DRD Entry Test Store Assistant A previous year question papers?

From where I can get the previous year question papers of the DRD Entry Test Store Assistant A will you please provide me that??????

[Kiran Chandar]

As you want to get the previous year question papers of the DRDO Entry Test Store Assistant A so, here I am providing you the same.

Here is an attachment for the previous year question papers of the DRDO Entry Test Store Assistant A and some of the questions are given below.

1. The thermal conductivity k of a liquid metal is predicted via the empirical equation k = Aexp(B/T), where k is in Js-1m-1K-1 and T is absolute temperature in K. A and B are constants. The units of A and B are, respectively,
(A) Js-1m-1K-1 and K-1 (B) Js-1m-1K-1 and K
(C) J-1 smK and K-1 (D) J-1 smK and K
2. % Excess air for combustion process is defined as
(O2 entering the process-O2 required)
(A) % Excess air = ——————————————— x 100
O2 required
(O2 required – O2 entering the process)
(B) % Excess air = ————————————————� � x 100
O2 entering the process
O2 required
(C) % Excess air = ———————————————- x 100
(O2 entering the process – O2 required)
O2 entering the process
(D) % Excess air = ————————————————� �—– x 100
(O2 required – O2 entering the process)
3. To prepare a solution of 50% sulfuric acid, a dilute waste acid containing 27% sulfuric acid is fortified with a fresh acid containing 96% sulfuric acid. The amount of fresh acid required for each 100 kg of dilute waste acid is
(A) 13.5 kg (B) 25 kg (C) 50 kg (D) 100 kg
4. A flue gas analysis gave 10% O2, 25% CO2 and 65% N2 at 160 °C and 760 mm Hg. The ratio of partial pressures of CO2 to O2 is equal to
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 2.5 (D) 4
5. In the extraction of nicotine from a nicotine-water solution by kerosene, the pressure and temperature are kept constant. The available degree(s) of freedom is/are
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
6. The hydrostatic equation of pressure P with height h of an incompressible fluid of density ρ and specific weight γ is
(A) P = ρ/h (B) P = γ / h
(C) P = ρ h (D) P = γ h
7. A gas is being compressed from an enthalpy of 489 kJ/kg to 509 kJ/kg in a steady state open process. The entry and exit velocities of the gas are zero and 60 m/s, respectively. Assume that there is no heat loss or gain, no reaction, and potential energy change is negligible. If the load is 100 kg/h of gas, the work done on the gas is equal to
(A) 2000 kJ (B) 2180 kJ (C) 2500 kJ (D) 3000 kJ
8. The corresponding Maxwell relation for the Gibbsian equation dG = -SdT +VdP is
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Statement for Linked Answer – Questions 9 and 10:
A system is taken from state A to state B along path ACB where 100 J of heat flows into the system and the system does 40 J of work.
9. How much heat flows into the system along path AEB if the work done by the system is 20 J?
(A) 20 J (B) 40 J (C) 60 J (D) 80 J
10. The system returns from B to A along path BDA. If the work done on the system is 30 J, what will be the amount of heat liberated/generated?
(A) -90 J (B) 90 J (C) 30 J (D) -30 J
11. Acentric factor for Argon is
(A) >1 (B) 1 (C) 0 (D)
12. Wet steam at 270 °C enters a throttling calorimeter with enthalpies of 1200 kJ/kg and 2800 kJ/kg in liquid and gas phase, respectively. It leaves as supersaturated steam at 0.1 MPa and 120 °C with an enthalpy of 2700 kJ/kg. The quality of steam is
(A) 14/16 (B) 13/16 (C) 15/16 (D) 27/40
13. Superheated steam at 3 MPa and 300°C having enthalpy of 3000 kJ/kg enters a turbine at the rate of 1 kg/sec and leaves as dry saturated steam at 60 °C with an enthalpy of 2600 kJ/kg. If kinetic and potential energy changes are ignored, the power output of the turbine is
(A) 400 kW (B) 5600 kW (C) 3000 kW (D) 2600 kW
Statement for Linked Answer – Questions 14 and 15:
A reversible heat engine absorbs 800 kJ as heat from a reservoir at 600 K and rejects 100 kJ energy as heat to a reservoir at 300 K, as shown in the following figure.
Q14. The heat interaction (Q) with reservoir at 400 K is
(A) – 600 kJ (B) 400 kJ (C) – 400 kJ (D) 600 kJ
15. The work done (W) by the engine is
(A) 500 kJ (B) 400 kJ (C) 350 kJ (D) 300 kJ
16. The partial volume of component A in a binary mixture (A – B) is 60 x 10-6 m3/mol. The mole% of A in the mixture is 60%. The density of the mixture is 760 kg/m3. What will be the partial volume (m3/mol) of B in the mixture?
(Given: Molar mass of A is 50 x 10-3 kg/mol; molar mass of B is 20 x 10-3 kg/mol)
(A) 30 x 10-6 (B) 35 x 10-6 (C) 40 x 10-6 (D) 60 x 10-6
17. The enthalpy of vaporization of water at 100 °C is 2300 kJ/kg. The isobaric heat capacities of liquid and vapor are, respectively, 4.0 kJ/kg-K and 2 kJ/kg-K. The enthalpy of vaporization at 150 °C will be
(A) 2400 kJ/kg (B) 2100 kJ/kg (C) 2500 kJ/kg (D) 2200 kJ/kg
18. The following equations have been proposed for an isothermal binary solution where the standard states are the pure components at the solution temperature and pressure:
γ1 = Ax1; γ2 = Bx2
What can be said about the above relation?
(A) It satisfies Gibbs-Duhem equation
(B) It does not satisfy Gibbs-Duhem equation
(C) It is thermodynamically consistent
(D) It satisfies both (A) and (C)
19. The enthalpy change of some reactions are given below:
CO (g) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g) ΔH = -300 kJ
H2 (g) + O2 (g) → H2O (1) ΔH = -320 kJ
H2O(1) H2O(g) ΔH = 50 kJ
What will be the enthalpy change for the following reaction:
CO(g) + H2O(g) à CO2 (g) + H2 (g)
(A) -70 kJ (B) 30 kJ (C) -30 kJ (D) 70 kJ
20. The decrease in the Helmholtz Free Energy for system in a given process for which initial and final temperatures are equal to the surrounding temperature indicates.
(A) Maximum work obtained from the system
(B) Minimum work obtained from the system
(C) Minimum work which can be done on the system
(D) Both (A) and (C)

