#1
25th November 2014, 08:20 AM
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CS executive module I Exam Question Paper
Will you please provide the Question Paper of CS executive module I Exam?
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#2
25th November 2014, 09:29 AM
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Re: CS executive module I Exam Question Paper
Here is the list of few questions of CS executive module I Exam Question Paper 1. (a) "Writ of habeas corpus is a bulwark of personal liberty." Justify this statement in the light of the provisions stated in the Constitution of India. (8 marks) (b) "Right to fundamental freedoms is not absolute." Elaborate. (6 marks) (c) State the grounds under which an instrument can be cancelled under the Specific Relief Act, 1963. (6 marks) 2. (a) State the documents which are required to be compulsorily registered under the Registration Act, 1908. (6 marks) (b) What is meant by the doctrine of feeding the grant by estoppel ? (5 marks) (c) Specify the categories of information that have been exempted from disclosure under the Right to Information Act, 2005. (5 marks) 3. Distinguish between the following. Attempt any four : (i) 'Damnum sine injuria' and 'injuria sine damno'. (ii) 'Lease' and 'licence'. (iii) 'Pleader' and 'public prosecutor'. (iv) 'Decree' and 'order'. (v) 'False imprisonment' and 'malicious prosecution'. 4. Attempt any four of the following : (i) Explain the 'pith and substance' rule with the help of decided cases. (ii) Explain the Collector's power to stamp an instrument which is impounded. (iii) State in brief the powers of Information Commission under the Right to Information Act, 2005. (iv) "The law of limitation bars the remedy in a court of law only when the period of limitation has expired, but it does not extinguish the right that it cannot be enforced by judicial process." Elaborate. (v) List out various cyber offences under the Information Technology Act, 2000. (4 marks each) 5. (a) Re-write the following sentences after filling-in the blank spaces with appropriate word(s)/figure(s) : (i) Article 15(4) of the Constitution of India permits the State for making special provision for the advancement of (a) Socially and educationally backward classes of citizens; (b) Scheduled Castes; and (c) _________. (ii) Debentures are _________ and therefore not regarded as actionable claims. (iii) A document which is plainly intended to be operative immediately is _________. (iv) The registration of instrument of gift of immovable property is _________. (v) The verification of electronic record is done by the use of _________ of the subscriber. (vi) Only a police officer of the rank of _________ is competent to investigate an offence under the Information Technology Act, 2000. (vii) Where the _________ of the statute is clear, there is no need of presumption. (viii) No citizen of India shall accept any title from any _______ State. (b) Write the most appropriate answer from the given options in respect of the following : (i) Every breach of contract gives rise to a cause of action for which suit may be instituted at a place — (a) Where the contract was made (b) Where the breach has occurred (c) The place where money is payable (d) All of the above. (ii) Public authority as defined in the Right to Information Act, 2005 means any authority or body or institution of self government established or constituted — (a) By the Constitution of India (b) By any other law made by the Parliament (c) By any other law made by State legislature (d) All of the above. (iii) The purpose of interpretation clause is to — (a) Give dictionary meaning of the word (b) Give an overview of the statute (c) Give complete meaning of the statute (d) Avoid the need of frequent repetitions in describing the intending subject matter. (iv) Under the Right to Information Act, 2005, where life or liberty of a person is involved, the PIO must provide the information within — (a) 48 Hours (b) 30 Days (c) 24 Hours (d) One week. (v) Adhesive stamps can be cancelled by — (a) Concerned person by writing his name across the stamp (b) Putting his initials with the name of the firm with date of his signature (c) Any other effective manner (d) Any of the above. (vi) The definition of the 'State' as given under Article 12 of the Constitution of India includes — (a) The Central Government and Parliament of India (b) The government and legislature of each of the States (c) All local or other authorities within the territory of India or under the control of the Government of India (d) All of the above. (vii) Which of the following is not a characteristic of a digital signature — (a) Unique to the subscriber affixing it (b) Capable of identifying the subscriber (c) Capable of identifying the addressee (d) Created in a manner or using a means under the exclusive control of the subscriber. (viii) An 'anticipatory bail' is granted by — (a) Metropolitan Magistrate (b) The Supreme Court (c) The Court of Session (d) Any Judicial Magistrate of the First Class. 