
21. Which one of the following stains is used to detect Mycobacterium species ?
(1) Acid - fast stain (2) Fuchsin stain (3) Gram stain (4) Giemsa stain
22. The post translational modification commonly found in the praline residues of a protein is :
(1) Methylation (2) Acetylation (3) Hydroxylation (4) Phosphorylation

23. During photosynthesis, light reactions produce :
(1) GTP (2) NADH (3) FADH2 (4) NADPH
24. Human mitochondria are :
(1) Generated de novo in the zygote (2) Inherited from the father
(3) Inherited from both parents (4) Inherited from the mother
25. When the genome of a bacteriophage is integrated into a cellular genome, it is called a :
(1) Lytic virus (2) Prophage
(3) Transducing virus (4) Microphage
26. What is allele ?
(1) A physical location on chromosome
(2) Different genes present on different chromosomes
(3) Alternate form of the same gene
(4) Different gene encoding different subunits of a heteromeric enzyme
27. Which one of the following is found only in animal cells ?
(1) Plastids (2) Mitochondria (3) Golgi apparatus (4) Centrioles
28. Synaptic transmission is an example of which type of signaling ?
(1) Endocrine (2) Paracrine (3) Autocrine (4) Neurocrine
29. Which one of the following is not an immediate event following activation of cell surface
receptors ?
(1) GTP hydrolysis (2) Tyrosine phosphorylation
(3) Receptor dimerization (4) Acetylation of histones

30. 'Kozak' consensus sequence is a characteristic of :
(1) Gene promoter (2) Origin of replication
(3) 5' - UTR of eukaryotic mRNA (4) 3' - UTR of eukaryotic mRNA
31. The evolution of a new species is called :
(1) Differentiation (2) Ontogeny (3) Organogenesis (4) Speciation
32. Which of the molecular methods for assessing similarity gives the crudest approximation of
relatedness ?
(1) DNA hybridization (2) PCR
(3) 16S rDNA sequencing (4) DNA - base composition
33. Chloroplast and mitochondria contain DNA. This supports the concept of :
(1) Chromosomal mutation (2) Cytoplasmic inheritance
(3) Transformation (4) Multiple alleles
34. Which of the following is not a micronutrient for plants ?
(1) B (2) Cu
(3) Zn (4) Ca
35. The most important event in apoptosis involves :
(1) Discrete lesions in cell membrane
(2) Loss of cell membrane
(3) Loss of phosphatidylserine from membranes
(4) DNA fragmentation
36. Natural genetic engineer, is a term used for :
(1) Agrobacterium (2) Azotobacter (3) Azospirullum (4) Aspergillus

37. In BT cotton, the active ingredient that kills insect is :
(1) Bacterial toxin (2) Alkaloids (3) Terpenoids (4) Salicylic acid
38. Photosystem I is essential for the production of :
(1) ATP (2) Plastoquinol (3) NADH (4) FMNH
39. In photorespiration, CO2 is released from :
(1) Mitochondria (2) Chloroplast (3) Peroxisome (4) Glyoxisome
40. Sickle - cell anemia is caused by :
(1) Viral infection of red blood cells
(2) Amino acid substitution in the hemoglobin molecule
(3) Excessive diphosphoglycerate
(4) Deficiency of biotin
41. A student has written his name on the trunk of a tree at a height of 100 cm from the soil. If
the tree grows by 15 cm every year, where will be his name after three years ?
(1) At 100 cm from the soil (2) At 130 cm from the soil
(3) At 115 cm from the soil (4) At 145 cm from the soil
42. Restriction enzymes are :
(1) Enzymes that restrict uncontrolled growth of cells which result in cancer
(2) Enzymes that restrict DNA synthesis to the minimum necessary level and prevent
polyploidy
(3) Enzymes that cleave phosphodiester linkages in DNA only at a specific sequence yielding
fragments of reproducible sizes
(4) Enzymes that cleave polycistronic mRNA to yield individual cistrons
43. The cells involved in the bone formation are :
(1) Osteoclast (2) Osteocytes (3) Osteoblast (4) Odontoblast

