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  #2  
30th July 2015, 02:13 PM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Apr 2013
Re: Entrance Exam Papers for ONGC

Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC) is a reputed company that offers wide and great option of job opportunities and it is organized entrance examination for recruitments on various posts….

Pattern of ONGC question papers:
Objective type questions are appeared in examination..
ONGC written test includes
General aptitude,
General Awareness Test And
Specialized subject test.

Entrance Exam Papers for ONGC:

1. Which one of the following tests is performed in the laboratory to determine the extent of weathering of aggregates for road works?
(a) Soundness test
(b) Crushing test
(c) Impact test
(d) Abrasion test
Ans. (a)

2. Which one of the following geometric features requires the magnitudes of weaving angle and weaving distance for its design?
(a) Rotary design
(b) Right-angle intersection
(c) Roundabout
(d) Grade-separated junction
Ans. (a)

3. Which one of the following methods is used in the design of rigid pavements?
(a) CBR method
(b) Group index method
(c) Westergaard’s method
(d) McLeod’s method
Ans. (c)

4. In which one of the following yards, are reception, sorting and dispatch of railway wagons done?
(a) Loco yard
(b) Marashalling yard
(c) Goods yard
(d) Passenger yard
Ans. (b)

5. Which one of the following is not a desirable property of the subgrade soil as a highway meterial?
(a) Stability
(b) Ease of compaction
(c) Good drainage
(d) Bitumen adhesion
Ans. (d)

6. Consider the following statements:
In surverying operations, the word ‘reciprocal’ can be associated with
1. ranging
2. levelling
3. contouring
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (b)

7. How many- sidereal days are there in a solar year?
(a) 365.2840
(b) 366.2422
(c) 360.2500
(d) 365.0000
Ans. (b)

8. Consider the following statements
A sidereal year can be defined as the time interval:
1. between two successive transits .of the sun through the meridian of any of the fixed stars
2. between two successive passages of the sun through perigee
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 3 only
(b) 1and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 only
Ans. (b)

9. Which one of the following methods of computing area assumes that the short, lengths of the boundary between the ordinatesm are parabolic ares?
(a) Average ordinate rule
(b) Middle ordinate rule
(c) Simpson’s rule
(d) Trapezoidal rule
Ans. (c)

10. Which one the following errors is more severe in plane-table surveying?
(a) Defective sighting
(b) Defective orientation
(c) Movement of board between sights
(d) Non-horizontality of board when points sighted are at large differences of their elevation .
Ans. (b)

11. Which one of the following sets of factors is related to design of thickness rigid pavement by Westergaard method?
(a) CBR value and stiffness index of soil
(b) Deflection factor and traffic index
(c) Swelling index and bulk modulus
(d) Radius of relative stiffness and modulus of subgrade reaction
Ans. (d)

12. Consider the following in relation to group index of soil:
1. Liquid limit
2. Sandy loam
3. Plasticity index
4. Per cent passing 75 microns sieve
Which of the above is/are used for estimating the group index?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans. (d)

13. Which set of traffic functional design as well as for ‘highway capacity’ design?
(a) Origin and destination studies
(b) Parking and accident studies
(c) Speed and volume studies
(d) Axle load studies
Ans. (a)

14. Which one of the following traffic survey schemes is most relevant when deciding on locating major ‘routes’ in a city?
(a) Traffic volume survey
(b) Origin and destination survey
(c) Speed survey
(d) Traffic capacity survey
Ans. (b)

15. Which one of the following equipments is useful in determining spot speed in traffic engineering?
(a) Endoscope
(b) Periscope
(c) Radar
(d) Tachometer
Ans. (c)

16. Hot bitumen is sprayed over freshly constructed bituminous surface followed by spreading of 6.3 mm coarse aggregates and rolled. Which one of the following is indicated by this type of construction?
(a) Surface dressing
(b) Gravel-bitumen mix
(c) Liquid seal coat
(d) Seal coat
Ans. (a)

17. Radius of relative stiffness of cement concrete pavement does not depend upon which one of the following?
(a) Modulus of subgrade reaction
(b) Wheel load
(c) Modulus of elasticity of cement concrete
(d) Poisson’s ratio of concrete
Ans. (b)