6. State, with reasons in brief, whether the following statements are true or false : (i) The Schedules form a part of the Statute and must be read together with it for all purposes of construction. (ii) A 'warrant case' means a case relating to an offence punishable with imprisonment upto two years. (iii) The doctrine of res judicata underlines the general principle that no one shall be vexed twice for the same cause. (iv) Courts can try all civil suits, unless barred. (v) An appeal can be made to the Registrar against the decision of a Sub-Registrar within a period of 60 days of making such order. (vi) The Public Information Officer has been empowered to reject a request for information where an infringement of a copyright subsisting in a person would be involved. (vii) A non-cognizable offence does not need special authority to arrest by a police officer. (viii) The Right to Information Act, 2005 is applicable to the whole of India with all its provisions. (2 marks each) 7. (a) Ramendra prefers an appeal for setting aside the arbitral award on the ground that he was not given a proper notice of arbitral proceedings and thereby not being able to present his case. He also furnishes sufficient proof and pleads before the Court that he received the arbitral award just 10 days back. Advise with reasons — (i) Whether Ramendra will succeed in his prayer; and (ii) Whether the law of limitation will not be a bar ? (b) On 30th November, 2008, Mohan took a loan of _20,000 from Sohan. He paid _5,000 to him on 31st August, 2011, towards part-payment. After that, Sohan did not receive any amount from Mohan. Subsequently, Sohan instituted a suit for recovery of the dues from Mohan after the expiry of 2 years from the date of last part-payment. Advise, whether (i) the suit is maintainable; and (ii) the part-payment is an acknowledgment of payment. (6 marks) (c) A Magistrate of the First Class passed a sentence of imprisonment for a term of three years with a fine of _6,000 and in lieu of non-payment thereof, an additional imprisonment for another one year. The aggrieved party, Anshul, wants to prefer an appeal against the order of the Magistrate. Will he succeed ? Advise with reasons. (5 marks) 8. (a) Arun representing that the tenants on his land were all at will, sells it to Barun, and conveys it to him by an instrument dated 1st January, 1977. Soon after that day, Arun fraudulently grants to Chandan, a lease of part of the land, and procures the lease dated 1st October, 1976 to be registered under the Registration Act, 1908. Explain whether Barun can obtain cancellation of the lease, and if so, on what terms. (5 marks) (b) A real estate company has its head office at Delhi and branch offices at Ahmedabad, Patna and Indore. A dispute cropped up between Sorabh and the company in respect of a transaction through Ahmedabad office. Sorabh files a suit in respect of this dispute against the company in a court at Patna. How will the court decide ? (6 marks) (c) Ramu is accused of a crime. He suddenly left his house after commission of the crime. He explained to the court that he had sudden and urgent business at the place to which he had gone. He also gave the details of his business there. Discuss, what facts are relevant and not relevant in this case. (5 marks) |
#3
9th March 2015, 03:27 PM
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Re: CS executive module I Exam Question Paper
"Right to fundamental freedoms is not absolute." Elaborate.
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#4
24th March 2015, 09:37 AM
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Re: CS executive module I Exam Question Paper
Will you provide me the sample paper of Company Secretary executive module I Exam as I am looking for the same ?
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#5
24th March 2015, 09:39 AM
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Re: CS executive module I Exam Question Paper
As you want I am here providing you sample paper of the Company Secretary executive module I Exam. Sample paper : CS executive module I Exam paper PART . A (Answer Question No.1 which is compulsory and any two of the rest from this part.) 1. (a) State, with reasons in brief, whether the following statements are true or false : (i) The existing equity shareholders are necessarily to accept the rights offer. (ii) Contingent liability in respect of a transaction between holding and wholly owned subsidiary companies will not appear in the footnote of the consolidated balance sheet. (iii) In case of inter-company unrealised profits included in unsold goods, minority shareholders are not affected in any way. (iv) In case of inadequacy of profits, dividend can be paid out of capital reserve. (v) Redemption of preference shares amounts to reduction in the capital of the company. (2 marks each) (b) Write the most appropriate answer from the given options in respect of the following : (i) Discount allowed on the re-issue of forfeited shares cannot exceed . (a) 10% of paid-up capital (b) 10% of the capital re-issued (c) The amount received on forfeited shares (d) Capital reserve account. (ii) Sections 349 and 350 of the Companies Act, 1956 contain the provisions relating to the manner of determination of net profit for the purpose of calculating the . (a) Disposal of net profit (b) Managerial remuneration (c) Fair value of assets (d) Fair value of shares. (iii) As per Accounting Standard.28, an impairment loss should be recognised whenever the recoverable amount of