44. Citric acid is industrially produced by :
(1) Penicillium notatum
(2) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(3) Aspergillus niger
(4) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
45. Common lesion found in DNA after exposure to ultraviolet light is :
(1) pyrimidine dimers (2) single strand break
(3) base depletions (4) purine dimers
46. If a subcellular fraction from liver tissue exhibits a high level of acid phosphatase activity,
it most likely contains :
(1) Nuclei (2) Lysosomes
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum (4) Mitochondrion
47. Cells that recall the previous contact with a particular antigen and on further exposure to
such an antigen produce a more rapid and larger population of antibodies are :
(1) T cells (2) BCGF (3) BCDF
(4) Interlukin II
48. How many ATP molecules can be derived from each molecule of acetyl CoA that enters the
Krebs' Cycle ?
(1) 6 (2) 12 (3) 18 (4) 38
49. The lysosomal sorting signal is :
(1) N - acetyl - glucosamine
(2) Ran : GTP
(3) Mannose - 6 - phosphate
(4) Ribose - 6 - phosphate
50. End product of repression differs from feedback inhibition by regulating :
(1) Enzyme activity (2) Enzyme synthesis
(3) Enzyme stability (4) Enzyme folding

51. All animals belonging to the vertebrate class Mammalia as the whale, the sloth and the
squirrel possess :
(1) viviparity (2) mammary glands (3) hair (4) swim bladder
52. Ammocoetes larva grows into the adult :
(1) Petrotnyzon (2) Balanoglossus
(3) Bufo (4) Palaetnon
53. In the cell membrane of rod cells of the eye, nerve impulse transmission is initiated by its :
(1) depolarisation (2) hyperpolarisation
(3) repolarisation (4) polarisation
54. The components of the plasma membrane responsible for active transport are :
(1) proteins (2) polar ends of fatty acids
(3) fatty acid tails (4) only the open channels
55. The correct statement regarding relationship between organisms and physical laws is :
(1) Life does not obey any physical law
(2) Life obeys only the first law of thermodynamics or conservation of energy
(3) Life obeys only the second law of thermodynamics on entropy
(4) Life obeys both the physical laws of thermodynamics
56. The cells of the stomach lining responsible for altering the pH inside stomach cavity by their
secretion are :
(1) goblet cells (2) oxyntic cells (3) chief cells (4) mucus cells
57. The formation of hyper - osmotic urine by human kidneys does not involve :
(1) Secretion of Anti - Diuretic Hormone
(2) Vasa - recta
(3) Passive diffusion of solutes
(4) Active transport of Na /Cr"

58. Select the pair which does not match :
(1) Honey bee : Apiculture
(2) Silk worm moth : Sericulture
(3) Silver fish : Silviculture
(4) Fish : Pisciculture
59. Huntington's chorea has more chances of affecting the bearer of the gene than those possessing
Cystic Fibrosis gene because it is caused by a :
(1) dominant allele
(2) recessive allele
(3) co dominant genes
(4) multiple alleles
60. Amniocentesis and Chorionic villi sampling are screening techniques wherein :
(1) base sequence of DNA is checked
(2) chromosomes are observed and counted
(3) resting nuclei are cytochemically analysed
(4) fluid containing dividing nuclei is separated and analysed
61. Choose the correct option.
Broad Spectrum antibiotics do not :
(1) halt microbial growth
(2) kill target bacteria
(3) destroy wide range of bacteria
(4) kill pathogenic viruses
62. Of the following, the one which is not used as a vector for inserting genes to raise transgenic
organisms is :
(1) Plasmid (2) Bacteriophage
(3) Penicilliurn notatum (4) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

63. Which one of the following pair of terms is not synonymous ?
(1) Recombinant DNA technology and Genetic Engineering
(2) Genetically modified crops and Transgenic crops
(3) Restriction enzyme and Restriction endonuclease
(4) Virus and bacteriophage
64. Eutrophication does not result in :
(1) Algal bloom
(2) Increase in aerobic decomposers
(3) Death of aerobic organisms, such as fish
(4) Increase in chlorine content of water
65. Natality means :
(1) Net increase in the population
(2) Net decrease in the population
(3) Production of new individuals in the population
(4) No change in the population
66. The process by which eventual fate of a population of cells is altered because of interaction
with neighbouring cells is called :
(1) Embryonic induction
(2) Delamination
(3) Stem cell culture
(4) Morphogenesis
67. Courtship behaviour between male and female stickleback fishes in spring is an example of
environmental cues triggering :
(1) Territorial behaviour (2) Innate behaviour
(3) Learned behaviour (4) Reflex action