18. For conditions obtaining in India, at which location in a cement concrete payement will the combined stresses due to traffic wheel studies is needed for well as for ‘highway load and temperature have to be critically checked during design?
(a) Corner
(b) Corner and interior
(c) Corner and edge
(d) Corner, edge and interior
Ans. (d)

19. Consider the following factors:
1. The change in the shape and size of the channel cross-section
2. The change in the slope of the channel
3. The presence of obstruction
4. The change in the frictional forces at the boundaries
Which of the above factors would cause a gradually varied flow?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 3 and 4 only
Ans. (a)

20. Under which one of the following categories is the river Ganga classified in the reach through UP and Bihar?
(a) Straight river
(b) Meandering river
(c) Braided river
(d) Deltaic river
Ans. (b)

21. Which of the following categories best describes the Hirakud reservoir?
(a) Reservoir for irrigation and power
(b) Reservoir for flood control, power and irrigation
(c) Reservoir for irrigation and water supply
(d) Reservoir for recreation and fishery
Ans. (b)

22.. During a particular stage of the growth of a crop, consumptive use of water is 2.8 mm/day. If the amount of water available in the soil is 25% of 80 mm depth of water what is the frequency of irrigation?
(a) 9 days
(b) 13 days
(c) 21 days
(d) 25 days
Ans. (c)

23.. Consider the following statements:
Irrigation water has to be supplied to the crops when the moisture level falls
1. below field capacity
2. to wilting point
3. below wilting point
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3
Ans. (a)

24.. A groundwater basin consists of 10 km2 area of plains. The maximum groundwater table fluctuation has been observed to be 1.5 m. Consider specific yield of the basin as 10%. What is the available groundwater storage in million cubic metres?
(a) 1.0
(b) 1.5
(c) 2.5
(d) 2.0
Ans. (b)

25. Consider the following chemical emulsions:
1. Methyl alcohol
2. Cetyl alcohol
3. Stearyl alcohol
4. Kerosene
Which of the above chemical emulsions is/are used to minimize the loss of water through the process of evaporation?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 2 and 3
Ans. (d)

26. A catchment area of 60 ha has a runoff coefficient of 0.40. If a storm of intensity 3cm h and duration longer than the time of concentration occurs in the catchment, then what is the peak discharge?
(a) 2.0 m3/s
(b) 3.5 m3/s
(c) 4.5 m3/s
(d) 2.5 m3/s
Ans. (a)

27. Which combination of surface water quality parameters will indicate sweep coagulation as the preferred mechanism of coagulation?.
(a) High turbidity — low alkalinity
(b) High turbidity — high alkalinity
(c) Low turbidity — high alkalinity
(d) Low turbidity — low alkalinity
Ans. (b)

28. In a canal irrigation project, 76% of the culturable command area (CCA) remained without water during Kharif season; and 58% of CCA remained without water during Rabi season in a particular year. Rest of the areas got irrigated in each crop respectively. What is the intensity of irrigation for the project in that year?
(a) 134%
(b) 76%
(c) 66%
(d) 58%
Ans. (b)

29. What is the critical combination of vertical and horizontal earthquake accelerations to be considered for checking the stability of a gravity dam in reservoir full condition?
(a) Vertically upward and horizontally downstream
(b) Vertically upward and horizontally upstream
(c) Vertically downward and horizontally upstream
(d) Vertically downward and horizontally downstream
Ans. (d)

30. What is the height of wave which is likely to be generated by a wind of 80 km/hr in a reservoir having a fetch of 50 km:
(a) 0.5m
(b) 1.0 m
(c) 2.0 m
(d) 3.0 m
Ans. (c)

31. Consider the following statements:
1. Giving equal weightings to horizontal and vertical creeps for design of weir foundations is one of the drawbacks of Kennedy’s theory.
2. Khosla’s theory of design of foundations for weirs is based on potential theory.
3. Piping problem can be reduced by increasing the length of floor.
4. In Lane’s weighted creep theory, horizontal creep is given less weightage compared to vertical creep.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 3 and 4 only
Ans. (b)