an asset is less than its . (a) Original cost (b) Opportunity cost (c) Carrying amount (d) None of the above. (iv) When a company issues debentures at par or at a discount which are redeemable at a premium, the premium payable on redemption of the debentures is to be treated as . (a) Revenue loss (b) Capital loss (c) Deferred revenue expenditure (d) None of the above. (v) Expenses incidental to the creation and floatation of a company are called . (a) Underwriting expenses (b) Preliminary expenses (c) Trade expenses (d) Establishment expenses. (1 mark each) (c) Re-write the following sentences after filling-in the blank spaces with appropriate word(s)/figure(s) : (i) Section 81 of the Companies Act, 1956, provides that where a public company proposes to increase its subscribed capital at any time after the expiry of ___________ year(s) of its formation or at any time after the expiry of ___________ year(s) from the first allotment of shares whichever is earlier, it should satisfy certain conditions. (ii) Preliminary expenses being of capital nature may be written-off against ___________. (iii) Goodwill is an intangible asset, but is not a ___________ asset. (iv) Accumulated losses of the subsidiary company upto the date of acquisition of shares by the holding company are called ___________ losses. (v) International Accounting Standards are issued by the ___________. (1 mark each) 2. (a) Calculate the value of one equity share from the following information : (i) 60,000 equity shares of `10 each, `7 paid-up. (ii) `2,00,000, 10% preference shares of `100 each, fully paid-up. (iii) Expected annual profits before tax `4,00,000. (iv) Tax rate 35%. (v) Transfer to general reserve 20% of profits every year. (vi) Normal rate of return 20%. (6 marks) (b) KBC Ltd. issued 50,000 equity shares. The whole of the issue was underwritten as follows : Underwriter . K : 40% Underwriter . B : 30% Underwriter . C : 30% Applications for 40,000 shares were received in all, out of which applications for 10,000 shares had the stamp of Underwriter . K; those for 5,000 shares that of Underwriter . B; and those for 10,000 shares for Underwriter . C. The remaining applications for 15,000 shares did not bear any stamp. Determine the liability of the underwriters. (5 marks) (c) Write a note on 'buy-back of shares'. (4 marks) 3. (a) The following are the balance sheets of H Ltd. and its subsidiary S Ltd. as on 31st March, 2012 : Equity and Liabilities H Ltd. S Ltd. (`) (`) Shareholders' funds : Share capital Shares of `100 each fully paid 5,00,000 2,00,000 Reserves and surplus : General reserve 1,00,000 . Profit and loss account 80,000 (.)1,00,000 Non-current liabilities : 6% Debentures . 1,00,000 Current liabilities : Trade payables 75,000 45,000 7,55,000 2,45,000 Assets Non-current assets : Fixed assets 3,50,000 1,50,000 Non-current investments : 6% Debentures in S Ltd. (acquired at cost) 60,000 . 1,500 Shares in S Ltd. at `80 each 1,20,000 . Current assets : Inventories 90,000 40,000 Trade receivables 60,000 30,000 Cash 75,000 25,000 7,55,000 2,45,000 H Ltd. acquired the shares on 1st August, 2011. The profit and loss account of S Ltd. showed a debit balance of `1,50,000 on 1st April, 2011. During June, 2011 goods of S Ltd. costing `6,000 were destroyed by fire against which insurer paid only `2,000. Trade payables of S Ltd. include `20,000 for goods supplied by H Ltd. on which H Ltd. made a profit of `2,000. Half of the goods were still in stock on 31st March, 2012. Prepare a consolidated balance sheet and show the complete working. (9 marks ) (b) Shreya Ltd. had an issue of 1,000, 12% redeemable preference shares of `100 each, repayable at a premium of 10%. These shares are to be redeemed now out of the accumulated reserves, which are more than the necessary sum required for redemption. Show the necessary entries in the books of the company, assuming that the premium on redemption of shares has to be written off against the company's securities premium reserve account. (6 marks) 4. (a) A limited company issued a prospectus inviting applications for 30,000 shares of `10 each at a premium of `2 per share. The amount was payable as follows : ` On application . 2 On allotment . 5 (including premium) On first call . 3 On second and final call . 2 Applications were received for 45,000 shares and allotment was made on pro-rata basis to the applicants of 36,000 shares. Money overpaid on applications was employed on account of sum due on allotment. Ramesh, to whom 600 shares were allotted, failed to pay the allotment money and on his subsequent failure to pay the first call, his shares were forfeited. Mohan, the holder of 900 shares failed to pay the two calls and his shares were forfeited after the second and final call. Of the shares forfeited, 1,200 shares were sold to Krishna credited as fully paid for `9 per share, the whole of Ramesh's share being included. Show journal and cash book entries and prepare the balance sheet. (12 marks) (b) Explain the nature of profit or loss prior to incorporation. How is it treated in the books of accounts ? (3 marks) PART . B (Answer Question No.5 which is compulsory and any two of the rest from this part.) 5. (a) State, with reasons in brief, whether the following statements are true or false : (i) Cost sheet