68. Morphogenetic movements during gastrulation involve :
(1) Pinocytosis (2) Phagocytosis (3) Involution (4) Phototaxis
69. The scientific name of modern humans is :
(1) Homo erectus (2) Homo sapiens sapiens
(3) Homo habilis
(4) Australopithecus afarensis
70. One of the following features which is not typical of birds is :
(1) Syrinx (2) Pygostyle
(3) Foramen triosseum (4) Homodont dentition
71. GnRH is released by :
(1) Anterior pituitary (2) Posterior pituitary
(3) Hypothalamus (4) Uterus
72. If you wish to see Felis leo in their natural surroundings, you should visit :
(1) Ranthambore in Rajasthan
(2) Bandhavgarh in Madhya Pradesh
(3) Simlipal in Orissa
(4) Sesan Gir in Gujarat
73. Normal colour-visioned Radha married Raja whose mother was colourblind. Radha's father
was also colourblind. What are the chances of their sons and daughters being colour blind ?
(1) All sons and all daughters
(2) 50% sons and 50% daughters
(3) All sons but 50% daughters
(4) 50% sons and all daughters
74. Social organisation in insects is not exhibited by :
(1) Termites (2) Honey bee (3) Ants (4) Mosquitoes
M.Sc. Life Science/June 2011 14
75. The term which explains the evolution of similar features in organisms of two different stocks
is :
(1) Adaptive Radiation (2) Macro evolution
(3) Convergent evolution (4) Divergent evolution
76. GM crops, Bt cotton and Bt brinjal are called so because :
(1) they produce a toxin which kills boll worms
(2) they possess a gene responsible for producing a toxin which kills boll worms
(3) they have recombinant DNA from target crop and a bacterium
(4) they are named after the bacterium from whom they received a particular gene through
genetic engineering
77. In the alcoholics, liver cirrhosis sets in due to the deposition in the hepatic cells, of :
(1) fat (2) protein (3) starch (4) alcohol
78. When red blood cells are stacked together they :
(1) crenate (2) burst
(3) form a rouleaux (4) form a column of blood
79. Which forms the subsidiary circulatory system ?
(1) Mucus (2) Serum (3) Hormones (4) Lymph
80. The term used for inadequacy of oxygen in blood is :
(1) Anoxia (2) Hypoxia (3) Asphyxia (4) Anorexia
81. When impulse arrives at the synapse it first :
(1) triggers entry of calcium ions
(2) releases Acetylcholine
(3) depolarises pre synaptic membrane
(4) depolarises post synaptic membrane
M.Sc. Life Science/June 2011 15 P.T.O.

82. The incorrect statement about the part of chromosome labelled 0 in the diagram given
below is :
(1) it is called primary constriction
(2) it divides at mitotic anaphase
(3) it is an indispensible part of the chromosome
(4) it contains DNA, RNA and proteins
83. One of the following is not a consequence of global warming :
(1) Melting Ice caps
(2) Hurricanes
(3) Ozone depletion
(4) Drought
time
The graph shows rate of oxygen use by a person. The point at which lactic acid concentration
will be highest is :
(1) Y
(2) Z (3) P
(4) Q
85. The allele for right handedness is H and that for left handedness is h. The chances of offspring
inheriting left handedness from two left handed parents is :
(1) 25% (2) 50%
(3) 75% (4) 100%

86. The amount of DNA in the renal cells of a calf was estimated to be 6.4 picograms. The DNA
amount in its RBC and sperms would respectively be :
(1) 6.4 and 3.2 picograms
(2) zero and 3.2 picograms
(3) 3.2 and 3.2 picograms
(4) 6.4 and 6.4 picograms
87. The ageing of a lake is accelerated by addition of effluents from homes and industries. This
is termed :
(1) senescence (2) bioaccumiilation
(3) biomagnification (4) eutrophication
88. The inheritance pattern of ABO blood group shows :
(1) only dominance
(2) only co dominance
(3) dominance, co dominance and multiple allelism
(4) dominance, co dominance and pleiotrophy
89. If 1,000,000 joules of sunlight is available, the energy available to the tertiary consumer will
be :
(1) 10 J (2) 100 J
(3) 1000 J (4) 10,000 J
90. One of the enzymes which is not involved in DNA replication is :
(1) Ligase
(2) Endonuclease
(3) DNA Polymerase
(4) Lyase
91. The true statement regarding human embryonic development is :
(1) no developmental event occurs in the fallopian tube
(2) Cleavage begins after zygote implants in the uterus
(3) The epiblast cells form the placenta
(4) Inner cell mass of blastocyst eventually become the foetus