21. The vapor pressures of benzene and toluene at 70 °C are 4 and 6 atm, respectively. A liquid feed of 0.6 moles of toluene at the same temperature is vaporized. Assuming Raoult’s law, the vapor phase mole fraction of benzene at equilibrium is approximately.

(A) 0.30 (B) 0.40 (C) 0.50 (D) 0.60

22. An oil film of viscosity u and thickness h is sheared between a solid stationary wall and a circular disc of radius R, where h < The circular disc is rotating with angular speed w. For the same thickness of the film, if the radius of the disc is doubled, the angular speed remaining the same, by what factor the torque on the disc increases?

(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 16

23. A circular fire hose of inner cross-sectional area 100 cm2 is connected to a nozzle whose exit cross-sectional area is 4 cm2. The horizontal nozzle is discharging water at 0.6 m3/minute to the atmosphere. If a pressure gauge is connected to the hose side just before the nozzle, what would be the reading of the pressure gauge?(Density of water = 1000 kg/m3 )

(A) 312 kPa (B) 624 kPa (C) 89 kPa (D) 178 kPa

24. A reciprocating pump has a piston of cross-sectional area A and is connected to a crank of radius r which is rotating with angular velocity ω. The pump is connected to the suction and the delivery pipes whose internal cross-sectional area is A1. The maximum velocity of the fluid element in the suction or delivery pipe is

(A) (B) (C) ωr (D)

25. Assuming that the thrust T of a propeller depends upon the diameter D, speed of advance V, angular velocity ω, dynamic viscosity μ, and density ρ, which of the following dimensionless parameters can be derived by dimensionless analysis?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 3 and 4 (C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 4

26. The velocity profile u in the boundary layer over a flat plate is given by . where U is the free stream velocity, y is the vertical distance of the velocity point from the flat plate and δ is the boundary layer thickness. The displacement thickness of the boundary layer is

(A) (B) (C) (D)

27. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about thixotropic fluids?

(A) Apparent viscosity depends on the time of shearing

(B) Thixotropy is an irreversible process

(C) Thixotropic fluid shows shear thinning behavior

(D) Thixotropic fluids are in general non-Newtonian fluids.

28. A small liquid droplet of radius 1 mm and density 900 kg/m3 is rising up in a column of water. What is the terminal rise velocity of the drop if creeping flow conditions are assumed?(Given: viscosity of water = 1 cp, Gravitational constant g = 10 m/s2 )

(A) m/s (B) m/s (C) m/s (D) m/s

29. Which of the following is NOT RECOMMENDED to increase the collection efficiency of a cyclone separator?

(A) Increase in particle density

(B) Decrease in gas temperature

(C) Increase in particle diameter

(D) Increase in gas flow rate

Statement for Linked Answer – Questions 30 and 31:

In a fluidized bed operation, spherical particles of 1 mm diameter are packed to a height of 1.0 meter. The porosity of this bed is measured to be 0.4. At the minimum fluidization with air the bed height expands to 1.2 meter.

(Given: Particle density = 1200 kg/m3, Gravitational constant g = 10 m/s2 ).

30. The porosity of the bed at minimum fluidization is

(A) 0.4 (B) 0.3 (C) 0.5 (D) 0.6

31. The approximate value of pressure drop in the bed at minimum fluidization will be

(A) 3600 N/m2 (B) 7200 N/m2 (C) 6000 N/m2 (D) 3000 N/m2

32. In a centrifugal filter the inside radius of the filter basket is R2 and radius of the inner surface of liquid is R1. The centrifuge is rotating with an angular speed ω. Which of the following is true about the pressure drop ΔP from the centrifugal action?