is the same as statement of cost and profit. (ii) Zero base budgeting is based on incremental approach. (iii) When a factory operates at full capacity, fixed cost also becomes relevant for make or buy decisions. (iv) Marginal costing is different from direct costing. (v) Management accounting is based on double entry system. (2 marks each) (b) Write the most appropriate answer from the given options in respect of the following : (i) The rate of change of labour force in an organisation during a specified period is called . (a) Labour efficiency (b) Labour turnover (c) Labour productivity (d) None of the above. (ii) Differential cost analysis is incorporated in the . (a) Cost books (b) Financial books (c) Statutory books (d) None of the above. (iii) Marginal costing is a very useful technique to management for . (a) Cost control (b) Profit planning (c) Decision making (d) All of the above. (iv) When prices of materials have a rising trend, then the suitable method for issuing the materials will be . (a) FIFO (b) LIFO (c) HIFO (d) Standard cost price. (v) Cash flow statement is required for the financial planning of . (a) Short range (b) Long range (c) Medium range (d) Very long range. (1 mark each) (c) Re-write the following sentences after filling-in the blank spaces with appropriate word(s)/figure(s) : (i) A document which provides for assembly of different costs in respect of a cost centre or a cost unit is called _____________. (ii) Economic order quantity depends on _____________ and _____________ costs. (iii) In case the amount of overheads recovered from production is more than the actual overheads, there is said to be _____________ of overheads. (iv) Abnormal idle time cost should be charged to _____________. (v) Bin card shows ____________ at any moment of time. (1 mark each) 6. (a) From the following particulars relating to Genius Ltd., prepare balance sheet as on 31st March, 2013 : Fixed assets/turnover ratio (based on sale) 1:2 Debt collection period 2 months Gross profit 25% Consumption of raw materials 40% of cost of goods sold Stock of raw materials 4 months consumption Finished goods 20% of turnover at cost Fixed assets to current assets 1:1 Current ratio 2 Long-term loan to current liability 1:3 Capital to reserve 5:2 Cost of fixed assets `10,50,000 (12 marks) (b) Marginal costing rewards sales whereas absorption costing rewards production. Comment. (3 marks) 7. (a) From the information given below prepare cash flow statement for Smile Ltd. : Balance Sheets As on As on 31-03-2012 31-03-2013 (` in '000) (` in '000) Equity and liabilities Shareholders' funds : Share capital 1,800 2,000 Reserves and surplus : General reserve 50 30 Profit and loss account 140 160 Non-current liabilities : Loan on mortgage @ 8% (taken on 1st July, 2012) . 50 Current liabilities : Bank overdraft 115 114 Trade payables 22 40 Short-term provisions : Provision for final dividend 90 80 2,217 2,474 Assets Non-current assets : Freehold building 1,000 1,160 Machinery and plant 340 490 Furniture and fittings 7 6 Goodwill 150 130 Investment in shares 100 120 Preliminary expenses 15 5 Current assets : Inventories 440 422 Trade receivables 160 134 Prepaid expenses 4 5 Cash in hand 1 2 2,217 2,474 Additional information : (i) Depreciation on freehold building @ 2½% on cost `12,00,000; on machinery and plant @ 10% on cost `5,00,000; on furniture and fitting @ 5% on cost `10,000. (ii) Dividend received `6,000 was used in writing down the book value of investment in shares. 1/2013/CACMA Contd ........ (iii) Goodwill was written off out of general reserve. (iv) The proposed dividend for the year ended 31st March, 2012 was paid off and interim dividend of `60,000 was paid out of profit and loss account. (12 marks) (b) Distinguish between 'production account' and 'cost sheet'. (3 marks) 8. (a) The following data are available in a manufacturing company for a year period : (` in lakhs) Fixed expenses : Wages and salaries 9.50 Rent, rates and taxes 6.60 Depreciation 7.40 Sundry administrative expenses 6.50 Semi-variable expenses (at 50% capacity) : Maintenance and repairs 3.50 Indirect labour 7.90 Sales department salaries, etc. 3.80 Sundry administrative expenses 2.80 Variable expenses (at 50% of capacity) : Materials 21.70 Labour 20.40 Other expenses 7.90 98.00 Assume that fixed expenses remain constant for all levels of production, semi-variable expenses remain constant between 45% and 65% of capacity and increasing by 10% between 65% and 80% capacity and by 20% between 80% and 100% capacity. Sales at various levels are . at 50% capacity : `100 lakh; at 60% capacity : `120 lakh; at 75% capacity : `150 lakh; at 90% capacity : `180 lakh; and at 100% capacity : `200 lakh. Prepare a flexible budget for the year and forecast the profits at 60%, 75%, 90% and 100% of capacity. (9 marks) (b) A company has fixed expenses of `90,000 with sales of `3,00,000 and a profit of `60,000 during the first half year. If in the next half year, the company suffered a loss of `30,000. Calculate . (i) P/V ratio, break-even point and margin of safety for the first half year. (ii) Expected sales volume for next half year assuming that selling price and fixed expenses remain unchanged. (iii) The break-even point and margin of safety for the whole year. (6 marks) |