92.The diagram shown above is :
(1) the primitive streak stage of chick embryo
(2) the neural fold stage of chick embryo
(3) 25 - 26 hour old chick embryo
(4) chick embryo after 10 hours incubation
93. When the lac operon is switched on, RNA polymerase recognises and attaches to the site
of :
(1) Regulator (i) gene
(2) Promoter (p) gene
(3) Operator (o) gene
(4) Structural (z, y, a) genes
94. DDT was found to accumulate in the phytoplankton, zooplankton, small fish, large fish and
predatory bird which comprised a food chain. The maximum and minimum amounts of
DDT were found in :
(1) Large fish and small fish
(2) Predatory bird and phytoplankton
(3) Phytoplankton and zooplankton
(4) Large fish and predatory bird


95. Development of resistance to antibiotics in bacteria is an example of :
(1) Natural selection (2) Selective breeding
(3) Lamarckian concept of evolution (4) DeVrie's concept of evolution
96. Blood circulation in humans is termed 'double circulation' because :
(1) blood circulates in both anterior and posterior regions of the body
(2) blood circulates from heart to lungs and then back to heart and then to all parts of the
body
(3) both oxygenated and deoxygenated blood circulates in the body
(4) the heart is divided into two chambers on its left side and two on its right
97. The advantage of having millions of alveoli in the human lungs is that :
(1) a huge surface area for gas exchange becomes available
(2) if some alveoli collapse, others can substitute
(3) more oxygen than carbon-dioxide can be obtained
(4) vascularisation of the alveoli becomes efficient
Time
In the FCC shown here, QRS depicts
(1)
(3)
Joint diastole
Atrio-ventricular diastole
(2) Atrial systole
(4) Ventricular systole

99.
Y
The above diagram shows DNA replication. Two enzymes involved in the process are marked
X and Y. Y is DNA polymerase. The name and function of X is :
(1) Helicase : unwinds helix and breaks H-bonds
(2) Helicase : holds unzipped strands tight
(3) Topoisomerase : helps to form sugar - phosphate bonds
(4) Ligase : Joins complementary bases
100. The site for TCA cycle in the mitochondria is :
(1) Space between the two mitochondrial membranes
(2) F1 particles
(3) Mitochondrial matrix
(4) Cristae
101. Which of the following belongs to Archaebacteria ?
(1) Sulfobolus (2) Agrobacterium (3) Salmonella (4) Escherichia coli
102. Which one of the following viruses has RNA as its genome ?
(1) HIV
(2) Epstein-Barr virus
(3) Polyoma (4) Human Papilloma viruses
103. The organisation which publishes the 'Red Data Book' is :
(1) National Wildlife Action Plan
(2) Convention on International Trade in Endangered species of Wild Fauna and Flora
(3) International Union for conservation of Nature and Natural Resources
(4) International Panel of Climate Change

104. Green Belt refers to :
Forest cover
Area demarcated around cities and towns to reduce noise and pollution
Protected areas in forests
Terai forest region
105. Ethylene, a growth regulator is used for :
(1) Retarding ripening of tomatoes
(2) Speeding up ripening of fruits
(3) Slowing down ripening of apples
(4) Both (2) and (3)
106. latropalynology is the science of study of :
(1) Pollen grains of honey
(2) Pollengrains causing allergy
(3) Toxic pollen grains of honey
(4) Fossil pollen flora
107. Chromosome number of an ovule in a gymnospermous plant is 8. What would be the
chromosome number of its endosperm ?
(1) 8 (2) 16 (3) 24 (4) 32
108. Which one of these produce seeds without fruit ?
(1) Pisum (2) Cycas
(3) Casuarina (4) Opuntia
109. Tapetum occurs in the microsporangial wall between :
(1) Epidermis and Endothecium
(2) Endothecium and middle layers
(3) Epidermis and Exothecium
(4) Middle layers and sprogenous tissue