32. The power transmitted through a pipeline is maximum when the head lost due to friction in the pipe is equal to:
(a) the total supply head
(b) half of the total supply head
(c) one-third of the total supply head
(d) one-fourth of the total supply head
Ans. (c)

33. Consider the following with respect to the application of the Navier-Stokes equations:
1. Laminar flown in circular pipes
2. Laminar flow between concentric rotating cylinders
3. Laminar unidirectional flow between stationary parallel plates
4. Laminary unit directional flow between parallel plates having relative motion
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only.
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (c)

34. In a siphon system employed for carrying water from a reservoir A at a higher elevation to another reservoir B at lower elevation, both being separated by a higher hill, what will be the pressure at the ‘Summit’ (S)?
(a) Equal to the pressure at the water surface of reservoir A
(b) Higher than the pressure at the water surface of reservoir A
(c) Equal to the pressure at the water surface of reservoir B
(d) Less than the pressure at both A and B above
Ans. (d)

35. Consider the following statements related to undersluices provided in diversion weirs on permeable foundations:
I. They are fully gate-controlled and have crest at the same level as the weir crest when no silt excluders are provided.
2. They scour the silt deposited on the river bed in the pockets upstream of the canal head regulator.
3. It is not necessary to provide end pile line on the downstream end of the undersluice floor.
4. The discharge capacity of the undersluice is 10-15% of the maximum flood or two times the maximum discharge of the offtaking canal or maximum winter discharge, whichever is the highest.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 3 and 4 only
Ans. (b)

1.Women20-20 world Championship was Won By
(A)Australia
(B)England
(C)Pakistan
(D) India

2. Who is the Chairperson of Identification Authority of India (UIA)?
(A) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan
(B) Nandan Nilekani
(C) B. Shreedharan
(D) M. N. Buch

3. Who won the 2009 Wimbledon ?
(A) Pete Samptas
(B) Rafael Nadal
(C) Roger Federer
(d) John McEnroe

4. Which country has the largest Rail Network in the World?
(A)India
(B) U. K.
(C)China
(D) U.S.A.

5. Who is the Union Law Minister of India?
(A) Sharad Pawar
(B) Kapil Sibbal
(C) Verrappa Moily
(D) Hansraj Bharadwaj

6. The Birthday of Late Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan, ‘President of India’, is celebrated as?
(A)Lawyer’s Day
(B)Teacher’s Day
(C)Children’s Day
(D)Father’s Day

7. Tirupati is in?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Karnatalca
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) MP

8. Kanha National Park is situated in which State ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Karnatalca
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) MP

9. River Narmada originates from?
(A) Bhedaghat
(B) Amarkantak
(C) Dindori
(D) Allahabad

10. Gandhiji started Dandi March in 1930
(A) Against atrocities committed on Harijarts
(B) Against imposition of Salt Tax
(C) Against the commencement of Communal Riot
(D) Against prohibition on Indian’s participating in elections

11. Who is the author of “My Experiments with Truth”?
(A)Nehru
(B) Tagore
(C) Gandhi
(D) Jinnah

12. NASA refers to
(A) National Aeronautics and Space Administration
(B) North Atlantic Space Agency
(C) North Airbase and Space Agency
(D) None of the above

13. I.S.O. 9000 is a?
(A) Quality Standard Mark
(B) Space Project
(C) Trade Technique
(d) None of these

14. Who among the following made a film on Mahatma Gandhi?
(A) Aparna Sen
(B) ShyamBenegal
(C) James Ivory
(d) Richard Attenborough

15. ‘Law Day’ is observed on
(A) 26th January
(B) 15th August
(C) 26th May
(d) 26th November

16. Which is the longest sea bridge in the country?
(A) Vidyasagar Sew, Kolkata
(B) Bandra-Worli Sea Link,Mumbai
(C) Bhakra-Nangal Project
(D) None of these

17. Dr. Rajendra Pachauri is a/an?
(A) Banker
(B) Industrialist
(C) Environmentalist
(D) Scientist

18. Who is the author of ‘Discovery of India’?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Sarojini Naidu
(D) Indira Gandhi