(A) ΔP µ ω1/2 (B) ΔP µ (R22 + R12)

(C) ΔP µ (R22 – R12) (D) ΔP µ ω

33. In a dry crushing operation the mean diameter of the feed and product particles are 100 mm and 1 mm, respectively. The sphericity of the feed and product particles are 0.5 and 1.0, respectively. If the feed particles of 200 mm diameter with the same sphericity are handled at the same feed rate, what will be the percentage increase in power requirement assuming that the product remains the same?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

34. Which of the following is INCORRECT about the boundary layer development over flat infinite plate?

(A) The fluid velocity at solid-liquid interface is zero

(B) The shear rate inside the boundary layer is not zero

(C) The boundary layer thickness increases with distance from the leading edge

(D) The flow in the boundary layer close to the leading edge is turbulent

35. Which of the following velocity field represents an irrotational flow for x, y > 0, x ≠ y?

(A) V = 2 yi – 2x .j

(B) V = 2 xi – 3y,j

(C) V = xy i – xy j

(D) V = xy i + xy j

36. In a laminar flow between two parallel plates separated by a distance H, the head loss varies

(A) directly as H (B) inversely as H2

(C) directly as H2 (D) inversely as H3

37. Two viscous liquids are to be blended by passing through a pipe. Which of the following would be the most suitable condition for axial mixing?

(A) Creeping flow (B) Low Reynolds number flow

(C) High Reynolds number flow (D) Plug flow

38. A U-tube manometer measures

(A) absolute pressure at a point

(B) local atmospheric pressure at a point

(C) difference in total energy between two points

(D) difference in pressure between two points

39. What will happen to the heat loss if foam insulation, with thermal conductivity 0.09 W/m-K is added to a 5 cm outer diameter pipe carrying hot water? (Heat transfer coefficient on the outer surface = 10 W/m2-K)

(A) Increases (B) Decreases

(C) First increases then decreases (D) Remains constant

40. Biot number (hL/k) is important for which mode of heat transfer?

(A) Natural convection (B) Forced convection

(C) Transient heat conduction (D) Radiation

41. The temperature distribution in a 0.25 m thick wall is given as T (°C) = 250 + bx – cx2,

where x (in meter) is the position of a point with respect to the surface of the wall which is at higher temperature. The thermal conductivity of the wall is 5.95 W/m-°C. What will be the value of b if the surface at x = 0 is insulated?

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) – 1 (D) 0.5

42. When momentum diffusivity is greater than the thermal diffusivity, the velocity boundary layer

(A) develops faster than the thermal boundary layer

(B) develops slower than the thermal boundary layer

(C) grows together

(D) disappears

43. An aluminium ball of area 0.5 m2 and mass 10 kg is cooled in ambient at 25 °C. When the temperature of the ball is 125 °C, it is found to cool at the rate of 6 °C/min. What will be the surface heat transfer coefficient?

(Given, Cp = 0.5 kJ/kg-°C)

(A) 0.5 W/m2-°C (B) 0.01 W/m2-°C

(C) 0.05 W/m2-°C (D) 0.l W/m2-°C

44. Water at 25 °C enters a pipe with internal diameter 2 cm having a constant wall heat flux of 1 KW/m2. The flow is hydro dynamically and thermally fully developed. What will be the difference between the local wall temperature and the local mean (bulk) temperature? (Thermal conductivity of pipe = 0.4 W/m-°C; Nusselt Number = 5.0)

(A) 5 °C (B) 15 °C (C) 10 °C (D) 50 °C

45. When some liquid nitrogen spills on the floor of a laboratory, the droplets move so briskly that they appear to be dancing before they disappear. This phenomenon

(A) is related to pool boiling (B) is related to film boiling

(C) is related to nucleate boiling (D) has nothing to do with boiling

46. Consider sphere 1 enclosed by sphere 2 as shown in the following figure. The area of sphere 2 is double the area of sphere 1. What are the various view factors (F1I, F12, F21, F22)?

(A) 0, 0.5, 0.5, 1 (B) 0.5, 1, 1, 0.5

(C) 0.5, 0.5, 0, 1 (D) 0, 1, 0.5, 0.5

47. A triple-effect evaporator is concentrating a liquid that has no appreciable elevation in boiling point. The temperature of the steam to the first effect is 110 °C and the boiling point of the solution in the last effect is 50 °C. The ratio of the heat transfer resistance of the first effect to that of the overall heat transfer resistance is 0.2. At what temperature will the liquid boil in the first effect?

(A) 95 °C (B) 98 °C (C) 90 °C (D) 92 °C

48. Gas A is being cracked on a catalyst as per the reaction, A→2B+C in such a way that A diffuses to the cracking surface and B diffuses back, while C is not diffusing. At steady state what will be the ratio of molar flux of A to the total molar flux?

(A) 1/3 (B) –1 (C) 2 (D) 2/3

49. The eddy momentum diffusivity, the thermal diffusivity and the mass diffusivity will be same for most of the gases when

(A) both Prandtl and Schmidt numbers are equal to 1.2

(B) both Prandtl and Schmidt numbers are equal to 10.0

(C) both Prandtl and Schmidt numbers are equal to 0.1

(D) both Prandtl and Schmidt numbers are equal to 1.0

50. According to surface renewal theory, the average mass transfer coefficient is directly proportional to

(A) DAB (B) (C) (D)

51. For the flow of a fluid at right angles to a circular cylinder, the average heat transfer coefficient around the periphery is given by Nu = a + b Re”‘ Pr”, where, Nu is Nusselt Number, Sh is Sherwood Number, Pr is Prandtl Number, Sc is Schmidt Number and a, b, m, n are constants. The analogous expression for the mass transfer can be expressed as

(A) Sh = a + b Re”‘ Sc” (B) Sh = b + a Re”‘ Sc”

(C) Nu = m + n Re” Scb (D) Nu = n + m Re” Scv

Statement for Linked Answer – Questions 52 and 53:

A horizontal spray chamber with recirculated water is used for adiabatic humidification and cooling of air. Air with humidity of 0.01 kg water per kg of dry air is entering the unit with a flow rate of 2 kg/m2-s. The humidity of exit stream is 0.02 kg water per kg of dry air. The active part of the chamber is 1.0 m long. The humidity at the saturated condition is 0.03 kg water per kg of dry air.