110. Quantosomes occur on the surface of
(1) Cristae (2) Plasmalemma of chioroplasts
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum (4) Thylakoids
111. If the anthers and the stigma mature at different times, this condition is known as :
(1) Dicliny (2) Dichogamy (3) Protogyny (4) Herkogamy
112. An antitranspirant used by farmers is :
(1) Phenyl mercuric acid (2) Abscisic acid
(3) Salycylic acid (4) All the above
fi
113. A trihybrid cross is made in yeast, both the parents have a genotype of AaBbCc. What
proportion of the offspring will be of genotype aabbcc ?
(1) 0 (2) 1/4
(3) 1/16 (4) 1/ 64
114. Pines wood is non-porous, and is characterised by :
(1) Absence of companion cells (2) Absence of vessels
(3) Presence of tracheids (4) Absence of tracheids
115. Welwitschia niirabilis is found in :
(1) Deserts of Rajasthan
(2) Andaman islands
(3) Coastal region of Namibia
(4) Coastal region of Western Australia

116. In most of the intervarietal and interspecific crosses, embryos fail to form because :
of pollination which does not takes place
of failure of anther formation
of failure of endosperm formation
of failure of ovule formation
117. 'Heeng' or Asafoetida is latex obtained from :
(1) stem of Euphorbia tirucalli
(2) stem of Manihot esculentum
(3) roots of Ferula
(4) roots of Euphorbia hirta
118. Gynoecium of Fabaceae is :
(1) Bicarpellary syncarpous
(2) Polycarpellary apocarpous
(3) Polycarpellary syncarpous
(4) Monocarpellary
119. Peepal and Ficus benghalensis often grow in cracks of walls/drain pipes because their seeds
are dispersed by :
(1) Wind (2) Rain (3) Ants (4) Birds
120. Wind pollinated flowers are :
(1) white in colour and less in number
(2) bright coloured and scented
(3) white in colour and more in number
(4) bright coloured and large

121. Bt in popular Bt-Brinjal and Bt-Cotton stands for :
(1) Biotechnically Produced
(2) Bacillus tomentosa
(3) Bacillus thuringiensis
(4) Biologically tested
122. DNA finger printing technique is developed by
(1) Jeffreys and his co-workers
(2) Boysen and Jensen
(3) Edwards and Steptoe
(4) Schleiden and Schwann
123. Which one is not a terminator codon ?
(1) UAA (2) UAG
(3) AUG (4) UGA
124. Barr bodies result from :
(1) inactivation of one X chromosome by the Y chromosome
(2) a third X chromosome
(3) inactivation of one X chromosome for dosage compensation
(4) inactivation of Y chromosome by the X chromosome
125. Which of the following scientists shared the Nobel prize with Watson and Crick for DNA
structure ?
(1) Rosalind Franklin
(2) Paulirtg
(3) Wilkins
(4) Khorana
M.Sc. Life Science/June 2011
24
126. Three genes I C U show crossing over 20% between I and G, 28% between G and U and
8% between I and U. Sequence of genes will be :
(1) G I U (2) I C..; 'LT
(3) I U C (4) None is correct
127. Which is the correct match in the following ?
(1) Sickle cell anemia - X - chromosome
(2) Down's syndrome - 21st chromosome
(3) Haemophilia - Y chromosome
(4) Parkinson's disease - X and Y chromosomes
128. Which of the following is amphitropous ovule ?
(1) (2) (3) (4)
129. Sexually reproducing organism can contribute to their offsprings :
All of the genes
One half of their genes
One fourth of their genes
Double the number of genes
130. During Iraq - America conflict, which of these were reportedly used as bioweapon ?
(1) Yersinia (Pasteurella) pestis
(2) Bacillus anthracis
(3) Streptococcus pyogenes
(4) Treponema pallidum