19. D.N.A. refers to?
(A)Di-oxyribo Nucleic Acid
(B)Di-oxide Nucleic Acid
(C)Different Nucleic Acid
(D) None of these.

20. S.M.S. is?
(A)Short Messaging Sequence
(B)Short Messaging Service
(C)Short Manageable Service
(D)Short and Medium Service

21. Padma Bhushan Award is?
(A) Gallantry Award
(B) Bravery Award
(C) Civilian Award
(d), Literary Award

22. Which city is known as the ‘City of Joy’?
(A)Delhi
(B) Mumbai
(C)Kolkata
(D) Chennai

23. Who won the ASHES Cricket Test Series held in year 2009?
(A)Australia
(B)England
(C)Pakistan
(D) None of these

24. Who appoints a Judge of a High Court?
(A) Governor
(B) Chief Minister
(C) President of i
(D) Chief Justice of India

25. Which of these animals is not shown in the National Emblem of India?
(A)Lion
(B) Horse
(C)Bull
(D) Elephant

26. Which is the Mother State of Chhattisgarh?
(A) Bihar
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Uttarakhand
(D) Madhya Pradesh

27. Who won the men’s 100 m. final race at the recently held 2009 IAAF Athletics World Championship in Berlin?
(A) Tyson Gay of America
(B) Usain Bolt of Jamaica
(C) Asafa Powell of Jamaica
(D) Yang Yon Eun of South Korea

28. The Finance Minister has pro posed replacement of the Income Tax Act by?
(A) The Finance Act, 2008
(B) The Direct Tax Act
(C) The Indian Taxation Code
(D) The Direct Taxes Code

29. The Earth rotates around an axis pointing towards
(A) the moon
(B) the pole star
(C) the sun
(D) Venus

30. Which one of the following aptly describes the generalised shape of the continents?
(A)Circular
(B) Hexagonal
(C)Rectangular
(D) Triangular

31.An Air India plane recently crashed at …….. Airport
(A) Mumbai
(B) Kolkata
(C) Mangalore
(D) Srinagar

32.Vikas Krishnan was in news Recently. He is a ?
(A) Boxer
(B) Writer
(C)Music Director
(D) Head of VIKAS NGO

33. During 1994-2007 grean house gas Emissions in India Fell By
(A) 25 percent
(B) 30 percent
(C) 35 percent
(D) 40 percent

34.First European Country to Ban Burqua is ?
(A) Belgium
(B) France
(C) UK
(D) Germany
  #3  
6th May 2020, 12:01 PM
Unregistered
Guest
 
Re: Entrance Exam Papers for ONGC

Can you provide me previous year Placement Question Paper for Mechanical for ONGC (Oil and Natural Gas Corporation) as I want to prepare for it?
  #4  
6th May 2020, 12:02 PM
Super Moderator
 
Join Date: Aug 2012
Re: Entrance Exam Papers for ONGC

The previous year Placement Question Paper for Mechanical for ONGC (Oil and Natural Gas Corporation) is as follows:

SECTION 1-MECHANICAL


1 During the execution of a CNC part program block NO20 GO2 X45.0 Y25.0 R5.0 the type of tool motion will be
A) circular Interpolation — clockwise
B) circular Interpolation — counterclockwise
C) linear Interpolation
D) rapid feed
Answer : (A)

2 A component can be produced by any of the four processes I, II, III and IV. Process I has a fixed cost ofRs. 20 and variable cost of Rs. 3 per piece. Process II has a fixed cost Rs. 50 and variable cost of Re. 1 per piece. Process III has a fixed cost of Rs. 40 and variable cost of Rs. 2 per piece. Process IV has a fixed cost of Rs. 10 and variable cost of Rs. 4 per piece. If the company wishes to produce 100 pieces of the component, from economic point of view it should choose
A) Process I
B) Process II
C) Process III
D) Process IV
Answer : (B)

3 In an interchangeable assembly, shafts of size 25.000+0.040mm mate with holes of size 25.000+0.020 mm. The maximum possible clearance in the assembly will be
A) 10 microns
B) 20 microns
C) 30 microns
D) 60 microns
Answer : (D)