52. The volumetric gas phase mass transfer coefficient in kg/m3-s in the operation is equal to

(A) ln 2 (B) ln 3 (C) ln 4 (D) ln 5

53. If a duplicate spray chamber operating in the same manner were to be added in series with the existing chamber, the expected humidity of the outlet air in kg water per kg of dry air is equal to

(A) 0.03 (B) 0.02 (C) 0.025 (D) 0.05

54. A saturated liquid mixture with 50% (mole basis) of more volatile component is to be separated in a continuous distillation column. The mole% of more volatile component in the distillate is 90. The constant relative volatility of more volatile component is 1.5. Assuming McCabe-Thiele method, the minimum reflux ratio for this operation is

(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 2.5 (D) 1

55. In a perfectly mixed flow model, the ratio of the Murphree plate efficiency to the point efficiency is equal to

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 1

Statement for Linked Answer – Questions 56 and 57:

A waste stream of organic vapor in a gas from a process was adsorbed by solid particles in packed bed of length 20 cm. The breakpoint concentration is set at C/C0 = 0.10 and the breakpoint time is 4 hours.

56. What will be the time equivalent to the unusable capacity of the bed up to the breakpoint time?

(A) 3 hours (B) 1.5 hours (C) 4 hours (D) 3.6 hours

57. The stoichiometric capacity of the bed is 7.2 hours. What will be the length of unused bed for this operation?

(A) 7.2 cm (B) 20 cm (C) 10 cm (D) 4 cm

58. In liquid-liquid extraction, the solvent B is used to separate solute C from a given solution of A and C. If A and B are completely insoluble in one another, the selectivity of B will be

(A) ∞ (B) 0 (C)

59. A batch of wet solid is to be dried from 80% to 50% moisture (wet basis). The drying surface is 1 m2/10 kg of dried solid. The drying takes place within the constant rate period. The constant flux of drying is 0.3 x 10-3 kg/m2-s. The drying time is

(A) 102 s (B) 103 s (C) 104 s (D) 105 s

60. A gas with a flow rate of 25 mol/m2.s is scrubbed by a pure liquid to remove a component in a counter-current packed bed column. The specific interfacial area of the packing material is 1 m-1. The individual gas-film mass transfer coefficient is 25 mol/m2.s. If the overall mass transfer resistance is 50% of the individual gas-film mass transfer resistance, the overall height of gas phase transfer unit (HTU)og is

(A) 0.5 m (B) 1.0 m (C) 2.0 m (D) 2.5 m

61. If L is the liquid flow rate. G is the gas flow rate and m is the slope of the equilibrium line, the absorption factor is

(A) mL / G (B) G / mL (C) L / mG (D) LG / m

62. A vessel dispersion number of zero indicates

(A) plug flow behavior (B) mixed flow behavior

(C) batch reactor behavior (D) both (B) and (C)

63. For the E curve shown below, the shaded region represents

E

tj

Time (t)

(A) fraction of inlet stream older than time t1

(B) fraction of exit stream younger than time tl

(C) fraction of exit stream older than time t1

(D) fraction of inlet stream younger than time t1

64. A first order reaction takes place in a single cylindrical pore having strong diffusion resistance. For a particle size (R), the rate of the reaction varies

(A) directly with R

(B) directly with √R

(C) inversely with *√R

(D) inversely with R

65. The response curve for a step input signal from a reactor is called C curve. The variance of C curve in a `tank in series model’ comprising of `n’ tanks is

(A) n (B) 1/n (C) n0.5 (D) n2

66. Calculate the weight of the catalyst required for the 75% conversion of sample A (CAO = 8 mol/m3) in a mixed flow reactor at a flow rate of 1000 mole/min.

(The weight time of the operation is 4.15 kg s/m3)

(A) 500 kg (B) 519 kg (C) 525 kg (D) 600 kg

67. In an endothermic reaction, for an increase in temperature, the equilibrium conversion

(A) rises (B) falls

(C) remains constant (D) first increases then decreases

Statement for Linked Answer – Questions 68 and 69:

Aqueous phase decomposition of A is investigated in two mixed flow reactors in series. The second reactor is having twice the volume of the first reactor. At steady state with a feed of 1 mole/litre and mean residence time of 96 seconds in first reactor, the concentration of A in the first reactor is 0.5 mol/litre and in the second 0.25 mol/litre.

68. The order of the reaction is

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) 3

69. The rate constant (lit/mol-min) is

(A) 1.5 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 1.25

70. For a zero order reaction in a varying volume batch reactor, the correct equation is

71. The following figure shows the temperature dependency on the reaction rate for two sets of reactions I and II. Choose the INCORRECT statement.