131. Night phosphorescence or glow of sea water is due to which of these protists ?
(1) Noctileuca (2) Navicula
(3) Phacus (4) Dictyostelium
132. Spathe and Spadix are :
(1) homologous organ
(2) analogous organ
(3) different organs and hence cannot be compared
(4) synonymous
133. BOD (Biological Oxygen Demand) is :
(1) Amount of oxygen consumed by microorganisms for decaying organic matter per unit
volume of water
(2) Amount of oxygen required by aquatic plants and animals for survival
(3) Amount of CO2 consumed by micro-organisms per unit of sewage water
(4) Demand of oxygen by aquatic plants for photosynthesis
134. Golden rice developed through transgenic technique is enriched with :
(1) High lysine (2) High methionine
(3) High glutenin (4) High vitamin content
135. Biofertilizer is :
(1) Manure (2) Enriched manure
(3) Nutrient rich microorganisms (4) Composite manure
M.Sc. Life Science/June 2011 26
136. Alternate name of heartwood is :
(1) Duramen (2) Alburnum
(3) Primary Xylem (4) Spring wood
137. Three types of flowers occur in the inflorescene type of :
(1) Capitulum (2) Hypanthodium
(3) Cyathium (4) Umbel
138. A fruit without seed is not possible in case of :
(1) Grape (2) Orange (3) Pomegranate (4) Berry
139. Trihybrid ratio is :
(1) 27 : 9 : 9 : 9 : 3 : 3 : 3 : 1
(2) 27 : 9 : 9 : 6 : 6 : 3 : 3 : 1
(3) 1 : 6 : 15 : 20 : 15 : 6 :1
(4) 36 : 6 : 6 : 6 : 3 : 3 : 3 : 1
140. In which of these archegonium is present ?
(1) Spirogyra (2) Funaria (3) Rhizopus (4) Fucus
141. The spread of genes from one breeding population to another by migration which may result
in changes in gene frequency is called :
(1) Genetic Drift (2) Gene Flow
(3) Gene Frequency (4) None of the above
M.Sc. Life Science/June 2011 27 P.T.O.
142. Secondary cortex cuts off from :
(1) Intercalary meristem (2) Protoderm
(3) Procambium (4) Phellogen
143. Botanically Ragi is known as :
(1) Arena Sativa (2) Sorghum Vulgare
(3) Eleusine Coracana (4) Pennisetum typhoides
144. Which one of the following is known as pond scum :
(1) Spirogyra (2) Ulothrix (3) Anabaena (4) Nostoc
145. National Botanical Research Institute is situated in :
(1) Bangaluru (2) Kolkata
(3) Lucknow (4) Ootacamand
146. Bacteria (Monera) lack alternation of generations because there is :
(1) Absence of syngamy and reduction division
(2) Distinct chromosomes are absent
(3) No conjugation
(4) No exchange of genetic material
147. Mushroom is a :
(1) Saprophyte (2) Epiphyte
(3) Facultative Parasite (4) Obligate Parasite
148. The deadliest mushroom is :
(1) Agaricus (2) Amanita
(3) Pleurotus (4) Volvariella
M.Sc. Life Science/June 2011 28
149. A new genus of conifer is recently described from Australia and is also a 'living fossil', the
name is :
(1) Metasequoia glyptostroboides (2) Wollemia nobilis
(3) Ginkgo biloba (4) Cycas Circinalis
150. If the haploid number of chromosomes in a gymnosperm is 11, their number in endosperm
cell would be ?
(1) 22 (2) 11
(3) 33 (4) 44

hii sir I wants to give the OPENMAT Examination of IGNOU will you please provide me the previous year question paper of the IGNOU OPENMAT Examination ?

[Kiran Chandar]

As you asking for the OPENMAT Examination let me tell you that the examination consist the following sections that are as follow :


Pattern for Written Exam for IGNOU open MAT exam

Reasoning - 70 questions.
General Awareness - 30 questions.
English Language - 50 questions.
Quantitative Aptitude - 50

As you asking for the question paper of the OPEN MAT Examination sorry I may not found the question paper but here I Am providng you the syllabus of the OPENMAT Examination that is as follow:


Syllabus of the OPEN MAT Examination:

General Awareness

Current AffairsIndia:Constitution, Government, Laws, Famous People, Achievements, Organisations, History,Geography, Economy, Politics, States.

World: Countries, Organisations, Leaders, World Economy, Summits.

Science,Industry, Trade etc.

English Language

Reading and Comprehension: You will be asked to read passages and then answer the multiple choice questions based on the passage.

Grammar: These questions would test your skills in English grammar. This section contains questions like fill in the blanks , sentence correction etc.

Vocabulary, Synonyms, Antonyms etc.

Quantitative Aptitude

This sections tests your numerical and math skills. The most frequent topics are:

Algebra, Ratios and Proportions, LCM, HCF,

Statistics, Mean,mode,median, Permutations, combinations,

Progressions, Arithmetic Progression, Geometric Progression

Geometry, Number Systems, Trigonometry etc.

Reasoning

This section checks your reasoning skills. The commonly asked topics are:

Assertion and reasons, Assumption-Premise-Conclusion, Cause and Effect, Coding and decoding, Critical reasoning, Family tree, Statements and assumptions, Statements and conclusions, Symbol Based problems, Visual reasoning etc.


Books :
• EERAJ OPENMAT Management Entrance Exam Guide – 2015
• GPH OPENMAT Management Entrance Guide