4 A company has two factories S1, S2 and two warehouses D1, D2. The supplies from S1 and S2 are 50 and 40 units respectively. Warehouse D1 requires a minimum of 20 units and a maximum of 40 units. Warehouse D2 requires a minimum of 20 units and, over and above, it can take as much as can be supplied. A balanced transportation problem is to be formulated for the above situation. The number of supply points, the number of demand points, and the total supply (or total demand) in the balanced transportation problem respectively are
A) 2, 4, 90
B) 2, 4, 110
C) 3, 4, 90
D) 3, 4, 110
Answer : (C)

5 An incompressible fluid (kinematic viscosity, 7.4 x 10-7 m2/s, specific gravity, 0.88) is held between two parallel plates. If the top plate is moved with a velocity of 0.5 m/s while the bottom one is held stationary, the fluid attains a linear velocity profile in the gap of 0.5 mm between these plates; the shear stress in Pascals on the surface of top plate is
A) 0.651 x 10-3
B) 0.651
C) 6.51
D) 0.651 x 103
Answer : (B)

6 The tool of an NC machine has to move along a circular arc from (5,5) to (10,10) while performing an operation. The centre of the arc is at (10,5). Which one of the following NC tool path commands performs the above mentioned operation?
A) N010 G02 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5
B) N010 G03 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5
C) N010 G01 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5
D) N010 G02 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5
Answer : (D)

7 During a Morse test on a 4 cylinder engine, the following measurements of brake power were taken at constant speed.
All cylinders firing 3037 kW
Number 1 cylinder not firing 2102 kW
Number 2 cylinder not firing 2102 kW
Number 3 cylinder not firing 2100 kW
Number 4 cylinder not firing 2098 kW
The mechanical efficiency of the engine is
A) 91.53%
B) 85.07%
C) 81.07%
D) 61.22%
Answer : (C)

8 In terms of theoretical stress concentration factor (Kt) and fatigue stress concentration factor (Kf ), the notch sensitivity ‘q’ is expressed as
A) (Kf -1) (Kt -1)
B) (Kf -1) (Kt +1)
C) (Kt -1) (Kf -1)
D) (Kf +1) (Kt +1)
Answer : (A)

9 Starting from x0 = 1, one step of Newton-Raphson method in solving the equation x3 + 3x -7 = 0 gives the next value (x1) as
A) x1 = 0.5
B) x1= 1.406
C) x1= 1.5
D) x1 = 2
Answer : (C)

10 The S-N curve for steel becomes asymptotic nearly at
A) 103 cycles
B) 104 cycles
C) 10 6 cycles
D) 10 9 cycles
Answer : (C)


11. In PERT analysis a critical activity has
A) maximum Float
B) zero Float
C) maximum Cost
D) minimum Cost
Answer : (B)

12 Environment friendly refrigerant R134a is used inthe new generation domestic refrigerators. Itschemical formula is
A) CH C1 F2
B) C2 C13 F3
C) C2 C12 F4
D) C2 H2 F4
Answer : (D)

13 A solid cylinder (surface 2) is located at the centreof a hollow sphere (surface 1). The diameter of the sphere is 1m, while the cylinder has a diameter and length of 0.5 m each. The radiation configuration factor F11 is
A) 0.375
B) 0.625
C) 0.75
D) 1
Answer : (C)

14 For a fluid flow through a divergent pipe of length L having inlet and outlet radii of R1 and R2 respectively and a constant flow rate of Q, assuming the velocity to be axial and uniform at any cross-section, the acceleration at the exit is
A) 2Q(R1 - R2) p LR23
B) 2Q2 (R1 - R2) p LR23
C) 2Q2 (R1 - R2) p2LR25
D) 2Q2 (R2 - R1) p2LR25
Answer : (C)



15 An incompressible fluid (kinematic viscosity, 7.4 x 10-7 m2/s, specific gravity, 0.88) is held between two parallel plates. If the top plate is moved with a velocity of 0.5 m/s while the bottom one is held stationary, the fluid attains a linear velocity profile in the gap of 0.5 mm between these plates; the shear stress in Pascals on the surface of top plate is
A) 0.651 x 10-3
B) 0.651
C) 6.51
D) 0.651 x 103
Answer : (B)