(A) Reaction I is temperature sensitive

(B) Reactions I and II represent high and low activation energies respectively

(C) Reactions I and II represent low and high activation energies respectively

(D) Reaction II is temperature insensitive

72. For a particular reaction where order of the reaction is less than one, the CORRECT sequence of reactors for efficient use is

(A) Small MFR, Large MFR, PFR (B) Large MFR, Small MFR, PFR

(C) PFR, Large MFR. Small MFR (D) PFR, Small MFR, Large MFR

73. The half-life period of the reaction A → products is independent of the initial concentration of the reactant A if the order of the reaction is

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 1/2

Statement for Linked Answer – Questions 74 and 75:

Chemical A reacts to form R (k1 = 8 hr-1) and chemical R reacts to form S (k2 = 3 hr-1). In addition R slowly decomposes to form T (k3 = 1 hr-1). A solution containing 1 mol/litre of A is introduced into a batch reactor.

74. What is the maximum concentration of R (mol/lit)?

(A) 0.5 (B) 0.25 (C) 0.75 (D) 1.0

75. How long will it take (in hours) for R to reach its maximum concentration?

(A) ln 2 (B) ln 2 (C) ln 2 (D) 2 1n 2

76. Ordinary mercury-in-glass thermometer (without any covering or air gap) is an

example of

(A) zero-order system (B) first-order system

(C) second-order system (D) third-order system

77. The symbol of the type __________ denotes

(A) Pneumatic line (B) Fluid pressure line

(C) Electrical line (D) Software link

78. The Laplace transform of sin (kt) is

(A) k /(s2 + k2) (B) s /(s2 + k2)

(C) k /(s2 – k2) (D) s /(s2 – k2)

79. A control system is unstable if the open loop frequency response exhibits an amplitude ratio exceeding unity at the cross-over frequency. This is

(A) Bode stability criteria (B) Routh stability criteria

(C) Nyquist criteria (D) Root-locus criteria

80. What will be the maximum value of K(such that a closed loop system having the following characteristic equation is stable ?

s3 + 6s2 + 11s + 6 (1+KC) = 0

(A) KC C C < (D) KC 1 (C) 1 (D) 0

84. Solenoid valve works like

(A) Proportional controller (B) PD controller

(C) PID controller (D) On-off controller

85. The final product from a chemical plant is composed of two materials A and B with some of each being required. The total cost per unit of the finished product is

CT = Rupees/unit.

If the amount of A is fixed, the amount of B required for minimum total cost of product is

(A) (B) (C) A/36 (D) 720A

86. Which of the following is NOT a function of baffle in the shell-and-tube heat exchanger?

(A) Direct the flow across the tube bundle

(B} Support the tube from sagging

(C) Arrest the vibration of the tubes

(D) Decrease the turbulence of the fluid

87. Match the following:

(1) Microfiltration (P) Solution/diffusion

(2) Reverse Osmosis (Q) Size exclusion

(3) Distillation (R) Vapor/liquid equilibria

(4) Stripping (S) Absorption

(A) 1-P, 2-Q, 3-R. 4-S (B) 1-Q, 2-P, 3-R, 4-S

(C) 1-S, 2-R, 3-P, 4-Q (D) 1-R, 2-Q, 3-S, 4-P

88. What is the cross-flow area in the case of a shell-and-tube heat exchanger where inside diameter of the shell is 5 m, baffle spacing 0.5 m, clearance between the tubes 5 cm, outside diameter of the tube 10 cm and pitch of the tube 2 cm?

(A) 12.5 m2 (B) 6.25 m2 (C) 22.5 m2 (D) 10 m2

89. A chemical company has purchased leaf pressure filters with 100 ft2 for purifying an inorganic liquid stream at the cost of Rs. 15000. In a similar application the company will need 900 ft2 leaf pressure filter. The size exponent of this type of filter is 0.5. The purchased price of the 900 ft2 filter will be

(A) Rs.135000 (B) Rs. 67500 (C) Rs. 45000 (D) Rs. 90000

90. Which of the following results in book values greater than those obtained with the straight line method?

(A) Declining balance method (B) Sum-of-the years digit method

(C) Multiple straight line method (D) Sinking fund method

91. The Darcy’s law is used to calculate

(A) heat transfer coefficient

(B) friction factor in pipe flow

(C) permeability of porous medium

(D) vapor pressure in azeotropic mixtures

92. `Total capital investment’ for a chemical process plant comprises of the fixed capital investment and the

(A) working capital (B) indirect production costs

(C) direct production costs (D) overhead costs

93. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT for the manufacture of sulfuric acid by contact process?

(A) Yield is higher than the chamber process

(B) Catalyst used is vanadium pentoxide on a porous carrier

(C) Final scrubbing is done using concentrated sulfuric acid only

(D) Optimization of space velocity in catalyst chamber is a major engineering problem.