16 The tool of an NC machine has to move along a circular arc from (5,5) to (10,10) while performing an operation. The centre of the arc is at (10,5). Which one of the following NC tool path commands performs the above mentioned operation?
A) N010 G02 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5
B) N010 G03 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5
C) N010 G01 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5
D) N010 G02 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5
Answer : (D)

17 During a Morse test on a 4 cylinder engine, the following measurements of brake power were taken at constant speed.
All cylinders firing 3037 kW
Number 1 cylinder not firing 2102 kW
Number 2 cylinder not firing 2102 kW
Number 3 cylinder not firing 2100 kW
Number 4 cylinder not firing 2098 kW
The mechanical efficiency of the engine is
A) 91.53%
B) 85.07%
C) 81.07%
D) 61.22%
Answer : (C)

18 In terms of theoretical stress concentration factor(Kt) and fatigue stress concentration factor (Kf ), the notch sensitivity ‘q’ is expressed as
A) (Kf -1) (Kt -1)
B) (Kf -1) (Kt +1)
C) (Kt -1) (Kf -1)
D) (Kf +1) (Kt +1)
Answer : (A)

19 Starting from x0 = 1, one step of Newton-Raphson method in solving the equation x3 + 3x -7 = 0 gives the next value (x1) as
A) x1 = 0.5
B) x1= 1.406
C) x1= 1.5
D) x1 = 2
Answer : (C)

20 A maintenance service facility has Poisson arrival rates, negative exponential service time and operates on a ‘first come first served’ queue discipline. Break downs occur on an average of 3 per day with a range of zero to eight. The maintenance crew can service an average of 6 machines per day with a range of zero to seven. The mean waiting time for an item to be serviced would be
A) 16 day
B) 13 day
C) 1 day
D) 3 days
Answer : (A)

21 The S-N curve for steel becomes asymptotic nearly at
A) 103 cycles
B) 104 cycles
C) 106 cycles
D) 109 cycles
Answer : (C)

22 In a rolling process, sheet of 25 mm thickness is rolled to 20 mm thickness. Roll is of diameter 600 mm and it rotates at 100 rpm. The roll strip contact length will be
A) 5 mm
B) 39 mm
C) 78mm
D) 120mm
Answer : (A)

23 Water at 42°C is sprayed into a stream of air at atmospheric pressure, dry bulb temperature of 40°C and a wet bulb temperature of 20°C. The air leaving the spray humidifier is not saturated. Which of the following statements is true?
A) Air gets cooled and humidified
B) Air gets heated and humidified
C) Air gets heated and dehumidified
D) Air gets cooled and dehumidified
Answer : (B)

24 The angle between two unit-magnitude coplanar vectors P(0.866, 0.500,0) and Q(0.259, 0.966,0) will be
A) 0°
B) -30°
C) 45°
D) 60°
Answer : (C)

25 A lot has 10% defective items. Ten items are chosen randomly from this lot. The probability that exactly 2 of the chosen items are defective is
A) 0.0036
B) 0.1937
C) 0.2234
D) 0.3874
Answer : (B)



26 Stokes theorem connects
A) a line integral and a surface integral
B) a surface integral and a volume integral
C) a line integral and a volume integral
D) gradient of a function and its surface integral
Answer : (A)

27 A solar collector receiving solar radiation at the rate of 0.6 k W/m2 transforms it to the internal energy of a fluid at an overall efficiency of 50%. The fluid heated to 350 K is used to run a heat engine which rejects heat at 313 K. If the heat engine is to deliver 2.5 kW power, the minimum area of the solar collector required would be
A) 8.33m2
B) 16.66m2
C) 39.68m2
D) 79.36m2
Answer : (D)

28 When the temperature of a solid metal increases,
A) strength of the metal decreaes but ductility increases
B) both strength and ductility of the metal decrease
C) both strength and ductility of the metal increase
D) strength of the metal increases but ductility decreases
Answer : (A)

29 A company produces two types of toys: P and Q. Production time of Q is twice that of P and the company has a maximum of 2000 time units per day. The supply of raw material is just sufficient to produce 1500 toys (of any type) per day. Toy type Q requires an electric switch which is available @ 600 pieces per day only. The company makes a profit of Rs. 3 and Rs. 5 on type P and Q respectively. For maximization of profits, the daily production quantities of P and Q toys should respectively be
A) 100, 500
B) 500, 1000
C) 800, 600
D) 1000, 1000
Answer : (C)

30 A spherical thermocouple junction of diameter 0.706 mm is to be used for the measurement Aof temperature of a gas stream. The convective heat transfer co-efficient on the bead surface is 400 W/m2K. Thermophysical properties of thermocouple material are k = 20 W/mK, C = 400 J/kg K and r = 8500 kg/m3. If the thermocouple initially tot 30°C is placed in a hot stream of 300°C, the time taken by the bead to reach 298°C, is
A) 2.35 s
B) 4.9 s
C) 14.7 s
D) 29.4 s
Answer : (B)

31 In a spring-mass system, the mass is 0.1 kg and the stiffness of the spring is 1 kN/m. By introducing a damper, the frequency of oscillation is found to be 90% of the original value. What is the damping coefficient of the damper?
A) 1.2 N.s/m
B) 3.4 N.s/m
C) 8.7 N.s/m
D) 12.0 N.s/m
Answer : (C)

32.In a machining operation, doubling the cutting speed reduces the tool life to 1/8 of the original value. The exponent n in Taylor
A) 1/8
B) 1/4
C) 1/3
D) 1/2
Answer : (C)

33.In a rolling process, sheet of 25 mm thickness is rolled to 20 mm thickness. Roll is of diameter 600 mm and it rotates at 100 rpm. The roll strip contact length will be
A) 5 mm
B) 39 mm
C) 78 mm
D) 120 mm
Answer : (A)

34.A soldering operation was work-sampled over two days (16 hours) during which an employee soldered 108 joints. Actual working time was 90% of the total time and the performance rating was estimated to be 120 percent. If the contract provides allowance of 20 percent of the total time available, the standard time for the operation would be
A) 8 min
B) 8.9 min
C) 10 min
D) 12 min
Answer : (D)

35. A welding operation is time-studied during which an operator was pace-rated as 120%. The operator took, on an average, 8 minutes for producing the weld-joint. If a total of 10% allowances are allowed for this operation, the expected standard production rate of the weld-joint (in units per 8 hour day) is
A) 45
B) 50
C) 55
D) 60
Answer : (A)

36. In PERT analysis a critical activity has
A) maximum Float
B) zero Float
C) maximum Cost
D) minimum Cost
Answer : (B)

37.Environment friendly refrigerant R134a is used in the new generation domestic refrigerators. Its chemical formula is
A) CH C1 F2
B) C2 C13 F3
C) C2 C12 F4
D) C2 H2 F4
Answer : (D)






38. The parabolic arc y = x, 1 ? x ? 2 is revolved around the x-axis. The volume of

the solid of revolution is

(A)4?

(B)2?

(C)34?

(D)32?



39. A moist air sample has dry bulb temperature of 30ºC and specific humidity of

11.5g water vapour per kg dry air. Assume molecular weight of air as 28.93. If

the saturation vapour pressure of water at 30ºC is 4.24kPa and the total pressure

is 90kPa, then the relative humidity (in %) of air sample is

(A) 50.5 (B) 38.5 (C) 56.5 (D) 68.5



40. The value of the integral 2dx1 x??? + ? is
(A) ??

(B)2??

(C)2?

(D) ?



41. The modulus of the complex number

? 3+ 4i ?? 1 ? 2i? ? ?is

(A) 5

(B) 5

(C)1

(D)15



42. The function y = 2 ? 3x

(A) is continuous ?x ? R and differentiable ?x ? R

(B) is continuous ?x ? R and differentiable ?x ? R except at x=3/2

(C) is continuous ?x ? R and differentiable ?x ? R except at x=2/3

(D) is continuous ?x ? R except at x=3 and differentiable ?x ? R

6. Mobility of a statically indeterminate structure is

(A) ? ?1 (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) ? 2



43. There are two points P and Q on a planar rigid body. The relative velocity

between the two points

(A) should always be along PQ

(B) Can be oriented along any direction

(C) should always be perpendicular to PQ

(D) should be along QP when the body undergoes pure translation



44. The state of plane-stress at a point is given by ?x = ?200MPa, ?y = 100MPa and ?xy = 100MPa. The maximum shear stress in MPa is

(A) 111.8

(B) 150.1

(C) 180.3

(D) 223.6



45. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

(A) Grashof’s rule states that for a planar crank-rocker four bar mechanism, the

sum of the shortest and longest link lengths cannot be less than the sum of

the remaining two link lengths.