94. Match the following:

(1) Paper (P) Zeigler

(2) Soda ash (Q) Sachsse

(3) Polyethylene (R) Kraft

(4) Acetylene (S) Solvay

(A) 1-P, 2-R, 3-Q, 4-S (B) 1-P, 2-Q, 3-R, 4-S

(C) 1-S, 2-R, 3-Q, 4-P (D) 1-R, 2-S, 3-P, 4-Q

95. Match the following:

(1) Maleic anhydride (P) Ag0

(2) DDT (Q) NH3

(3) Ethylene oxide (R) V205

(4) Soda ash (S) Oleum

(A) 1-R, 2-S, 3-P, 4-Q (B) 1-S, 2-R, 3-Q, 4-P

(C) 1-R, 2-S, 3-Q, 4-P (D) 1-P, 2-Q, 3-R, 4-S

96. Match the following:

(1) Parathion (P) Lead oxide

(2) Margarine (Q) Pesticide

(3) Litharge (R) Enzyme

(4) Lipase (S) Fat

(A) 1-S, 2-P, 3-Q, 4-R (B) 1-S, 2-R, 3-Q, 4-P

(C) 1-Q, 2-S, 3-P, 4-R (D) 1-R, 2-S, 3-P, 4-Q

97. Cetane number of diesel is the measure of its

(A) smoke point (B) ignition delay

(C) viscosity (D) oxidation stability

98. Choose the CORRECT statement from the following:

(A) Aromatics have lowest octane number

(B) Paraffins are the hardest to crack

(C) Dearomatisation of kerosene increases its smoke point

(D) Aniline point is a property of LPG

99. Choose the INCORRECT statement from the following:

(A) SBR compared to natural rubber has poor tensile strength

(B) Silicone is an inorganic polymer

(C) Nylon-6 is a polyamide

(D) Neoprene is an elastomer

100. Match the following:

(1) Permanent hardness of water (P) Steam distillation

(2) Alkyl group of detergent (Q)Cation/anion exchanger

(3) Rancidity of oil (R) Hydrogenation

(4) Essential oil (S) Hydrophobic

(A) 1-Q, 2-S, 3-R, 4-P (B) 1-Q, 2-R, 3-S, 4-P

(C) 1-R, 2-P, 3-Q, 4-S (D) 1-S, 2-P, 3-R, 4-Q

I am looking to appear in Examination for the post of Store Assistant at DRDO. So I want to download question papers of Store Assistant Exam. So can some one provide me question papers of Store Assistant Exam of DRDO?

[Kiran Chandar]

As you are looking to download question papers of Store Assistant Exam conducted by DRDO, so here I am providing question paper of of Store Assistant Exam of DRDO:

DRDO Store Assistant Exam English Question Paper
Directions—(Q. 1–10) Read the following passage carefully and answer the
questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold
to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Once upon a time, there was a royal elephant which used to reside in the
premises of the king’s palace. The elephant was very dear to the king, so
he was well-fed and well-treated. There was also a Dog who lived near the
Elephant’s shed. He was very weak and skinny. He was always fascinated by
the smell of rich sweet rice being fed to the royal elephant.
One day, the Dog could no longer resist the aroma of the rice and somehow
managed to sneak into the Elephant’s shed. He ate the grains of sweet
rice that fell from the Elephant’s mouth. He liked the rice so much, that
he started going there daily to eat the rice. For days, the huge Elephant
didn’t notice the small dog as he was busy enjoying the delicious food.
Gradually, the Dog grew bigger and stronger eating such rich food.
Finally, the Elephant noticed him and allowed him access to the food.
The Elephant enjoyed the company of the Dog and started sharing his food
with him. They also started spending time with each other and soon became
good friends. They ate together, slept together and played together.
While playing, the Elephant would hold the Dog in his trunk and swing him
back and forth. Soon neither of them was happy without the other. They
became great friends and didn’t want to be separated from each other.
Then one day, a man saw the Dog and asked the Elephant-keeper, “I want to
buy this Dog. What price do you want for it ?” The Elephant-keeper didn’t
own the Dog but sold it and extracted a sum of money from this deal. The
man took the Dog to his home village, which was quite far away. The
King’s Elephant became very sad after this incident. He missed his friend
a lot and started neglecting everything. He didn’t want to do anything
without his dear friend, so he stopped eating, drinking and even bathing.
Finally, the Elephant-keeper reported this to the King; however he didn’t
mention anything about the Dog. The King had a wise minister, who was
known for his keen understanding of animals. The King ordered the
minister, “Go to the Elephant shed and find out the reason for the
Elephant's condition”. The intelligent minister went to the Elephant shed
and found the Elephant very sad. He examined the Elephant and asked the
Elephant-keeper. “There is nothing wrong with this Elephant’s body, then
why does he look so sad ? I think this Elephant is grief stricken,
possibly due to the loss of a dear friend. Do you know if this Elephant
shared a close friendship with anyone ?”
The Elephant-keeper said, “There was a Dog who used to eat, sleep and
play with the Elephant. He was taken by a stranger three days ago”. The
minister went back to the King and said, “Your majesty, in my opinion,
the royal Elephant is not sick, but he is lonesome without his dear
friend, the Dog”. The King said, “You’re right, friendship is one of the
most wonderful things of life. Do you know where that Dog is ?’

The Minister replied, “Elephantkeeper has informed me that a stranger
took him away and he doesn’t know his whereabouts”. The King asked, “How
can we bring back my Elephant’s friend and make him happy again ?” The
Minister suggested, “Your Majesty, make a declaration, that whoever has
the dog that used to live at the royal Elephant’s shed will be
penalized”. The King did the same and the man who had taken the dog,
instantly turned him loose when he heard the proclamation.
As soon as he was freed, the Dog ran back as fast as he could to the
Elephant’s shed. The Elephant was so delighted to see the Dog that he
picked his friend up with his trunk and swung him back and forth. The Dog
wagged his tail, while the Elephant’s eyes sparkled with happiness. The
King was content to see the Elephant happy once again and rewarded the
minister for his wise judgement.
1. What was the Minister’s diagnosis of the Elephant’s condition ?
(A) The Elephant hated his keeper
(B) The Elephant was lonely
(C) The Elephant was starving
(D) The Elephant had hurt his leg and was in pain
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
2. What method did the Minister suggest to the King to get back the Dog ?
(A) To declare that whoever had that particular Dog would be punished
(B) To keep a bowl of rice for the Dog in the Elephant’s shed so that he
could be lured back to the palace
(C) To command the Elephant keeper to look for the Dog in the village
(D) To persuade the Elephant to call out to the Dog
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
3. Why had the Elephant become very sad ?
(A) He no longer got his daily bowl of rice
(B) He was unhappy with the King for having sold the Dog
(C) He missed his friend the Dog
(D) He was sold to an unknown man by his keeper
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
4. What did the Elephant-keeper do to the Dog ?
(A) He sold the Dog to an unknown man for a price
(B) He hit the Dog as the Dog was eating the Elephant’s food
(C) He killed the Dog
(D) He complained to the King about the Dog
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
5. Which of the following would be the most appropriate title for the
passage ?
(A) Friends and Enemies
(B) The Playful Dog
(C) The King and the Minister

(D) The Elephant-keeper
(E) The Bond of Friendship
Ans : (E)
6. Why was the Elephant taken care of ?
(A) He was a very special Elephant as he could talk to Dogs
(B) He was a very loyal Elephant
(C) He was the strongest Elephant in the Kingdom
(D) He was weak and the King had a lot of sympathy for him
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
7. Why did the Dog start going to the Elephant’s shed everyday ?
(A) He liked the Elephant a lot and wanted to become friends with him
(B) He was being fed by the King everyday
(C) He was fond of the Elephant’s shed
(D) He liked the taste of the rice being fed to the Elephant
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
8. What did the Dog do once he was set free ?
(A) He ate rice to his heart’s content
(B) He thanked the King for his kindness
(C) He ran away from the Kingdom to a place far away
(D) He ran back to his friend the Elephant
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
9. What of the following can definitely be said about the Elephantkeeper
?
(1) He was greedy
(2) He was insensitive
(3) He was brave
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 1 and 2
(D) Only 2 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (A)
10. Which of the following can definitely be said about the King ?
(1) He was compassionate.
(2) He was deceitful.
(3) He loved animals.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 1 and 3
(C) Only 1 and 2
(D) Only 2
(E) All the three 1, 2, and 3
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word/group of words which is most
similar in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in
the passage.

11. EXTRACTED
(A) pulled
(B) inserted
(C) wring
(D) dug out
(E) received
Ans : (E)
12. DECLARATION
(A) pact
(B) praise
(C) announcement
(D) writ
(E) resolve
Ans : (C)
13. KEEN
(A) shallow
(B) urgent
(C) concentrated
(D) deep
(E) eager
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 14–15) Choose the word/group of words which is most
opposite in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in
the passage.
14. RESIST
(A) give in
(B) please
(C) struggle
(D) try out
(E) defy
Ans : (A)
15. SEPARATED
(A) stuck
(B) united
(C) estranged
(D) bound
(E) joined
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 16–20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given
below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the
sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as
it is given and ‘No correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer.
16. Trisha could not solve the problem at all and was at her wit’s
ending.
(A) her wit’s end
(B) the wit ends

(C) her witty end
(D) the wit end
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)
17. It’s a small theatre and the seats are uncomfortable, but the saving
grace is that the air conditioning is good.
(A) grace to save
(B) gracing save
(C) saver grace
(D) save to grace
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)
18. Tarun had to prepare the document for his meeting urgently but he was
hardly pressed for time.(A) hard pressed for timely
(B) hard pressed for time
(C) hardly press to time
(D) hard pressing to timely
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)
19. Suraj lied from his teeth to get out of the tense situation with his
boss.
(A) lies for his teeth
(B) lie to his teeth
(C) lied through his teeth
(D) lied from his tooth
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)
20. Satish lay in bed wide awaken as he was worried about his exams
starting the next day.
(A) widen awakening
(B) widely awake
(C) wide and awake
(D) wide awake
(E) No correction required
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 21–25) In each question below, a sentence with four words
printed in bold type is given. These are numbered as (A), (B), (C) and
(D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt
or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which
is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is
your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and
also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e., ‘All
correct’ as your answer.
21. People went crazy (A) when the musician along with his friend, (B)
took to the staging (C) and belted out popular (D) tracks. All correct
(E)
Ans : (C)