(B) Inversions of a mechanism are created by fixing different links one at a time.

(C) Geneva mechanism is an intermittent motion device

(D) Gruebler’s criterion assumes mobility of a planar mechanism to be one.



46. The natural frequency of a spring-mass system on earth is ?n. The natural frequency of this system on the moon (gmoon = gearth / 6) is

(A) ?n

(B)0.408?n

(C) 0.204?n

(D) 0.167?n



47. Tooth interference in an external involute spur gear pair can be reduced by

(A) decreasing center distance between gear pair

(B) decreasing module

(C) decreasing pressure angle

(D) increasing number of gear teeth



48. For the stability of a floating body, under the influence of gravity alone, which of

the following is TRUE?

(A) Metacentre should be below centre of gravity

(B) Metacentre should be above centre of gravity

(C) Metacentre and centre of gravity must lie on the same horizontal line

(D) Metacentre and centre of gravity must lie on the same vertical line



49. The maximum velocity of a one-dimensional incompressible fully developed viscous flow, between two fixed parallel plates, is 6ms-1. The mean velocity (in ms-1) of the flow is

(A) 2

(B) 3

(C) 4

(D) 5



50. A phenomenon is modeled using n dimensional variables with k primary dimensions. The number of non-dimensional variables is

(A) k

(B) n

(C) n-k

(D) n+k



51. A turbo-charged four-stroke direct injection diesel engine has a displacement volume of 0.0259m3 (25.9litres) . The engine has an output of 950kW at 2200rpm. The mean effective pressure in MPa is closest to

(A) 2

(B) 1

(C) 0.2

(D) 0.1



52. One kilogram of water at room temperature is brought into contact with a high temperature thermal reservoir. The entropy change of the universe is

(A) equal to entropy change of the reservoir

(B) equal to entropy change of water

(C) equal to zero

(D) always positive



53. A hydraulic turbine develops 1000kW power for a head of 40m. If the head is reduced to 20m, the power developed (in kW) is

(A) 77

(B) 354

(C) 500

(D) 707



54. The material property which depends only on the basic crystal structure is

(A) fatigue strength

(B) work hardening

(C) fracture strength

(D) elastic constant





55. In a gating system, the ratio 1:2:4 represents

(A) sprue base area: runner area: ingate area

(B) pouring basin area: ingate area: runner area

(C) sprue base area: ingate area: casting area

(D) runner area: ingate area: casting area



56. A shaft has a dimension, 0.009 35 0.025 ?? ? . The respective values of fundamental deviation

and tolerance are

(A) ?0.025, ± 0.008

(B) ?0.025,0.016

(C) ?0.009, ±0.008

(D) ?0.009,0.016



57. In a CNC program block, N002 G02 G91 X40 Z40…, G02 AND G91 refer to

(A) circular interpolation in counterclockwise direction and incremental dimension

(B) circular interpolation in counterclockwise direction and absolute dimension

(C) circular interpolation in clockwise direction and incremental dimension

(D) circular interpolation in clockwise direction and absolute dimension



58. The demand and forecast for February are 12000 and 10275, respectively. Using

single exponential smoothening method (smoothening coefficient = 0.25),

forecast for the month of March is

(A) 431

(B) 9587

(C) 10706

(D) 11000



59. Little’s law is relationship between

(A) stock level and lead time in an inventory system

(B) waiting time and length of the queue in a queuing system

(C) number of machines and job due dates in a scheduling problem

(D) uncertainty in the activity time and project completion time



60. Vehicle manufacturing assembly line is an example of

(A) product layout

(B) process layout

(C) manual layout

(D) fixed layout



61. Simplex method of solving linear programming problem uses

(A) all the points in the feasible region

(B) only the corner points of the feasible region


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