22. For a growing number of coupals, (A) adoption is not a helpless
compulsion (B) but a deliberate, (C) vand often noble, (D) choice. All
correct (E)
Ans : (A)
23. On two consecutive (A) nights the two greatest icones (B) of showbusiness
were honoured with unprecedented (C) affection. (D) All correct
(E)
Ans : (B)
24. We are so busy looking at mediocrity (A) that when a truly
outstanding achievement (B) stares us in the face we resort (C) to the
same terms of praise. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (E)
25. The unlikely migration (A) was officially (B) explained as a move to
meet expanding (C) business oportunities. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 26–30) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2),
(3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful
paragraph, then answer the questions given below them.
(1) He immediately acknowledged Mohan’s good work and invited him to his
home for dinner.
(2) One day a wealthy merchant sent his son’s bicycle to the shop for
repair.
(3) The next day the merchant came to claim the bicycle and noticed that
it was shiny.
(4) After repairing the bicycle, Mohan cleaned it up and made it look
new.
(5) Once upon a time, there was a boy named Mohan who worked as an
apprentice in a bicycle shop.
(6) Other apprentices in the shop laughed at Mohan for doing unnecessary
work.
26. Which of the following should be the second sentence after
rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 6
Ans : (B)
27. Which of the following should be the third sentence after
rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (D)

28. Which of the following should be the first sentence after
rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (E)
29. Which of the following should be the last (sixth) sentence after
rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (A)
30. Which of the following should be the fourth sentence after
rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (E)
Directions—(Q. 31–40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any
grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in
one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there
is ‘No error’, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
31. In about five minutes, they would (A) / cover the distance from the
road to the point (B) / where the waves would v/ begin lick their feet.
(D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)
32. The devastating experiences (A) / of many wars taught some countries
(B) / the necessary of pursuing peace (C) / at the expense of nationalist
egos. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
33. The former superstar recently (A) / visit an orphanage (B) / fuelling
speculation that (C) / she is planning to adopt a child. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)
34. Accordance to a new study (A) / taking steps to remain healthy any
young (B) / may help delay (C) / the onset of Alzheimer’s disease. (D) No
error (E)
Ans : (A)
35. A day after he was diagnosed with (A) / swine flu, preventive
measures were put in place (B) / to ensure that others were not v/
affected by the dreaded virus. vNo error (E)

Ans : (A)
36. The administration has conclusive (A) / that it is retailers who are
(B) / responsible for upsetting (C) / the city’s household budget. (D) No
error (E)
Ans : (A)
37. The assurances, unfortunately, (A) / remained on paper, as (B) /
neither the Centre or the state initiated steps (C) / for the development
of the backward region. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
38. Sediment deposit along the coast (A) / may be the primary reason for
(B) / the change in conditions, (C) / but a lot more remains to be
understand. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)
39. A committee will be set-up (A) / to explore pros and cons by (B) / a
common fee structure, and will (C) / take a final decision on it within a
week. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)
40. The infection which causes (A) / gums to bleed and teeth to fall out
v/ results from the build-up of (C) / a particular bacteria that is
common to most mouths. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of
which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and
against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank
appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Once upon a time there was a prince who wanted to marry a princess; but
she would have to be a real princess. He …(41)… all over the world to
find one, but nowhere could he get what he wanted. One evening during a
terrible storm; there was thunder and lightning and the rain poured down
in torrents. Suddenly a knocking was …(42)… at the palace door and the
old king went to open it. It was a princess standing out there. But, good
gracious ! What a sight the rain and the wind had made her look. The
water ran down her hair and clothes; into the toes of her shoes and out
again at the heels. And yet she insisted that she was a real princess.
Well, we’ll soon …(43)… out, thought the old queen. But she said nothing,
went into the bedroom, took all the bedding off the bedstead and …(44)… a
pea on the bottom, then she took twenty mattresses and laid them on the
pea, and then twenty quilts on …(45)… of the mattresses. On this the
princess had to lie all night. In the …(46)… she was asked how she had
slept. “Oh, very badly !” said she. “I scarcely closed my eyes all night.
Heaven only knows what was in the bed, but I was lying on something hard,
as a …(47)… I am black and blue all over my body. It’s horrible !” Now
they knew that she was a real princess because she had …(48)… the pea
right through the twenty mattresses and the twenty quilts. Nobody but a
real princess could be as …(49)… as that. So, the prince took her for his
wife, for now he …(50)… that he had a real princess.

41. (A) called
(B) tour
(C) sent
(D) saw
(E) travelled
Ans : (E)
42. (A) made
(B) felt
(C) heard
(D) seen
(E) sounded
Ans : (C)
43. (A) assure
(B) find
(C) judge
(D) mark
(E) try
Ans : (B)
44. (A) drew
(B) flung
(C) placed
(D) cooked
(E) stitch
Ans : (B)
45. (A) top
(B) head
(C) bottom
(D) between
(E) middle
Ans : (A)
46. (A) morning
(B) dinner
(C) room
(D) fields
(E) dark
Ans : (A)
47. (A) vengeance
(B) price
(C) cause
(D) result
(E) time
Ans : (D)
48. (A) slept
(B) felt
(C) located
(D) carried
(E) found

Ans : (B)
49. (A) worried
(B) rough
(C) irritable
(D) sensitive
(E) pretty
Ans : (D)
50. (A) trust
(B) assured
(C) wanted
(D) think
(E) knew
Ans : (E)